00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 57-year-old motorcyclist presents with declining vision and no glasses. He is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old motorcyclist presents with declining vision and no glasses. He is concerned about his eligibility to drive and the potential voiding of his insurance if he doesn't seek professional advice. What criteria does the DVLA use to determine if someone should be advised not to drive based on visual acuity thresholds?

      Your Answer: Their threshold visual acuity according to a Snellen chart is 6/36

      Correct Answer: The threshold for reading a number plate in good light is a distance of 5 metres

      Explanation:

      Driving and Sight Impairment

      Doctors have a responsibility to advise patients with sight impairment or severe sight impairment not to drive and to inform the DVLA. For those who are group 1 drivers (cars and motorcycles), they must be able to read a modern vehicle number plate in good light from a distance of 20 metres, or approximately 6/12 on a Snellen chart, with the use of corrective lenses if necessary. If there is any uncertainty, patients should contact the DVLA or seek an opinion from an eye specialist. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      167.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient...

    Incorrect

    • What is the appropriate way to complete a medical certificate for a patient with low back pain who wishes to return to work but needs workplace alterations to avoid prolonged periods of sitting?

      Your Answer: If the workplace adaption cannot be accommodated by the employer the patient must return to see you for a further certificate that says they are 'not fit for work'

      Correct Answer: You do not need to see the patient in person when completing the certificate

      Explanation:

      Changes to Sickness Certification in 2010

      In 2010, the process of sickness certification underwent significant changes with the introduction of a new ‘fit note’. The aim of this new certificate was to encourage patients to return to work as soon as possible by suggesting options such as a phased return, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. The form also includes a section where clinicians can provide additional details to support their recommendations.

      It is important to note that employers are not legally obligated to follow the advice provided on the fit note. If the employer cannot facilitate an earlier return to work, the patient doesn’t need to see a doctor for a further certificate. The original certificate will cover them as being unfit for work.

      Patients no longer require a ‘fit for work’ certificate, and the new certificates do not include the option to state that a patient ‘need not refrain from work’. If an employer requires such a certificate, they should arrange for a private assessment.

      The RM7 form, which allowed GPs to request an independent medical assessment for patients claiming benefits, is now obsolete. Most patients making a new claim for benefits will have a medical assessment within a short period of making their claim.

      Finally, it is worth noting that telephone consultations and assessments based on written reports from other healthcare professionals are now acceptable forms of assessment, and patients do not necessarily need to be seen in person.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      216.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding appraisal is incorrect?

      Your Answer: A different appraiser should conduct the appraisal each year

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Appraisal for GPs

      Appraisal is a crucial process that has been mandatory for GPs since 2002. Its primary purpose is to identify areas for development rather than performance management. With the introduction of revalidation by the GMC, appraisals have become even more important as they provide a structured system for recording progress towards revalidation and identifying development needs.

      After the Primary Care Trusts were disbanded, NHS England took on the responsibility for appraisals. The appraiser should be another GP who has been properly trained in appraisal. It is recommended that a doctor should have no more than three consecutive appraisals by the same appraiser in the same revalidation cycle. The average time commitment for appraisal is a minimum of 4.5 to 6.5 hours, including between 2 and 4 hours for preparation.

      The content of appraisal is based on the 4 key domains set out in the GMC’s Good Medical Practice document. These domains include knowledge, skills, and performance, contributing and complying with systems to protect patients, communication, partnership, and teamwork, and maintaining trust. It is essential for GPs to participate in appraisal regularly to ensure they are providing the best possible care to their patients and maintaining their professional standards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      207.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - One of your GP colleagues in their 50s asks you what impact revalidation...

    Incorrect

    • One of your GP colleagues in their 50s asks you what impact revalidation will have on their practice. What areas will be evaluated during the revalidation process?

      Your Answer: Fitness to hold a medical licence + fitness to be on the GP Register + suitability of current career choice

      Correct Answer: Fitness to hold a medical licence + fitness to be on the GP Register

      Explanation:

      Understanding Revalidation for UK Doctors

      Revalidation is a process introduced in 2012 that changed the way UK doctors are licensed and certified. Previously, doctors automatically received their license to practice if they paid their annual fee and had no limitations on their registration. However, with revalidation, doctors are required to prove their fitness to practice every five years to continue working as a doctor. This process combines licensing and certification, and annual appraisals will continue as before, with a focus on progress towards the revalidation portfolio.

