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Question 1
Incorrect
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A man visits your clinic worried about contracting meningococcal meningitis from his wife who has been admitted to the hospital with the disease. He seeks advice on the most suitable prophylactic medication.
What is the most appropriate drug for prophylaxis?Your Answer: Benzylpenicillin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases
Public Health England recommends ciprofloxacin as the preferred antibiotic for prophylaxis and treatment of meningococcal disease in all age groups, including pregnant women. Ciprofloxacin has advantages over rifampicin, such as being a single-dose medication, not interfering with oral contraceptives, and being more easily accessible in community pharmacies. However, it should not be used in patients with ciprofloxacin hypersensitivity. Although historically not recommended for children due to the risk of arthropathy, studies have shown that the risk is low and transient.
Co-trimoxazole is the drug of choice for prophylaxis and treatment of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia, as well as toxoplasmosis and nocardiasis. Vancomycin can be used orally to treat Clostridium difficile infection, with metronidazole as an alternative. Ceftriaxone can be used for prophylaxis of meningococcal and Haemophilus influenza type b disease, but its use is unlicensed and requires intramuscular administration. Benzylpenicillin is given intravenously or intramuscularly in the prehospital treatment of patients with suspected meningococcal disease.
Antibiotics for Prophylaxis and Treatment of Infectious Diseases
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding statin-induced myopathy is inaccurate for elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pravastatin is more likely to cause myopathy than simvastatin
Explanation:Lipophilic statins such as simvastatin and atorvastatin are more likely to cause myopathy compared to relatively hydrophilic statins like rosuvastatin, pravastatin, and fluvastatin.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic to discuss his recent blood test results. He was prescribed 2.5 mg of ramipril daily two weeks ago due to his high blood pressure of 154/90 mmHg. Today, his blood pressure is 138/80 mmHg.
However, his blood test results have changed significantly since his last visit. Two weeks ago, his creatinine level was 50 mmol/l and his potassium level was 4.8 mmol/l. Today, his creatinine level has increased to 106 mmol/l and his potassium level has risen to 5.7 mmol/l.
What is the most appropriate next step to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and review blood pressure and urea and electrolytes within 1 week
Explanation:If the patient’s creatinine levels rise above 177 micromol/l or potassium levels rise above 5.5 mmol/l, it is recommended to discontinue the use of ACE inhibitors. Hospital admission on the same day is not necessary in this case. Although the patient’s blood pressure is under control, it is advisable to stop the use of ramipril due to the increase in creatinine and potassium levels. Continuing the use of ramipril would pose a risk to the patient’s health. Similarly, increasing the dosage of ramipril is not recommended.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A man attends the surgery for an 'MOT' having just had his 55th birthday. He is keen to reduce his risk of cardiovascular disease and asks about being started on a 'statin'.
He has no significant past medical history and takes no medication. His father had a 'heart attack' aged seventy, but his father was obese and a heavy smoker. There is no other family history of note. There is no suggestion of a familial lipid condition.
What is the most appropriate management approach at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optimise adherence to diet and lifestyle measures
Explanation:Primary Prevention of Cardiovascular Disease
This patient has no history of cardiovascular disease (CVD), and therefore, the primary prevention approach is necessary. The first step is to use a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2 to evaluate the patient’s cardiovascular risk. If the patient has a 10% or greater 10-year risk of developing CVD, measuring their lipid profile and offering atorvastatin 20 mg daily would be appropriate. Additionally, providing advice to optimize diet and lifestyle measures is necessary. However, if the patient’s risk is less than 10%, then diet and lifestyle advice/optimization in isolation would be appropriate. At this point, there is no specific indication for lipid clinic input. The use of QRISK2 in this scenario is the best approach as it guides the management, including whether pharmacological treatment with a statin is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A study is designed to test the null hypothesis that performing ten minutes of mindfulness daily makes no difference to improving wellbeing in elderly Primary Care staff. The General Practitioner designing the study considers the most appropriate sample size and demographics and the means of analysis, and sets the power and significance levels for the study.
