-
Question 1
Correct
-
Which mood stabilizer has the strongest evidence for preventing suicide in individuals diagnosed with bipolar affective disorder?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Which parameter typically decreases in patients who develop agranulocytosis as a result of taking clozapine?
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Explanation:Agranulocytosis is characterized by a decrease in the number of granulocytes, specifically neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils. When clozapine is used, the primary focus is on monitoring the neutrophil count.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 3
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to refer to a psychotic episode that is brief and lasts for less than 3 months?
Your Answer: Paraphrenia
Correct Answer: Bouffée délirante
Explanation:The term Bouffée délirante is a distinct and historical French diagnosis used to describe a brief episode of psychosis characterized by sudden and severe psychotic symptoms that fully resolve. The oneiroid state refers to a dreamy mental state. Latent schizophrenia is an outdated term that was previously used to describe individuals with borderline, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders.
– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
In this case, a 23-year-old woman with autism spectrum disorder and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is seeking advice on medication options for her attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. She has reported using CBD oil occasionally to help her feel more relaxed in social situations, but denies any substance misuse. The most suitable initial medication choice in this situation would be:
Your Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:According to Graham (2011), the use of cannabis of CBD does not automatically prevent the prescription of stimulant medication for ADHD. Methylphenidate is considered the most effective treatment option and would be the preferred choice. Atomoxetine may be used if there is a concern about stimulant abuse of diversion, but in this case, there is no evidence of substance misuse. These recommendations are based on European guidelines for managing adverse effects of medication for ADHD.
ADHD Diagnosis and Management in Adults
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for ADHD, with the DSM-5 recognising three subtypes of the condition: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for ADHD in adults includes medication and non-pharmacological interventions. NICE recommends offering medication to adults with ADHD if their symptoms are still causing significant impairment after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine are first-line medications, with atomoxetine offered for those who cannot tolerate the former two. Additional medication options may be considered with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’ for ADHD. Prior to initiating medication, referral to cardiology is recommended if there is a suggestion of cardiac pathology. If a person with ADHD develops mania of psychosis, ADHD treatment should be stopped until the episode has resolved. If a person taking stimulants develops tics, medication options may be adjusted.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
What is the truth about myocarditis in relation to the use of clozapine?
Your Answer: A type I Ig A-mediated acute hypersensitivity reaction is suggested as an aetiology
Correct Answer: Chest pain is only present in approximately 25% of people with biopsy-proven idiopathic myocarditis
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A teenage male patient taking risperidone reports sexual dysfunction and is diagnosed with elevated prolactin levels. What would be the most appropriate alternative medication?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Sexual side effects are rare when using aripiprazole.
Antipsychotics: Common Side Effects and Relative Adverse Effects
Antipsychotics are medications used to treat various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. However, they can also cause side effects that can be bothersome of even serious. The most common side effects of antipsychotics are listed in the table below, which includes the adverse effects associated with their receptor activity.
Antidopaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block dopamine receptors in the brain. They can cause galactorrhoea, gynecomastia, menstrual disturbance, lowered sperm count, reduced libido, Parkinsonism, dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia.
Anticholinergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block acetylcholine receptors in the brain. They can cause dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, and constipation.
Antiadrenergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block adrenaline receptors in the body. They can cause postural hypotension and ejaculatory failure.
Histaminergic effects: These effects are related to the medication’s ability to block histamine receptors in the brain. They can cause drowsiness.
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a rough guide to the relative adverse effects of different antipsychotics. The table below summarizes their findings, with +++ indicating a high incidence of adverse effects, ++ indicating a moderate incidence, + indicating a low incidence, and – indicating a very low incidence.