      The Royal College of General Practitioners (RCGP) is creating an ePortfolio for the process, which will contain various elements such as a description of work, special circumstances, previous appraisals, personal development plans, continuing professional development, significant event audits, formal complaints, probity/health statements, multi-source/colleague feedback, patient questionnaire surveys, and clinical audit/quality improvement projects.

      To meet the requirements for revalidation, doctors must earn at least 50 learning credits per year, with one credit for each hour of education. However, if the education leads to improvements in patient care, it will count as two credits. The ePortfolio will be submitted electronically for review by a Responsible Officer, who will be based in one of the 27 Area Teams. The Responsible Officer will be advised by a GP assessor and a trained lay person.

      Before recommending a doctor for revalidation, the Responsible Officer must be confident that the doctor has participated in an annual appraisal process, submitted appropriate supporting information to their appraisals, and has no unresolved issues regarding their fitness to practice. Overall, revalidation ensures that UK doctors continue to provide safe and effective care to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      137.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Your friend and colleague, a 60-year-old nurse at the practice, asks for your...

    Incorrect

    • Your friend and colleague, a 60-year-old nurse at the practice, asks for your help. She reports dysuria and frequency. These symptoms are typical of previous UTIs which she typically gets once a year. There is no haematuria, fevers or loin pain and she feels systemically well. She reports that it is difficult to get an appointment with her own practice and doesn't want to take time off work. She says she will see her GP but doesn't want to delay treatment as it has become worse in the past.

      What would be the most appropriate next step for a 60-year-old nurse who reports dysuria and frequency, typical of previous UTIs, but is having difficulty getting an appointment with her own practice and doesn't want to take time off work? She feels systemically well and there is no haematuria, fevers or loin pain, but doesn't want to delay treatment as it has become worse in the past.

      Your Answer: Refer her to the NMC

      Correct Answer: Advise her to book an appointment with her regular practice

      Explanation:

      Providing Medical Care to Close Personal Relationships

      The General Medical Council advises against providing medical care to individuals with whom you have a close personal relationship. This is because the lack of independent assessment may lead to feeling pressured by the person and not having access to necessary information for ongoing treatment.

      While it is important to consider the nurse’s concerns about worsening symptoms, it is necessary to explain the position and why prescribing cannot be justified. Even prescribing a three-day course and asking the nurse to see her usual practice is not clinically justifiable at this time.

      Referring the nurse to the NMC is an extreme option, as it is unlikely that she is acting with malice but rather was not aware of the potential seriousness of her request. It is important to prioritize patient safety and maintain professional boundaries in all medical situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      160.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a blood pressure check. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a blood pressure check. Upon examination, you observe several bruises on her arms. She confides in you that there have been issues at home, but she is hesitant to involve law enforcement. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Tell her that you have no alternative but to contact the police

      Correct Answer: Give her the details of a domestic violence support group

      Explanation:

      Dealing with scenarios involving domestic violence can be challenging. It is important to seek advice from domestic violence support groups as they have specific knowledge and resources to offer practical advice on housing and financial issues. General counseling services may not be equipped to provide such support and may inadvertently blame the victim. While it is still good practice to document injuries, drawing a diagram may not be necessary if the victim is not ready to involve the police. Checking the victim’s bloods is unlikely to be relevant as the bruises are likely a result of violence by their partner. Breaking confidentiality should only be considered if there is a fear for the victim’s life, as it may put them at further risk. Phoning the partner directly is not recommended as it violates confidentiality and may lead to retribution against the victim.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      97.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old retired teacher visits your clinic after his wife called earlier to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old retired teacher visits your clinic after his wife called earlier to express concerns about his memory and concentration. His daughter has also noticed these issues but has not discussed them directly. During the mini-mental state examination, he scores 10/30. You suggest referring him to a specialist memory clinic and advise him to stop driving for the time being. However, he refuses to stop driving, claiming that he feels safe and wants to wait until he sees the specialist. What is the appropriate course of action regarding his driving, according to current guidelines?