Which of the following is most likely to be associated with a high statistical power in the study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increasing the statistical significance criterion value
Explanation:Ways to Increase Statistical Power in Research Studies
Statistical power is the ability of a study to detect a true effect and avoid type II errors. To increase statistical power, researchers can consider several factors. One way is to increase the significance criterion value, although this must be weighed against the risk of false positive or negative conclusions. Another way is to use a one-tail test instead of a two-tail test, if appropriate. Researchers can also reduce population variance by using a well-defined population with similar demographics. Larger differences in effect size between outcomes can also increase statistical power, although increasing sample size is often the easiest way to boost power. Finally, small sample sizes can make it harder to detect effects, so increasing sample size can also increase statistical power.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are conducting a headache history with a 10-year-old girl who you suspect may be experiencing migraines. What feature is more prevalent in younger patients with migraines compared to older ones?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral symptoms
Explanation:Symptoms of migraine in children are frequently experienced on both sides of the head.
Migraine is a neurological condition that affects a significant portion of the population. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours, with at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder. In children, attacks may be shorter-lasting, headache is more commonly bilateral, and gastrointestinal disturbance is more prominent.
Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms, such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness, may prompt further investigation or referral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with severe and resistant schizophrenia presents to your clinic. She also has a learning disorder but insists that she always remembers to take her medications. Upon examination, you notice that she appears pale, prompting you to order a full blood count. The following day, the lab informs you that she has neutropenia.
As you wait for her medical records, you begin to consider whether one of her medications could be responsible for the neutropenia.
Which of the following drugs is the most likely culprit?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Clozapine Monitoring Requirements
Clozapine is a medication commonly used to treat schizophrenia that is resistant to conventional antipsychotics. However, it is known to cause neutropaenia, a condition where the body has a low level of neutrophils, a type of white blood cell that fights infection. Therefore, patients taking clozapine need to be carefully monitored.
Before starting treatment with clozapine, leucocyte and differential blood counts must be normal. The prescribing doctor is responsible for ensuring that full blood counts are monitored regularly. The British National Formulary recommends monitoring FBC weekly for 18 weeks, then at least every 2 weeks. If the count has been stable for a year, the frequency can be extended to four weekly.
If a patient taking clozapine presents with signs of acute infection, such as a flu-like illness, it is important to be aware of the significance of the medication and its potential impact on the patient’s neutrophil count.
An audit of patients taking clozapine at a practice could be conducted to assess how many have recorded pre-treatment FBCs, who issues the prescriptions, and how often they are monitored. This information can help ensure that patients taking clozapine are receiving appropriate monitoring and care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A father brings his 3-year-old son to the after-hours clinic. He reports that his son has been unwell for the past 2 days with a fever and flushed cheeks. Today, he has developed a rash all over his body, starting from his chest and stomach. The child is eating less than usual but has had enough wet and soiled nappies. During examination, the child's temperature is 37.8°C, and all other observations are normal. The child has a widespread blanching, pink rash all over his body, feeling like sandpaper to touch. Additionally, his tongue appears red and bumpy. What is the most probable causative organism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group A streptococcus
Explanation:The symptoms presented by this young lady are indicative of scarlet fever, which is caused by Group A beta-haemolytic streptococcus. These symptoms include a rash that feels like sandpaper and a tongue that looks like a strawberry.
Fifth disease, also known as slapped cheek, is caused by Parvovirus B19. Symptoms include a fever, runny nose, and headache, followed by a rash on the face that looks like a slap mark.
The common cold is primarily caused by Rhinovirus.
Group B streptococcus is a significant cause of bacterial infections in newborns, which can result in septicaemia, pneumonia, meningitis, and potentially fatal or long-term consequences.