Drug Sedation Weight gain Diabetes EPSE Anticholinergic Postural Hypotension Prolactin elevation
Amisulpride – + + + – – +++
Aripiprazole – +/- – +/- – – –
Asenapine + + +/- +/- – – +/-
Clozapine +++ +++ +++ – +++ +++ –
Flupentixol + ++ + ++ ++ + +++
Fluphenazine + + + +++ ++ + +++
Haloperidol + + +/- +++ + + +++
Olanzapine ++ +++ +++ +/- + + +
Paliperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Pimozide + + – + + + +++
Quetiapine ++ ++ ++ – + ++ –
Risperidone + ++ + + + ++ +++
Zuclopenthixol ++ ++ + ++ ++ + +++Overall, it is important to discuss the potential side effects of antipsychotics with a healthcare provider and to monitor for any adverse effects while taking these medications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
How is a brief episode of psychotic symptoms lasting less than three months referred to in the ICD-11?
Your Answer: Acute and transient psychotic disorder
Explanation:The ICD-11 categorizes brief psychotic episodes that occur suddenly without warning as acute and transient psychotic disorder, lasting for less than three months but typically less than one month. Meanwhile, the DSM-5 distinguishes between two similar conditions: brief psychotic disorder, which resolves within a month, and schizophreniform disorder, which persists for more than one month but less than six months.
– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended approach for treating PTSD according to the 2018 NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: EMDR is considered first-line for patients with complex PTSD
Correct Answer: Medication should not be offered to patients under the age of 18
Explanation:NICE’s stance is that medication should not be prescribed to individuals under 18 with PTSD. Antipsychotics should only be considered as a last resort after other methods, such as SSIs, have been attempted and proven ineffective.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
What is a true statement regarding schizophrenia in women?
Your Answer: Schizophrenia in women is associated with fewer structural brain abnormalities than in men
Explanation:Schizophrenia presents differently in men and women. Women tend to have a later onset and respond better to treatment, requiring lower doses of antipsychotics. Men, on the other hand, have an earlier onset, poorer premorbid functioning, and more negative symptoms and cognitive deficits. They also have greater structural brain and neurophysiological abnormalities. Females display more affective symptoms, auditory hallucinations, and persecutory delusions, but have a more favorable short- and middle-term course of illness with less smoking and substance abuse. Families of males are more critical, and expressed emotion has a greater negative impact on them. Certain neurological soft signs may be more prevalent in males. There are no clear sex differences in family history, obstetric complications, and minor physical anomalies.
Schizophrenia Epidemiology
Prevalence:
– In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
– Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
– The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
– Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.Incidence:
– In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
– Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.Gender:
– The male to female ratio is 1:1.Course and Prognosis:
– Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
– Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
– Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
– Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
– Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
– People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.Winter Births:
– Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.Urbanicity:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.Migration:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.Class:
– There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.Learning Disability:
– Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
What changes would be anticipated when transitioning a middle-aged man with long-term schizophrenia from a conventional antipsychotic to a newer atypical antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer: A reduction in extrapyramidal side effects
Explanation:Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
Which atypical antipsychotic was excluded from phase I of the CATIE study?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:The study incorporated clozapine during its second phase.
CATIE Study: Comparing Antipsychotic Medications for Schizophrenia Treatment
The Clinical Antipsychotic Trials of Intervention Effectiveness (CATIE) Study, funded by the National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH), was a nationwide clinical trial that aimed to compare the effectiveness of older and newer antipsychotic medications used to treat schizophrenia. It is the largest, longest, and most comprehensive independent trial ever conducted to examine existing therapies for schizophrenia. The study consisted of two phases.
Phase I of CATIE compared four newer antipsychotic medications to one another and an older medication. Participants were followed for 18 months to evaluate longer-term patient outcomes. The study involved over 1400 participants and was conducted at various treatment sites, representative of real-life settings where patients receive care. The results from CATIE are applicable to a wide range of people with schizophrenia in the United States.
The medications were comparably effective, but high rates of discontinuation were observed due to intolerable side-effects of failure to adequately control symptoms. Olanzapine was slightly better than the other drugs but was associated with significant weight gain as a side-effect. Surprisingly, the older, less expensive medication (perphenazine) used in the study generally performed as well as the four newer medications. Movement side effects primarily associated with the older medications were not seen more frequently with perphenazine than with the newer drugs.