      Your Answer: Report the patient to the police

      Correct Answer: Phone the DVLA for advice

      Explanation:

      Reporting concerns about patients’ fitness to drive

      It is important to take action if you have concerns about a patient’s fitness to drive. However, there are guidelines that must be followed to ensure patient confidentiality is maintained. Before contacting the DVLA, it is recommended to inform the patient of your decision to disclose personal information and then inform them in writing once you have done so. If a patient continues to drive despite being unfit to do so, every reasonable effort should be made to persuade them to stop. If this fails, the DVLA should be contacted immediately and any relevant medical information disclosed in confidence to the medical adviser.

      Leaving the decision about driving to specialists is not recommended. Patients who refuse to accept a diagnosis or the effect of their condition on their ability to drive should be advised to seek a second opinion and not to drive in the meantime. If unsure about a specific case, seeking advice from the DVLA’s medical adviser is recommended.

      DVLA guidance on dementia states that those with poor short-term memory, disorientation, lack of insight, and judgment are almost certainly not fit to drive. Reporting a patient to the police is not in line with current guidance. It is important to follow the guidelines to ensure patient confidentiality is maintained while taking appropriate action to ensure road safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      204.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the fundamental nature of the Personal Medical Services agreement? ...

    Correct

    • What is the fundamental nature of the Personal Medical Services agreement?

      Your Answer: Local contract which reflects local patient needs

      Explanation:

      A standard agreement for healthcare providers who have not met the requirements outlined in the General Medical Services (GMS) contract.

      The PMS contract is a contract that is agreed and managed locally. Its original objectives were to provide greater freedom for GPs to address the needs of their patients, encourage innovative and flexible ways of working, and address under-doctored areas. The contract includes core and additional services, similar to the GMS contract, but with additional services that may include community endoscopy. SPMS contracts can be customized to meet the needs of specific communities, such as refugees. Historically, GPs working under the PMS contract have earned more than those under the GMS contract, but this may change in the near future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      150.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had recently injured his shoulder in a fall and self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note. He then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last week. The fit note has been marked you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice, has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      He works in a factory and some of his duties include heavy lifting but he is able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. As this is the case he has been on light duties at work for the last week. He informs you that his shoulder is now fully healed. However, his employer has requested he has a 'return to work note' stating he is fit to return to full work activities due to the previous note being marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: You do not need to sign a 'return to work' note; he may return to full duties without any further input or paperwork from yourself

      Correct Answer: His employer has a legal responsibility to carry out a formal occupational health assessment by private arrangement with a GP or occupational health specialist and following this it is their decision whether he is ready to return to full duties

      Explanation:

      Return to Work Note in UK Practice

      When returning to work after a period of sickness, employers may ask for a return to work note. However, it is important to note that employees do not need to sign this note. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) provides guidance for employers and managers, stating that employees can return to work at any time, even before the end of the sick note. This doesn’t breach Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance, as long as a suitable risk assessment has been conducted if necessary. It is important to advise patients and employers of this information and refer them to the DWP guidance. Remember, there is no need to sign a return to work note in UK practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      139.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What are the three ego states that patients operate in according to the...

    Incorrect

    • What are the three ego states that patients operate in according to the transactional analysis approach to consultation, and which one of these states is included?

      Your Answer: The Pragmatist

      Correct Answer: The Humanist

      Explanation:

      Transactional Approach to Doctor-Patient Relations

      The transactional approach to doctor-patient relations involves three ego states: parent, adult, and child. During a consultation, each person assumes one of these positions, and problems can arise when these positions cross. This model emphasizes the importance of clear communication and understanding between the doctor and patient. By recognizing and addressing these ego states, doctors can better understand their patients’ needs and provide effective care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      59.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - You have a child who has developed occupational asthma due to exposure to...

    Incorrect

    • You have a child who has developed occupational asthma due to exposure to mold in their school. To whom should occupational asthma be reported?

      Your Answer: It should be reported as a notifiable disease to the proper officer of the local authority

      Correct Answer: It should be reported under the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences regulations to the Health & Safety Executive

      Explanation:

      Reporting and Compensation for Occupational Asthma

      Patients who develop occupational asthma may be eligible for benefits through the Industrial Injuries Disablement Benefit. Additionally, if their employer failed to take necessary precautions to prevent harm, the patient may be entitled to make a civil claim for compensation for personal injury. It is important to report cases of occupational asthma to the appropriate authorities. RIDDOR regulations require that cases of occupational asthma be reported to the Health and Safety Executive (HSE), which can be done by the patient’s occupational health department if they were involved in the initial diagnosis. In cases of certain infectious diseases, the local authority should be notified. However, the Chief Medical Officer is not directly involved in the reporting of occupational asthma, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) is responsible for regulating medication and medical devices, not reporting cases of occupational asthma. By reporting cases of occupational asthma, appropriate action can be taken to prevent further harm and ensure that patients receive the necessary support and compensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      158
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 48-year-old teacher presents to you with a history of recurrent depression. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old teacher presents to you with a history of recurrent depression. She informs you that she has an upcoming appointment with the mental health team in a few weeks and requests a sick note as she believes she will be unable to work for the remainder of the year. What is the maximum duration for which you can provide a statement of fitness for work, regardless of eligibility?

      Your Answer: 12 months

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      Changes to Sickness Certification

      In April 2010, the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) introduced a new statement of fitness for work to replace the old ‘sick note’. This new statement brought about several significant changes.

      Firstly, during the first six months of sickness, the statement can only be issued for a maximum of three months. Secondly, doctors are no longer required to hold a face-to-face consultation to issue a note. Instead, another doctor’s report or a telephone consultation with the patient is sufficient.

      Thirdly, doctors are not obligated to provide a statement of fitness for work during the first seven calendar days of absence due to ill health. These changes have made sickness certification a popular topic in the AKT exam. For more information, refer to the Fit note: guidance for GPs page published by the DWP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      74.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice....

    Incorrect

    • You are a GP registrar on a 6 month placement in General Practice. Whilst using one of the partners room for a surgery you notice a half-empty bottle of wine in the desk drawer. After discussing this with the partner she states that it was a recent gift from a patient and was simply storing it there prior to taking it home. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Take no further action

      Correct Answer: Discuss this with one of the other partners in the surgery

      Explanation:

      Although you have already raised your concerns about the doctor’s alcohol consumption, he has dismissed them. It is possible that his explanation, which may involve receiving gifts of alcohol, is valid. However, the fact that the bottle is half-empty is worrying and it is important to discuss your concerns with other doctors in the surgery. They may already be aware of the issue and your observation could provide additional evidence for them to take appropriate action. It is also possible that the doctor may be more willing to admit to a problem if approached by a fellow partner rather than a junior colleague like yourself.

      Filling out a clinical incident form is a good way to formally document your concerns, but it doesn’t address the issue immediately. Writing an anonymous letter to the practice manager is unprofessional and could lead to conflict, as the manager may suspect that one of the other partners wrote the letter.

      Removing the bottle doesn’t solve the underlying problem and could potentially put patients at risk. Therefore, taking no further action is not an acceptable option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      103
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change?

      Your Answer: Open movement

      Correct Answer: Recirculation

      Explanation:

      The Cycle of Change: Understanding the Stages of Personal Transformation

      The Cycle of Change is a model that illustrates the different stages individuals go through when making changes in their lives. The first stage is precontemplation, where the person is not yet aware that a problem exists. The next stage is contemplation, where the person begins to recognize the issue and considers making a change. The third stage is action, where the person takes steps towards making the change. The fourth stage is maintenance, where the person works to sustain the change. However, it is important to note that relapse can occur, which is a full return to the old behavior.

      Understanding the Cycle of Change can be helpful in personal transformation, as it allows individuals to recognize where they are in the process and what steps they need to take to move forward. By acknowledging the different stages and potential setbacks, individuals can better prepare themselves for the challenges that come with making significant changes in their lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience...

    Incorrect

    • The collusion of anonymity is a phrase used to describe a patient's experience of medical care, often in hospital.

      Which of the following statements best describes this concept?

      Your Answer: A patient may be mistaken for another with a similar name

      Correct Answer: Patients' care is fractionated, so that no-one is directly responsible for decision-making

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Collusion of Anonymity in Healthcare

      The collusion of anonymity is a significant issue in healthcare, particularly in hospitals where multiple professionals from different departments are involved in a patient’s care. This can lead to a breakdown in communication and compromised care, as the patient becomes an anonymous entity rather than an individual with specific needs.

      One example of how collusion of anonymity can occur is between primary and secondary care. Medications issued by secondary care often require strict monitoring, and without clear communication between primary and secondary care, issues can arise. To combat this, shared care protocols have been implemented to outline exactly who will be monitoring and acting on abnormal results.