The table summarizes the main characteristics of childhood infections including Chickenpox, measles, mumps, rubella, erythema infectiosum, scarlet fever, and hand, foot and mouth disease. Each infection has its own set of symptoms such as fever, rash, and lymphadenopathy. Some infections have specific identifying features such as Koplik spots in measles and a ‘slapped-cheek’ rash in erythema infectiosum. Hand, foot and mouth disease is caused by the coxsackie A16 virus and presents with vesicles in the mouth and on the palms and soles of the feet.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of pain in her right forefoot that has been bothering her for the past few months. She describes the pain as a burning sensation that is triggered by walking. The patient denies any history of injury and doesn't engage in regular physical activity. She reports consuming 28 units of alcohol per week. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the middle of her forefoot, and squeezing her metatarsals together reproduces her symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Morton's neuroma
Explanation:Based on the examination results, it is unlikely that the patient is suffering from alcohol-induced peripheral neuropathy.
Understanding Morton’s Neuroma
Morton’s neuroma is a non-cancerous growth that affects the intermetatarsal plantar nerve, typically in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space. It is more common in women than men, with a ratio of 4:1. The condition is characterized by pain in the forefoot, particularly in the third inter-metatarsophalangeal space, which worsens when walking. Patients may describe the pain as a shooting or burning sensation, and they may feel as though they have a pebble in their shoe. In addition, there may be a loss of sensation in the toes.
To diagnose Morton’s neuroma, doctors typically rely on clinical examination, although ultrasound may be helpful in confirming the diagnosis. One diagnostic technique involves attempting to hold the neuroma between the finger and thumb of one hand while squeezing the metatarsals together with the other hand. If a clicking sound is heard, it may indicate the presence of a neuroma.
Management of Morton’s neuroma typically involves avoiding high-heels and using a metatarsal pad. If symptoms persist for more than three months despite these measures, referral to a specialist may be necessary. Orthotists may provide patients with a metatarsal dome orthotic, while secondary care options may include corticosteroid injection or neurectomy of the affected interdigital nerve and neuroma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing painful and irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 6 weeks. She has been taking the combined hormonal contraceptive pill for 8 months and has not missed any pills. She is not on any other medication or using any over-the-counter products. A pregnancy test she recently took came back negative. She denies experiencing dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding.
What is the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer a speculum to assess the cervix, and take endocervical and high-vaginal swabs including a sexual health screen
Explanation:Patients who experience a change in bleeding after being on the combined contraceptive pill for 3 months should undergo a speculum examination. It is common to experience problematic bleeding in the first 3 months after starting a new combined hormonal contraceptive pill, but if bleeding starts after 3 months or is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain, dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding, a per vaginal examination and speculum examination should be considered to identify any underlying causes. Although the irregular bleeding may not be serious, it is important to offer an examination as it has started 3 months after starting the combined hormonal contraceptive pill. There is no need to refer the patient to a gynaecology clinic at this stage before further investigation. If problematic bleeding persists, a higher dose of ethinylestradiol can be tried, up to a maximum of 35 micrograms. Changing the dose of progestogen doesn’t appear to improve cycle control, although it may be helpful on an individual basis. There is no reason to discontinue the combined hormonal contraceptive pill and switch to the progestogen-only pill.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman in the terminal stages of cancer becomes delirious and restless.
Which of the following is the LEAST likely cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haloperidol treatment
Explanation:Causes of Delirium and Terminal Restlessness in End-of-Life Care
Delirium and terminal restlessness are common occurrences in end-of-life care, and there are many different causes that can contribute to these symptoms. Some causes can be easily reversed, while others cannot.
Medications, such as opioids, anti-epileptic drugs, steroids, and anxiolytics, are just a few examples of medications that can cause delirium. Overuse or underuse of medications can also worsen delirium. Additionally, untreated physical pain or discomfort, dehydration, anoxia, anaemia, infections and fevers, brain tumours or swelling, urinary retention, constipation or faecal impaction, fear, anxiety, emotional turmoil, cancer treatments, and metabolic disturbances can all contribute to delirium and terminal restlessness.
To alleviate the distress of terminal confusion and restlessness, haloperidol is often given. This medication has little sedative effect and can help manage these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 12
Incorrect
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For which of the following should an urgent referral to the urology services be made?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 38-year-old male who on insurance medical examination is found to have + haematuria on urinalysis
Explanation:Criteria for Urgent Referral to Urology
There are specific criteria for urgent referral to urology that are based on the potential risk of underlying carcinoma. These criteria include macroscopic haematuria, microscopic haematuria in subjects over 60 who have either dysuria or a raised WBC count in blood, swellings of the body of the testis, palpable renal mass, solid renal mass found on imaging, an elevated age-specific prostate-specific antigen (PSA), and a clinically suspicious penile lesion.