Phase II of CATIE sought to provide guidance on which antipsychotic to try next if the first failed due to ineffectiveness of intolerability. Participants who discontinued their first antipsychotic medication because of inadequate management of symptoms were encouraged to enter the efficacy (clozapine) pathway, while those who discontinued their first treatment because of intolerable side effects were encouraged to enter the tolerability (ziprasidone) pathway. Clozapine was remarkably effective and was substantially better than all the other atypical medications.
The CATIE study also looked at the risk of metabolic syndrome (MS) using the US National Cholesterol Education Program Adult Treatment Panel criteria. The prevalence of MS at baseline in the CATIE group was 40.9%, with female patients being three times as likely to have MS compared to matched controls and male patients being twice as likely.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
What factor is the most probable cause of neural tube defects?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A patient who has been successfully titrated on clozapine begins to show signs of relapse despite no changes to his dose. He insists that his smoking status has not changed and he has not commenced any new medications. Levels are taken to investigate the possibility of compliance issues.
The following result is obtained:
Clozapine (plasma) = 560 µg/L
Norclozapine = 420 µg/L
Ratio = 1.3
Time of sample since last dose 11.5 hours
Clozapine dose = 600 mg / d
Smoker = No
Which of the following is most likely?:Your Answer: The ratio is higher than expected and suggests that the patient may have started smoking
Correct Answer: The ratio appears normal and does not suggest non-compliance
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
What is the expected response rate to clozapine for individuals with treatment resistant schizophrenia?
Your Answer: 60%
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 56 year-old man attends the out-patient clinic. He was started on fluoxetine eight weeks ago for depression and is now requesting to stop his medication as he feels so well. Your assessment indicates that he is now in remission. What should be recommended regarding his treatment?
Your Answer: It should be continued for at least another 6 months
Explanation:To minimize the likelihood of relapse, it is recommended to maintain treatment for at least 6 months after achieving remission. It is important to note that antidepressants are not habit-forming, and patients should be reassured of this fact.
Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
What is a true statement about individuals with rapid cycling bipolar disorder?
Your Answer: It lasts less than 2 years in approximately 50% of patients
Explanation:If rapid cycling bipolar disorder occurs, propranolol should be discontinued as it is believed to be a contributing factor.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A colleague in primary care contacts you for advice regarding a case of mild panic disorder in a 35-year-old woman. Medical causes have been ruled out.
According to NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate course of action in this case?Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Individual self-help
Explanation:Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations
Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.
Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
What is the accuracy of the NICE guidelines for anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: Oral oestrogen should not be routinely offered to treat bone density problems in children
Explanation:The use of medical treatment for osteoporosis in individuals with anorexia is not advisable. Additionally, administering oestrogen as a solution for bone density issues in children should not be a standard practice. While there are no specific medications recommended for anorexia, they may be useful in addressing concurrent conditions like depression.
Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
What is a recognized symptom of combat neurosis?
Your Answer: Desire to return to the region of the conflict
Correct Answer: Irritability
Explanation:of the symptoms mentioned, irritability is the only one that is associated with PTSD.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
Which of the following is not a known adverse effect of bulimia nervosa?
Your Answer: Peptic ulcer disease
Explanation:Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications
Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
What is the cut-off score on the SCOFF questionnaire that suggests a probable case of anorexia or bulimia?
Your Answer: 4
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders
The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.
A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.
Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
What is the truth about the psychiatric impacts of treatments for multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Mania occurs more frequently than depression from corticosteroid use
Explanation:Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.
Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.
The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.
In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
One of the statements about postpartum mental health problems is incorrect.
Your Answer: Post-natal depression is seen in around 2-3% of women
Explanation:Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression
Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.
Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.
Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Caution should be exercised when administering clozapine in which of the following circumstances?