      Multidisciplinary meetings involving various healthcare professionals are also common practice, but it is crucial to clarify each person’s role to avoid collusion of anonymity. This can be achieved through open communication and a clear understanding of each individual’s responsibilities.

      In summary, understanding the collusion of anonymity is essential in providing effective healthcare. By implementing clear communication and protocols, healthcare professionals can work together to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      45.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old woman with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease comes to you to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease comes to you to discuss creating an advanced decision. She wants to make it clear to her family, carers, and medical professionals which treatments she would not want to receive if her condition worsens and she is hospitalized. Specifically, she doesn't want to be placed on a ventilator to support her breathing to sustain her life. Currently, her condition is stable.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding the advanced decision?

      Your Answer: If future life-sustaining treatment is refused then this must be written down, signed by the patient, signed by a witness, and must contain a statement that the advanced decision applies even if their life is at risk

      Correct Answer: Refusal of any future life-sustaining treatment is valid if verbally communicated to a medical professional and documented in his clinical record by a suitably qualified medical professional

      Explanation:

      Advanced Decisions and Statements

      An advanced decision, also known as an advanced decision to refuse treatment or a living will, is a document that informs others about a patient’s wishes for future treatment refusal in case they are unable to make or communicate a decision themselves. To be valid, the specific treatment or treatments being refused must be named, and the circumstances in which the treatment should be refused should be clear. Life-sustaining treatment, such as artificial ventilation, is an example of treatment that may be refused.

      The advanced decision is made by the patient while they have the mental capacity to do so. To refuse life-sustaining treatment, the decision needs to be written down, signed by the patient, and signed by a witness. If the advanced decision is legally binding, it has precedence over best interest decisions of other people.

      For an advanced decision to be valid with regards to refusal of life-sustaining treatment, the person making the decision must be 18 years old or over with appropriate mental capacity, the treatment(s) to be refused must be clearly specified, the circumstances of refusal must be explained, it must be signed by the patient and a witness, the decision must have been made without duress, and the patient must not have said or acted in any way to contradict the advanced decision since it was made.

      On the other hand, an advanced statement is a written statement outlining a patient’s preferences, wishes, beliefs, and values regarding their future care. It is different from an advanced decision, as it doesn’t refuse any specific treatment but rather provides guidance on the patient’s overall care preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      200.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon reviewing his records, you discover that he was recently admitted to the hospital due to a possible seizure. His wife witnessed unusual jerking movements while he was asleep, and he is currently undergoing investigations to rule out epilepsy. The consultant neurologist has advised him not to drive, but you saw him driving his bus just three days ago. When confronted, he admits to still driving and refuses to inform DVLA as he has not received a definite diagnosis and believes there is no issue. Despite informing him of his legal duty to inform DVLA, he still refuses. As a doctor, what is your duty in this situation?

      Your Answer: You should contact DVLA immediately disclosing the situation to them in confidence situation without the patient's knowledge

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance and Doctor’s Duties in Cases of Seizures

      This case highlights the importance of following DVLA guidance when it comes to seizures. If a driver experiences a seizure, they have a duty to inform DVLA and refrain from driving until a diagnosis is made. Depending on the diagnosis, they may be required to not drive for a further period.

      According to GMC guidance, if a doctor advises a patient that they may not drive, they should suggest and arrange a second opinion for the patient. In this case, the doctor is the second opinion and a third opinion is not necessary.

      If the patient refuses to inform DVLA of their condition, the doctor has a duty to disclose the information. However, they must inform the patient prior to the disclosure and confirm in writing that the disclosure has been made. It is important for doctors to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      38.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You see a 6-year-old boy with some mild bruising to his buttocks.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 6-year-old boy with some mild bruising to his buttocks.

      Which of the following would be an unsuitable explanation when assessing an injury to a child and considering child maltreatment?

      Select the most appropriate answer.