It is important to familiarize oneself with the current indications for urgent referral. It is worth noting that patients over 60 years old may require more urgent attention, as indicated by the criteria for microscopic haematuria. By being aware of these criteria, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive timely and appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man visits his primary care physician with great anxiety about having scabies. His partner has disclosed that he was treated for scabies recently, and the physician observes the typical burrows in the man's finger webs. The man has no other skin ailments or allergies to drugs/foods.
What is the most suitable initial treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% cream applied to all skin, rinsed after 12 hours with re-treatment after 1 week
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for scabies is the application of permethrin cream to all skin, including the scalp, which should be left on for 12 hours before rinsing off. This treatment should be repeated after 7 days. Malathion is a second-line treatment that should be rinsed off after 24 hours. Steroids may be used by dermatologists in cases of resistant scabies or scabies pruritus, but only under specialist guidance. Salt water bathing is not recommended as a treatment for scabies. Mupirocin cream is used to eliminate MRSA in asymptomatic hospital inpatients.
Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents to the clinic with complaints of increasing palpitations, fatigue, and dyspnea on exertion for the past month. She has a well-balanced diet and takes only thyroxine. On examination, she appears pale, and there are no neurological findings. Laboratory results reveal severe anisocytosis and poikilocytosis, large polychromatophilic erythrocytes, and hypersegmented neutrophils. Her hemoglobin is 78 g/L, white cell count is 2.28 x 10^9/L, and platelet count is 42 x 10^9/L. Her ferritin level is 122 ng/mL, serum folate is 7.4 ng/mL, and vitamin B12 is 190 ng/L. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnosis and Treatment of Vitamin B12 Deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency can be a challenging condition to diagnose due to the lack of a gold standard test. While the most common test is serum B12, it may not accurately reflect what is happening at the cellular level, as it records both active and inactive B12. Additionally, some patients with clinical features of vitamin B12 deficiency may have false normal vitamin B12 levels. This can be due to antibody interference or inaccuracies in the test.
People with vitamin B12 levels below 100 nanograms/l usually have clinical or metabolic evidence of deficiency, while levels below 200 nanograms/l are common in most people with deficiency. Diagnosis is supported by macrocytosis, reduced white cell count, platelet count, and reticulocyte count, as well as the blood film.
Treatment options vary depending on the cause of the deficiency. Erythropoietin is used to treat anaemia due to renal failure, while folic acid is used for folate deficiency. However, in cases where folate levels are normal, folic acid treatment will not improve the anaemia. Iron treatment is also unlikely to be effective if ferritin levels are normal and the anaemia is macrocytic. Prednisolone may be useful in cases of haemolysis, but the pancytopenia seen in vitamin B12 deficiency points away from this as the cause of anaemia.
Overall, a thorough understanding of the diagnostic challenges and treatment options for vitamin B12 deficiency is crucial for effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to discuss his medication for hypertension. He is currently taking ramipril 10 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and immediate-release indapamide 1.5 mg daily. Despite tolerating this treatment without any side-effects, his clinic blood pressure remains high at an average of 155/100 mmHg. The patient has no adverse lifestyle factors and a family history of hypertension and stroke. Secondary causes for hypertension have been ruled out, and routine blood tests including renal function, electrolytes, lipids, and glucose are all normal. His serum potassium level is 4.7 mmol/l (normal range 3.5-5.5 mmol/l). What is the most appropriate modification to this patient's treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase indapamide to 2.5 mg daily
Explanation:Treatment options for resistant hypertension
Resistant hypertension can be a challenging condition to manage, and the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines to help healthcare professionals make informed decisions. In step 4 of the guidelines, NICE recommends a combination of ACE inhibitor, calcium channel blocker, and diuretic therapy, with the addition of further diuretic or alpha or beta blocker if necessary.