Your Answer: History of bleeding disorders
Correct Answer: Susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma
Explanation:TCAs, low-potency antipsychotics, topiramate, and SSRIs have been linked to angle-closure glaucoma, a severe condition.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
What is the most frequently observed symptom in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Lack of insight
Explanation:– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for a patient with epilepsy who has developed a psychotic illness, considering its minimal impact on seizure threshold?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy
People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
Based on the patient's symptoms and examination findings, the most likely diagnosis is unclear. The patient presents with haemoptysis, abdominal pain, and pyrexia for the past 2 months, and has numerous bizarre-shaped lesions on both forearms with various stages of healing. Blood tests have come back as normal, and a dermatologist has concluded that the skin lesions are not compatible with any known dermatological disorder. Further investigation is needed to determine the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms and skin lesions.
Your Answer: Acute intermittent Porphyria
Correct Answer: Factitious disorder
Explanation:The unusual scratches and blisters present on the forearms indicate the possibility of dermatitis artefacta, a type of dermatitis that is intentionally self-inflicted. This is a common symptom of factitious disorder.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
A 60-year-old woman from South Africa presents with cognitive impairment, slow movements, and some psychotic symptoms. She has been referred to you by the medical team at the local hospital who are investigating her for an unexplained low-grade fever. Upon assessment, you find that she is relatively oriented and her sleep pattern is not disrupted. She is aware of her memory issues. During the physical examination, you observe signs of hypertonia and hyperreflexia. Additionally, there are raised purple plaques on her ankle. What is your preferred diagnosis?
Your Answer: HIV dementia
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are consistent with subcortical dementia caused by HIV. Kaposi’s sarcoma plaques, African origin, and a fever of unknown origin provide additional evidence for this diagnosis. While delirium can be a symptom of cerebral malaria and Lyme disease, the patient in this case remains oriented. Culture bound syndromes typically do not cause fever. Alzheimer’s disease typically affects the cortical regions of the brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 29
Correct
-
Which of the following factors does not contribute to a higher likelihood of developing PTSD?
Your Answer: Male gender
Explanation:The likelihood of developing PTSD is greater for females. Additionally, experiencing significant distress and dissociation during the initial traumatic event are also linked to the development of PTSD.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
What is the likelihood of spina bifida occurring in a fetus if a pregnant woman is prescribed Epilim?
Your Answer: 1 in 1000
Correct Answer: 1 in 100
Explanation:Valproate Use During Pregnancy Can Cause Birth Defects and Developmental Problems in Children
Valproate is a medication that is commonly used to treat epilepsy and bipolar disorder. However, when taken by pregnant women, it can cause serious birth defects in their babies. Studies have shown that around 1 in 10 babies born to women who took valproate during pregnancy will have a birth defect. These defects can include malformations of the spine, face, skull, limbs, heart, kidney, urinary tract, and sexual organs.
In addition to birth defects, children exposed to valproate in the womb may also experience developmental problems. About 3-4 children in every 10 may have issues with learning to walk and talk, lower intelligence than their peers, poor speech and language skills, and memory problems. There is also evidence to suggest that these children may be at a higher risk of developing autism or autistic spectrum disorders, as well as symptoms of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).
It is important for women who are pregnant of planning to become pregnant to discuss the risks and benefits of taking valproate with their healthcare provider. Alternative medications of treatment options may be available that are safer for both the mother and the developing baby.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
What antibiotic is utilized for treating schizophrenia that is resistant to other forms of treatment?
Your Answer: Cefuroxime
Correct Answer: Minocycline
Explanation:Treatment resistant schizophrenia may benefit from minocycline, a medication typically used for pneumonia and acne.
Treatment Options for Schizophrenia (Resistance)
Schizophrenia can be a challenging condition to treat, especially when it is resistant to standard therapies. In such cases, clozapine is the preferred treatment option. However, if this medication is not suitable of fails to produce the desired results, there are other options available, although their effectiveness is often limited.