      Your Answer: The parents are having difficulty consoling the child

      Correct Answer: The parents explain that bruising their child in certain circumstances is normal in their culture

      Explanation:

      Signs of Child Maltreatment

      It is crucial to remain vigilant for signs of child maltreatment in situations where an appropriate explanation is not provided. NICE has identified specific examples of unsuitable explanations, including when the explanation doesn’t account for the presenting symptoms, when it is inconsistent with the child’s typical behavior or medical history, when there are discrepancies between the explanations given by parents or between parents and the child, and when cultural beliefs are used to justify harm to the child. It is important to be aware of these warning signs and to take appropriate action to protect the child’s well-being. By recognizing these indicators, we can help prevent child abuse and ensure that children receive the care and protection they deserve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      353.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 60-year-old presents to surgery with complaints of weakness in her right hand...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old presents to surgery with complaints of weakness in her right hand and slight difficulty speaking the previous evening. Today, all symptoms have resolved and neurological examination is normal. The diagnosis is a transient ischaemic attack (TIA). The patient inquires if it is safe for her to continue driving. What is the recommended duration for refraining from driving a motor vehicle after experiencing a classical TIA?

      Your Answer: There is no need to stop driving.

      Correct Answer: 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions Following Cerebrovascular Events

      Following a cerebrovascular event, such as a stroke, patients are not allowed to drive for one month. After this period, they may resume driving if their clinical recovery is satisfactory. However, if there are residual neurological deficits one month after the episode, such as visual field defects, cognitive defects, or impaired limb function, the DVLA must be notified. Minor limb weakness alone doesn’t require notification unless it requires restrictions to certain types of vehicles or vehicles with adapted controls. In cases of severe physical impairment, adaptations may be able to overcome the impairment. It is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You speak with a 27-year-old care assistant who works in the local residential...

    Incorrect

    • You speak with a 27-year-old care assistant who works in the local residential care home. She has a sore throat, fever and rash. She requests antibiotics as she is eager to get back to work for her night shifts in 2 days. Her 4-year-old son recently had a course of antibiotics following a similar presentation.

      On examination, she has a fine rough feeling rash on her torso and her tongue appears red and swollen. Her observations are normal.

      Given the likely diagnosis, what advice from the options below would be most appropriate to give?

      Your Answer: Advise her that you need to contact the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and she should not go into work. If she doesn't consent but agrees to not go into work, confirm that you will not inform the HPA

      Correct Answer: Advise her that you need to contact the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and she should not go into work. If she doesn't consent, confirm that you will still need to inform the HPA

      Explanation:

      Kindly request that she notifies her workplace and the Local Health Protection Agency (HPA) and arranges a discussion with them regarding her return date.

      Sharing patient information is crucial for providing safe and effective care, especially in multi-disciplinary teams. However, it is important to ensure that information is shared in a legal and ethical manner while facilitating access to those who require it. Inappropriate sharing of information can have significant consequences for the clinician-patient relationship and the wider profession. Patients generally expect some information to be shared with those involved in their care, but if they object, the information should not be disclosed unless it is justified for the public interest or the patient lacks capacity. It is important to explain the potential consequences of not sharing personal information and reach a compromise where possible.

      When sharing information, it is essential to access it to support the patient’s direct care or be satisfied that it is being shared for that purpose. Patients should be informed about how their personal information will be used, and they have the right to object. It is also crucial to ensure that anyone who receives the information understands that it is given in confidence. When sharing information with friends or relatives, it is necessary to establish the patient’s wishes and gain explicit consent. In cases where the patient lacks capacity, it is essential to consider various factors, such as the patient’s beliefs and values, before disclosing information.

      Disclosing information without the patient’s express consent is generally not allowed, except when required by law or justified in the public interest. In exceptional circumstances, such as gunshot wounds and knife injuries, the police should be informed, but personal information should not be disclosed initially. It is crucial to follow the relevant guidelines to avoid inappropriate information sharing and maintain transparency between the doctor and patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      64.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are seeing a 65-year-old patient that you have known for the past...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 65-year-old patient that you have known for the past 3 months who has disabling rheumatoid arthritis. At the end of the consultation, she hands you a box of chocolates. What is the most appropriate response?

      Your Answer: Accept the gift and thank the patient for her kindness

      Explanation:

      When a patient expresses their gratitude by giving you a box of chocolates, it is important to exercise good judgement in how you respond. While it may not be necessary to formally register the gift, it is important to consider the appropriateness of accepting it, especially if it is a large or expensive gift.

      Rather than asking the patient to donate an equivalent amount to charity, which may come across as insensitive or inappropriate, it may be more appropriate to simply express your appreciation for the gesture and thank them for their kindness.