If further diuretic therapy is required, NICE suggests a higher-dose thiazide-like diuretic or spironolactone, depending on the patient’s serum potassium level. However, if spironolactone is not licensed for use or not tolerated, increasing the dose of indapamide is a suitable alternative. It’s important to note that the maximum dose of modified-release indapamide is 1.5mg daily.
If further diuretic therapy is not tolerated or contraindicated, NICE recommends considering an alpha or beta blocker. In cases of resistant hypertension, seeking expert advice may also be beneficial. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide effective treatment options for patients with resistant hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with complaints of lower abdominal pain. He has been experiencing the pain for the past two months and has come in for an emergency appointment today because he has not had a bowel movement in a week. He cannot recall the last time he passed gas.
He mentions that his stools have been significantly looser over the past few months and that he has noticed blood in his feces on occasion. Upon examination, it is discovered that he has lost over two stone in weight since his last visit to the practice six months ago. Palpation of the abdomen reveals a soft but distended abdomen with a mass in the left lower quadrant. A rectal examination shows an empty rectum with no abnormalities.
What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonic carcinoma
Explanation:Likely Diagnosis for a 69-Year-Old with Weight Loss and Constipation
A 69-year-old man with a history of weight loss, blood in his stool, and a palpable abdominal mass is likely suffering from bowel carcinoma. His symptoms have now progressed to absolute constipation due to an obstructing tumor. Other potential diagnoses, such as diverticular abscess, faecal impaction, and inflammatory bowel disease, are less likely based on his history and examination.
A diverticular abscess typically presents with a tender mass and fever, while faecal impaction may cause a palpable mass but doesn’t typically result in weight loss or blood in the stool. Inflammatory bowel disease is rare in patients of this age and would not typically cause such significant weight loss. Overall, the patient’s symptoms are most consistent with a diagnosis of bowel carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man is concerned about the possibility of having contracted a sexually transmitted infection after having sex with a new partner while on vacation with friends. He is not experiencing any symptoms but is anxious about the potential risk. You suggest that he visit the local sexual health clinic for specialized screening, but he is hesitant due to concerns about being recognized by someone he knows. As an alternative, you discuss the various tests that can be conducted in your general practice. You inform him that while you can collect some initial samples now, he will need to return for additional testing at a later time as it is still too early to detect any new infections.
What is the appropriate timing for submitting a sample for Chlamydia screening for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:When to Get Tested for Chlamydia
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection that often doesn’t show any symptoms. Therefore, it is important to get tested regularly if you are sexually active. The recommended time to get tested for chlamydia is at presentation and then again two weeks after a possible exposure. This is because it can take up to two weeks for the infection to show up on a test. If symptoms do develop, testing should be done immediately. It is also recommended to get tested again at six weeks and three months after a possible exposure to ensure that the infection has been fully treated. Remember, early detection and treatment of chlamydia is crucial for preventing long-term health complications.
Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient complains of painful and heavy periods. She experiences heavy bleeding for approximately 6 days and severe cramps for the first 3 days. She doesn't wish to use contraception as she is getting married soon and intends to start a family. Her full blood count is within normal limits. What is the initial treatment option that is suitable for managing her heavy bleeding and pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mefenamic acid
Explanation:Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of more than 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. Prior to the 1990s, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has since shifted.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women, and a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged if symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality. If contraception is not required, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. A flowchart can be used to guide the management of menorrhagia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a learning disability visits you with her mother. Her mother reports that her daughter was very agitated earlier that day and pushed her away forcefully while shouting when she tried to inquire about what was wrong. The patient was breathing deeply and her hand was shaking at the time. Her mother says this has happened several times in the past few months.
At the moment you see her, the patient has calmed down but is unable to explain what happened, only that she felt hot and bothered. She says she feels this way frequently and that it worsens periodically. You suspect she may have an anxiety disorder. The mother inquires if you could prescribe diazepam.