There is little variation between the alternative treatments, and in practice, olanzapine is typically the first choice, often prescribed at doses higher than those recommended by the manufacturer. If this approach proves ineffective, a second antipsychotic medication may be added to the treatment regimen. Despite these efforts, treatment-resistant schizophrenia remains a significant challenge for clinicians and patients alike.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 32
Correct
-
A stable postpartum patient, with a history of depression, has just given birth. She asks for your advice about breastfeeding. She has been stable on her current antidepressant medication for several years, although had multiple episodes of depression in the past.
Which of the following prescribed medications would lead you to advise against breastfeeding?Your Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:In the scenario described, the patient has treatment-resistant schizophrenia and is currently stable. Therefore, it may not be necessary to change their antipsychotic medication, as the benefits of continuing their current medication may outweigh the potential risks to the baby if they choose to breastfeed. However, it is important to consider the specific medication being taken and consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
A new adolescent patient is referred to your clinic and requires a medication review. On reading their records prior to the assessment you note they have a diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder. What can you interpret from this diagnosis?
Your Answer: They must have had previous episodes of both mania and depression
Correct Answer: They must have had a previous episode of mania
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 34
Correct
-
Which medication is most likely to reduce the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Mood stabilisers and contraception: Some anticonvulsants/mood stabilisers can interfere with contraception, such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, and topiramate. However, others like valproate, lamotrigine, gabapentin, and lithium do not tend to cause this problem and are preferred for women using contraception. It is important to note that valproate should only be used in girls and women of childbearing potential if other treatments are ineffective of not tolerated, as judged by an experienced specialist. Additionally, valproate is contraindicated in girls and women of childbearing potential unless the conditions of the valproate pregnancy prevention programme (‘prevent’) are met.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 35
Correct
-
Which condition is believed to be linked to puerperal psychosis?
Your Answer: Bipolar affective disorder
Explanation:Psychiatric Issues in the Postpartum Period
The period following childbirth, known as the postpartum period, can be a time of significant psychiatric challenges for women. Many women experience a temporary mood disturbance called baby blues, which is characterized by emotional instability, sadness, and tearfulness. This condition typically resolves within two weeks.
However, a minority of women (10-15%) experience postpartum depression, which is similar to major depression in its clinical presentation. In contrast, a very small number of women (1-2 per 1000) experience postpartum psychosis, also known as puerperal psychosis. This is a severe form of psychosis that occurs in the weeks following childbirth.
Research suggests that there may be a link between puerperal psychosis and mood disorders, as approximately 50% of women who develop the condition have a family history of mood disorder. Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first two weeks following delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential psychiatric issues and to provide appropriate support and treatment to women during the postpartum period.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 36
Correct
-
What characteristic is associated with Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder?
Your Answer: Unwillingness to pass on tasks to others except if they surrender to exactly their way of doing things
Explanation:Individuals with obsessive compulsive personality disorder tend to be hesitant to delegate tasks to others unless they conform to their specific methods and preferences.
Personality Disorder (Obsessive Compulsive)
Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control, which can hinder flexibility and efficiency. This pattern typically emerges in early adulthood and can be present in various contexts. The estimated prevalence ranges from 2.1% to 7.9%, with males being diagnosed twice as often as females.
The DSM-5 diagnosis requires the presence of four of more of the following criteria: preoccupation with details, rules, lists, order, organization, of agenda to the point that the key part of the activity is lost; perfectionism that hampers completing tasks; extreme dedication to work and efficiency to the elimination of spare time activities; meticulous, scrupulous, and rigid about etiquettes of morality, ethics, of values; inability to dispose of worn-out of insignificant things even when they have no sentimental meaning; unwillingness to delegate tasks of work with others except if they surrender to exactly their way of doing things; miserly spending style towards self and others; and rigidity and stubbornness.
The ICD-11 abolished all categories of personality disorder except for a general description of personality disorder, which can be further specified as “mild,” “moderate,” of “severe.” The anankastic trait domain is characterized by a narrow focus on one’s rigid standard of perfection and of right and wrong, and on controlling one’s own and others’ behavior and controlling situations to ensure conformity to these standards. Common manifestations of anankastic include perfectionism and emotional and behavioral constraint.