      Declining the gift outright may be seen as impolite or ungrateful, so it is important to consider the patient’s feelings and intentions when deciding how to respond. Similarly, it is never appropriate to scold or reprimand a patient for offering a gift, as this can damage the therapeutic relationship and undermine trust.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A client visits the clinic seeking a 'sick note'. When should you provide...

    Incorrect

    • A client visits the clinic seeking a 'sick note'. When should you provide a Statement of Fitness for Work?

      Your Answer: After they have been off work for more than 7 working days

      Correct Answer: After they have been off work for more than 7 calendar days

      Explanation:

      Patients have the ability to self-certify for a maximum of 7 consecutive days.

      Understanding the Statement of Fitness for Work

      The Statement of Fitness for Work, previously known as sick notes, was introduced in 2010 to reflect the fact that most patients do not need to be fully recovered before returning to work. This statement allows doctors to advise that a patient may be fit for work taking account of the following advice. It replaces the Med3 and Med5 forms and has resulted in the withdrawal of the Med4, Med6, and RM 7 forms due to the replacement of Incapacity Benefit with the Employment and Support Allowance.

      Telephone consultations are now an acceptable form of assessment, and there is no longer a box to indicate that a patient is fit for work. Instead, doctors can state if they need to reassess the patient’s fitness for work at the end of the statement period. The statement provides increased space for comments on the functional effects of the condition, including tick boxes for simple things that may help a patient return to work.

      The statement can be issued on the day of assessment or at a later date if it would have been reasonable to issue it on the day of assessment. It can also be issued after consideration of a written report from another doctor or registered healthcare professional.

      There are four tick boxes on the form that represent common approaches to aid a return to work, including a phased return to work, altered hours, amended duties, and workplace adaptations. Patients may self-certify for the first seven calendar days using the SC1 or SC2 form, depending on their eligibility to claim statutory sick pay.

      It is important to note that the advice on the statement is not binding on employers, and doctors can still advise patients that they are not fit for work. However, the Statement of Fitness for Work provides a more flexible approach to returning to work and recognizes that many patients can return to work with some adjustments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You visit a 78-year-old woman at home and she has difficulty understanding the...

    Incorrect

    • You visit a 78-year-old woman at home and she has difficulty understanding the treatment that she takes for her asthma. You think that this is largely because she has impaired hearing.

      In general terms, which of the following strategies is most likely to help?

      Your Answer: Increasing the pitch of your voice

      Correct Answer: Minimising background noise

      Explanation:

      Communicating with Deaf and Hard-of-Hearing Patients

      When communicating with deaf and hard-of-hearing patients, it is important to minimise background noise and speak clearly at a normal or near normal rate. Non-verbal communication can also be helpful, as well as decreasing the pitch of your voice. Shouting should never be used, as it can be unpleasant and appear rude. Instead, use the patient’s name to get their attention and ask if they can hear you. Face them when speaking, as many deaf people use lip-reading to supplement their hearing aid(s) and what hearing they have. Remember that clear and polite communication is appreciated by the deaf and hard of hearing community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      101.7
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A patient has passed away at home.
    The pediatrician knows that the cause of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has passed away at home.
      The pediatrician knows that the cause of death is pneumonia, but she has not seen the patient for a while and is worried that she has not seen the patient within the legal timeframe that permits her to write on the death certificate.
      What is the duration of this legal timeframe?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Updated Guidance on Death Certification in England and Wales

      The guidance on death certification in England and Wales was recently updated in March 2022. One significant change was the extension of the period of time for seeing a patient before death from 14 days to 28 days. While this may be an important learning point for doctors, it is uncertain whether it will be tested in the RCGP exam as candidates are expected to know guidance that applies to all parts of the UK, including Scotland. Nonetheless, this information is still useful for doctors working in England and Wales. The UK government has provided guidance for doctors completing medical certificates of cause of death in these regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      74.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following fitting of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD).

      He had several episodes of sustained ventricular tachycardia requiring hospital admission before having the defibrillator implanted. He needs a medical certificate for work as he is a travelling salesman and has to drive for his work.

      How long should he refrain from driving a car following the fitting of an implantable defibrillator?

      Your Answer: 3 months

      Correct Answer: 2 months

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions for Patients with ICDs

      Patients who have received an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for sustained ventricular arrhythmias should be aware of driving restrictions. For the first six months after the initial implant, patients should not drive. Additionally, after any shock therapy or symptomatic anti-tachycardia pacing, patients should refrain from driving for an additional six months. It is important for patients to follow these guidelines to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      72.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - You review a 56-year-old man who complains of epigastric pain radiating to his...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 56-year-old man who complains of epigastric pain radiating to his back. He has lost 6 kg in weight in the past three months.