What are the potential hazards of administering diazepam in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Benzodiazepines and Paradoxical Aggression in Patients with Learning Disabilities
Diazepam and other benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed for anxiety disorders, but they can have a paradoxical effect on some patients, causing an increase in aggression. This risk is particularly concerning for patients with learning disabilities, who may not have the cognitive ability to express their feelings in words. Anxiety disorders often present in this manner in these patients, making it important for healthcare providers to recognize and manage any paradoxical reactions to benzodiazepines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old boy is brought to the General Practitioner because of a painless swelling of the scrotum on one side. The swelling enlarges during the day and diminishes overnight. On examination there is a smooth swelling, within which the testis can be felt. Transillumination is seen when a torch is held against the scrotum.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrocele
Explanation:Understanding Hydroceles and Hernias in Children
During fetal development, the testicle descends into the scrotum accompanied by a sac-like extension of peritoneum called the processus vaginalis (PV). If the PV fails to close, it can result in a communicating hydrocele, where only fluid can pass through, or a hernia, where other abdominal contents protrude.
To diagnose a hydrocele, transillumination of the scrotum can reveal fluid in the tunica vaginalis (TV). However, this test may not fully exclude a hernia, as bowel may also transilluminate. Hydroceles may appear to enlarge during the day and disappear at night due to gravity’s effect on filling.
Hernias may present with abdominal pain, constipation, or vomiting, and the lump may be more prominent when the child cries. Bowel sounds in the scrotum strongly suggest a hernia.
In infants, many hydroceles resolve spontaneously due to PV closure early after birth. Observation is often appropriate up to 12-18 months of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old businessman has just registered with your practice and has asked the receptionists for an appointment to discuss prevention of cardiovascular disease.
He was generally well but had suffered a myocardial infarction six months ago whilst on business in South Africa. He was diagnosed with diabetes three years ago and is on diet control alone.
He had an eight year history of hypertension with a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. He was obese with a BMI of 34 kg/m2.
Investigations reveal:
Total cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L (<5.2)
Which would be the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add a statin (HMG coA reductase inhibitor)
Explanation:Secondary Prevention Scenario: Managing a Type 2 Diabetic with Cardiovascular Disease
Firstly, it is important to recognize that this scenario involves secondary prevention. Evidence from trials such as the MRC/BHF Heart Protection Study has shown the benefits of lowering cholesterol in Type 2 diabetics with cardiovascular disease, regardless of their initial total cholesterol levels. Similarly, studies like CARE have demonstrated the advantages of maintaining cholesterol levels below 6 mmol/L in secondary prevention.
As this patient is likely to be hypertensive, it would be appropriate to initiate antihypertensive therapy if their blood pressure remains elevated. The decision regarding insulin therapy would depend on their HbA1c levels, with metformin being the initial treatment of choice to improve insulin resistance.
It is important to note that there is no significant benefit from using 300 mg over 75 mg of aspirin in these patients, and the higher dose may lead to more side effects. Additionally, there is no evidence to support improved life expectancy with Xenical.
In summary, managing a Type 2 diabetic with cardiovascular disease in a secondary prevention scenario involves lowering cholesterol levels, initiating antihypertensive therapy if necessary, and considering insulin therapy based on HbA1c levels. It is important to carefully consider the risks and benefits of medications such as aspirin and Xenical.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-month history of pelvic pain. She denies any history of trauma. An X-ray shows evidence of Paget's disease.
What is the most suitable course of management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisphosphonates are the gold-standard treatment
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are the preferred treatment for Paget’s disease, as they can reduce bone turnover, alleviate bone pain, promote healing of osteolytic lesions, and restore normal bone histology. Alendronate is taken daily for two months, while zoledronate is given as a single injection. Asymptomatic Paget’s disease is typically not treated unless there is radiological evidence of the disease. Calcitonin is less effective than bisphosphonates and can cause side effects, so it is only used for patients who cannot tolerate bisphosphonates. Hypocalcaemia is a possible complication, so vitamin D and calcium levels should be checked and corrected before bisphosphonate treatment. Orthopaedic surgery may be necessary for pathological fractures, and bisphosphonates can be used before and after surgery. Although the patient in this case doesn’t currently have a fracture, she is at risk, and surgery would not be contraindicated in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You are visiting 84-year-old Mr. Smith who has metastatic lung cancer and has been experiencing nausea and vomiting for the past week. He reports regular nausea, oesophageal reflux, and occasional large volumes of vomit, which provide temporary relief.