Differential diagnosis includes OCD, hoarding disorder, narcissistic personality disorder, antisocial personality disorder, and schizoid personality disorder. OCD is distinguished by the presence of true obsessions and compulsions, while hoarding disorder should be considered when hoarding is extreme. Narcissistic personality disorder individuals are more likely to believe that they have achieved perfection, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder are usually self-critical. Antisocial personality disorder individuals lack generosity but will indulge themselves, while those with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder adopt a miserly spending style toward both self and others. Schizoid personality disorder is characterized by a fundamental lack of capacity for intimacy, while in obsessive-compulsive personality disorder, this stems from discomfort with emotions and excessive devotion to work.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 37
Correct
-
What is the impact of lithium on the white blood cell count?
Your Answer: Neutrophil levels are increased
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 38
Correct
-
What is the approximate incidence of agranulocytosis linked to the usage of clozapine?
Your Answer: 1%
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 39
Correct
-
What is a true statement about lamotrigine?
Your Answer: Valproate increases lamotrigine concentrations more than 2-fold
Explanation:Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.
Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 40
Correct
-
What BMI range is considered healthy for an adult female in terms of weight?
Your Answer: 19
Explanation:There is no difference in BMI ranges between males and females.
Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.
Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.
It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient is titrated on clozapine which is shown to be effective at a dose of 450 mg daily. The dose is well tolerated. Plasma levels are taken which reveals the following:
Clozapine (plasma) = 1100 µg/L
Norclozapine = 730 µg/L
What recommendation would you make to the patient based on these results?Your Answer: Add anticonvulsant and withhold the clozapine until levels drop below 1000 µg/L
Correct Answer: Add anticonvulsant and maintain the dose
Explanation:The validity of the sample is confirmed by the fact that the norclozapine level is around 2/3 of the clozapine level. To prevent seizures, an anticonvulsant should be included, but the current dose is both effective and well-tolerated, so it should be maintained. It should be noted that even with standard doses, high levels may occur.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 42
Correct
-
What is a true statement about bodily distress disorder?
Your Answer: A diagnosis can be made even when a diagnosis is medically explained
Explanation:Unsightly skin changes are not a typical symptom of bodily distress disorder as the condition is usually characterized by subjective symptoms that are difficult to measure objectively, such as pain, fatigue, and gastrointestinal of respiratory issues.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man with schizophrenia requests to stop taking his chlorpromazine medication after hearing from another patient that it is outdated. Despite the fact that chlorpromazine has effectively managed his symptoms since he was diagnosed at age 20, the patient insists on switching to a newer and more modern medication. Which of the following atypical antipsychotics would be the least appropriate for him to start taking next?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Before starting clozapine, it is recommended to try at least two other antipsychotic medications. However, in this particular case, the individual has only been treated with one antipsychotic.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
What is the average suicide rate in the general population of England?
Your Answer: 1 in 100,000
Correct Answer: 1 in 10,000
Explanation:The suicide rate for mental health service users in England is ten times higher than the average suicide rate for the general population, with 1 in 1000 individuals taking their own lives.
2021 National Confidential Inquiry into Suicide and Safety in Mental Health (NCISH) report reveals key findings on suicide rates in the UK from 2008-2018. The rates have remained stable over the years, with a slight increase following the 2008 recession and another rise since 2015/2016. Approximately 27% of all general population suicides were patients who had contact with mental health services within 12 months of suicide. The most common methods of suicide were hanging/strangulation (52%) and self-poisoning (22%), mainly through prescription opioids. In-patient suicides have continued to decrease, with most of them occurring on the ward itself from low lying ligature points. The first three months after discharge remain a high-risk period, with 13% of all patient suicides occurring within this time frame. Nearly half (48%) of patient suicides were from patients who lived alone. In England, suicide rates are higher in males (17.2 per 100,000) than females (5.4 per 100,000), with the highest age-specific suicide rate for males in the 45-49 years age group (27.1 deaths per 100,000 males) and for females in the same age group (9.2 deaths per 100,000). Hanging remains the most common method of suicide in the UK, accounting for 59.4% of all suicides among males and 45.0% of all suicides among females.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 45
Correct
-
What is the approximate occurrence rate of depression after giving birth?