Upon conducting a thorough assessment, you suspect that his symptoms are caused by gastric stasis and decide to initiate an anti-emetic.
What is the most suitable medication to begin in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, dopamine (D2) receptor antagonists such as metoclopramide or domperidone should be used as the first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting caused by gastric dysmotility and stasis in palliative care. Cyclizine, an antihistaminic and anticholinergic anti-emetic, would not be appropriate for this condition. Hyoscine butylbromide is another anticholinergic anti-emetic that can be used. Levomepromazine, a broad-spectrum anti-emetic, is useful for persistent nausea and vomiting that is not controlled by other anti-emetics, as well as for mechanical obstruction.
Nausea and Vomiting in Palliative Care: Mechanistic Approach to Prescribing
Nausea and vomiting in palliative care can have multiple causes, but identifying the most prominent one is crucial in guiding the choice of anti-emetic therapy. Six broad syndromes have been identified, with gastric stasis and chemical disturbance being the most common. In general, pharmacological therapy is the first-line method for treating nausea and vomiting in palliative care. There are two approaches to choosing drug therapy: empirical and mechanistic. The mechanistic approach matches the choice of anti-emetic drug to the likely cause of the patient’s nausea and vomiting.
For reduced gastric motility, pro-kinetic agents such as metoclopramide and domperidone are useful. However, metoclopramide should not be used when pro-kinesis may negatively affect the gastrointestinal tract. For chemically mediated nausea and vomiting, the chemical disturbance should be corrected first. Key treatment options include ondansetron, haloperidol, and levomepromazine. Cyclizine and levomepromazine are first-line for visceral/serosal causes, while anticholinergics such as hyoscine can be useful. For raised Intracranial pressure, cyclizine and dexamethasone are recommended. For vestibular causes, cyclizine is the first-line treatment, while atypical antipsychotics such as olanzapine or risperidone can be used in refractory cases. If anticipatory nausea is the clear cause, a short-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam can be useful.
NICE CKS recommends that oral anti-emetics are preferable and should be used if possible. If the oral route is not possible, the parenteral route of administration is preferred. The intravenous route can be used if intravenous access is already established. By using a mechanistic approach to prescribing, healthcare professionals can tailor anti-emetic therapy to the specific cause of nausea and vomiting in palliative care patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old beauty therapist has come to see you because she is constantly arguing with her partner. They have been living together for the past six months. She says that the arguments are making her feel miserable and that her only enjoyment in life is her work and occasional nights out clubbing with her friends.
She says that her boyfriend resents her lifestyle and is very possessive of her time. She feels depressed when she arrives home and he is there, unless he is working a late shift or it is a night out with her friends. On examination, she appears physically fit, tanned, and smartly dressed. She talked about her partner's deficiencies for most of the consultation. Her past medical history includes a tonsillectomy and Chickenpox as a child. She is a non-smoker and visits the gym three times a week. A colleague advised her to visit you to help her with her problems.
What would be the most appropriate way to manage this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her to take St John's wort
Explanation:Relationship Issues vs. Depression: Understanding the Difference
There is no clear indication of depression in this patient’s history. Despite experiencing disharmony in her relationship, she is still able to lead a normal life and enjoy most of it. Therefore, there is no need to prescribe antidepressants or refer her to a psychiatrist. Instead, offering support and guidance towards relationship counseling is the best course of action. It is important to understand the difference between relationship issues and depression, as they require different approaches to treatment. By addressing the root cause of the problem, the patient can work towards resolving her relationship issues and improving her overall well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old woman is curious about maintaining a healthy diet. She currently weighs 106 Kg and stands at a height of 1.76m. What is her approximate body mass index (BMI) rounded to the nearest decimal point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 28
Explanation:BMI Calculation and Interpretation
Body: Body Mass Index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on a person’s weight and height. It is calculated by dividing the weight in kilograms by the square of the height in meters. For instance, if a person weighs 106 kilograms and is 1.76 meters tall, their BMI would be 34.22 kg/m2. This value falls within the obese range, indicating that the person may have an increased risk of developing health problems such as heart disease, diabetes, and high blood pressure. It is important to note that BMI is not a perfect measure of body fatness and should be used in conjunction with other health indicators to assess an individual’s overall health status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man who is being treated for Parkinson's disease is evaluated. What symptom should raise suspicion for a different diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diplopia
Explanation:The occurrence of diplopia is rare in Parkinson’s disease and could indicate an alternative reason for parkinsonism, such as progressive supranuclear palsy.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter to see the GP because of a painful ulcer on her lower lip. It has been present for 5-6 days. On examination, it is erythematous with indurated papules about 4mm in diameter. The GP takes a look and diagnoses an aphthous ulcer.