Your Answer: 10%
Explanation:Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression
Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.
Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.
Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
You are consulted by a fellow primary care provider who is evaluating a young woman that you previously assessed in clinic six weeks ago for moderate panic disorder. At that time, you initiated treatment with sertraline 50 mg once daily, which has since been increased to 200 mg. However, she reports that she is still experiencing symptoms.
What would be the best course of action in this situation?Your Answer: Switch from sertraline to mirtazapine
Correct Answer: Encourage ongoing treatment with sertraline at 200 mg for a further 6 weeks
Explanation:All antidepressants have a delayed therapeutic effect and patients may initially experience an increase in panic symptoms. NICE advises a 12-week treatment period before considering additional medication.
Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations
Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.
Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 47
Correct
-
A male patient with schizophrenia is started on oral risperidone. After 6 months of treatment, routine monitoring reveals hyperprolactinemia. Upon further questioning, the patient reports experiencing erectile dysfunction but is unsure for how long this has been an issue. The patient is switched to quetiapine, which results in a good clinical response. One month later, his prolactin levels are rechecked and found to be 130 ng/ml. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this case?
Your Answer: Continue quetiapine and request an MRI
Explanation:If the patient’s prolactin levels have not decreased even after switching to a different antipsychotic medication that has a lower likelihood of increasing prolactin levels, it is possible that there is an underlying cause within the body. One potential cause of hyperprolactinemia is a tumor in the anterior pituitary gland. Therefore, if the patient’s prolactin levels are greater than 118 ng/ml, it is recommended to undergo an MRI to investigate this possibility. It is important to note that a gadolinium-enhanced MRI is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of a prolactinoma, as CT scans do not provide sufficient visualization of the pituitary gland.
Management of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.
Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.
Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 48
Correct
-
Which area experiences the most significant degeneration in Wilson's disease?
Your Answer: The lenticular nucleus
Explanation:Hepatolenticular degeneration is another name for Wilson’s disease.
Understanding Wilson’s Disease: A Disorder of Copper Storage
Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25 years, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.
The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion. However, the majority of patients exhibit low levels of both ceruloplasmin and total serum copper.
The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent irreversible damage to the liver and brain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
Which of the following is an uncommon characteristic of individuals with schizoid personality disorder?
Your Answer: Deceitfulness
Explanation:Antisocial personality disorder is marked by a prominent trait of deceitfulness.
Schizoid Personality Disorder: A Description of Symptoms
Schizoid personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that falls under cluster A. People with this disorder are often seen as distant, isolated, and emotionally detached. They tend to have a restricted range of emotions and struggle to form close relationships with others. Symptoms typically begin in early adulthood and can be observed in various contexts. To be diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least four of the following symptoms:
1. Lack of desire for close relationships
2. Preferring solitary activities
3. Little interest in sexual experiences
4. Finding pleasure in few activities
5. Lack of close friends of confidants
6. Indifference to praise of criticism
7. Emotional coldness, detachment, of flattened affectivity
8. Symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition and do not occur in the context of schizophrenia, manic depression, autism spectrum disorder, of another affective disorder with psychotic features.It is important to note that the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for schizoid personality disorder. Instead, it has adopted a dimensional approach to diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
-
Question 50
Correct
-
For which conditions is eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy commonly utilized?
Your Answer: PTSD
Explanation:EMDR: A Trauma-Focused Therapy for PTSD
EMDR, of eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing, is a therapy developed by Francine Shapiro in the 1980s that focuses on processing traumatic memories. While the exact way it works is not fully understood, it involves reliving traumatic memories while experiencing bilateral alternating stimulation, often through a light source. EMDR is recommended by the NICE Guidelines as a treatment for PTSD, along with trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)