Within what timescale would most minor aphous ulcers (2-10mm) take to heal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7-14 days
Explanation:Aphthous Ulcers: Painful Lesions on Oral Mucosa
Aphthous ulcers are painful ulcerations that can occur on the labial, buccal, or lingual mucosa. These lesions can present as erythematous indurated papules and can be solitary or multiple. Minor ulcers, which are between 2-10mm in diameter, typically heal on their own within 7-10 days, although some may take up to 14 days. Major ulcers, which are over 10mm in diameter and are rare, can take 10-30 days to heal. Treatment for aphthous ulcers is palliative, with pain relief and local topical anaesthetics being the primary methods used. To learn more about aphthous ulcers, visit the NICE CKS or UCLH websites.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about a noticeable bulge in his groin area. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, the doctor observes a reducible lump with a cough impulse above and medial to the pubic tubercle. The patient reports no pain or other symptoms.
What is the best course of action for managing this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine surgical referral
Explanation:Referral for surgical repair is the recommended course of action for inguinal hernias, even if they are not causing any symptoms. This patient, who has an inguinal hernia, should be referred for surgery as they are fit and well. Physiotherapy referral, reassurance and safety netting, and ultrasound scan are not appropriate in this case.
Understanding Inguinal Hernias
Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.
The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.
After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman has been diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). She experiences spasms of pain in the left iliac fossa and has alternating periods of constipation and loose stools. As her healthcare provider, you are contemplating drug therapy to alleviate her symptoms.
What is the medication that NICE advises against using in patients with IBS?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lactulose
Explanation:NICE advises against the use of lactulose for the treatment of IBS.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 57-year-old woman who has just joined the practice. She has come to see you for a prescription for inhalers for her 'smokers cough'.
Her last GP had prescribed her salbutamol as required and tiotropium once daily. She tells you that she has always had 'trouble with her chest' and as a child had pneumonia which required a prolonged stay in hospital. She expectorates a large amount of grey-green sputum every day and this has been the case for 'years'; there have been no recent changes in her symptoms.
She gave up smoking about 20 years ago having smoked five cigarettes a day from the age of 20. On examination she has coarse crepitations at the right base and has finger clubbing. There is no lymphadenopathy or peripheral oedema. Her weight is stable.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Overlapping Symptoms of COPD and Other Respiratory Diagnoses
There are several respiratory diagnoses that can present with similar symptoms to COPD, including asthma, bronchiectasis, congestive cardiac failure, and bronchial carcinoma. It is important for healthcare professionals to consider these alternative diagnoses when assessing patients with COPD symptoms.
The basics of history and examination are crucial in forming a list of possibilities and guiding any investigation. In some cases, patients may have a rarer condition such as bronchopulmonary dysplasia or obliterative bronchiolitis.
In the case of this patient, the underlying diagnosis is bronchiectasis caused by childhood pneumonia. This has resulted in chronic sputum production and the presence of clubbing, ruling out asthma, COPD, and congestive cardiac failure. While bronchial carcinoma can also cause finger clubbing and focal chest signs, it is less likely in this case due to the patient’s history and other clinical features. Overall, healthcare professionals should always keep in mind the possibility of an alternative diagnosis when assessing patients with COPD symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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