      On examination he has jaundiced sclera and looks emaciated. There is the suspicion of an epigastric mass on abdominal examination.

      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: He can be given a non-urgent surgical referral

      Correct Answer: A non-urgent ultrasound should be requested

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance for Suspected Pancreatic, Gallbladder, and Liver Cancer

      There is a growing concern about malignancy when a patient experiences weight loss, jaundice, and an abdominal mass. To address this issue, the latest NICE guidance recommends several actions.

      Firstly, for patients aged 40 and over with jaundice, healthcare professionals should refer them using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks to assess for pancreatic cancer. Secondly, for patients with an upper abdominal mass consistent with an enlarged Gallbladder, healthcare professionals should consider an urgent direct access ultrasound scan to assess for Gallbladder cancer within two weeks. Lastly, for patients with an upper abdominal mass consistent with an enlarged liver, healthcare professionals should consider an urgent direct access ultrasound scan to assess for liver cancer within two weeks.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can quickly identify and address potential cancer diagnoses, improving patient outcomes and quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after a recent bout of pneumonia. His asthma has been poorly managed in the weeks leading up to his illness and he expresses concern about his ability to return to full-time work in the near future. He mentions that his finances are tight and that friends have suggested he apply for Employment Support Allowance (ESA). He also mentions that he is hesitant to attend any Department of Work and Pensions (DWP) assessments and asks if you could provide a letter of support. What advice would you give him regarding ESA?

      Your Answer: Fit notes are required until DWP makes a decision on their claim, if the patient remains unfit for work

      Correct Answer: If contacted by a healthcare professional from the Centre for Health and Disability Assessments (CHDA), you will need to seek consent from the patient before discussing further

      Explanation:

      Benefits System – A Guide for GPs

      ESA, or Employment and Support Allowance, is a financial support system for individuals who are unable to work due to illness or disability. It also provides personalized assistance for those who are able to work. Eligibility for ESA is determined through an assessment process, which can range from 3 months to 3 years. Claimants with severe conditions may not be called for reassessment. During the assessment phase, claimants are paid the same amount as Jobseeker’s Allowance. Medical evidence and completion of the ESA50 self-assessment form are required. If necessary, a Work Capability Assessment will be conducted by a healthcare professional. Fit notes are required until a decision is made. The ESA65B letter is used to inform claimants of the decision. GPs may be contacted for additional information, and may occasionally be asked to contribute to the ESA50 form. For individuals claiming solely due to cancer, only a portion of the ESA50 form needs to be completed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You see a 3-year-old child in your surgery with purple bruises in several...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 3-year-old child in your surgery with purple bruises in several different locations. Mum says that the child fell down stairs a week ago.

      What age are bruises that are purple in colour?

      Your Answer: More than 12 hours but less than 24 hours old

      Correct Answer: Less than 12 hours old

      Explanation:

      Inaccurate Estimation of Bruise Age

      The age of a bruise cannot be determined accurately through clinical assessment or photographs. Relying on the color of a bruise to estimate its age is an unreliable practice that should be avoided in child protection proceedings. It is important to note that there is no definitive way to determine the age of a bruise, and relying on visual cues can lead to inaccurate conclusions. Therefore, it is crucial to approach any suspected cases of child abuse with caution and rely on a thorough investigation to determine the cause of the injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which one of the following consultation modes may be summarised as a 'meeting...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following consultation modes may be summarised as a 'meeting between two experts'?

      Your Answer: Pendleton

      Correct Answer: Tuckett

      Explanation:

      Consultation Models

      The following are various consultation models that healthcare professionals can use to guide their interactions with patients. Each model has its own unique approach and set of steps to follow. The Calgary-Cambridge observation guide focuses on initiating the session, gathering information, building the relationship, giving information, explaining and planning, and closing the session. The Stewart patient-centered clinical method emphasizes exploring both the disease and the illness experience, understanding the whole person, finding common ground, incorporating prevention and health promotion, enhancing the doctor-patient relationship, and being realistic with time and resources. The Pendleton model involves defining the reason for the patient’s attendance, considering other problems, choosing an appropriate action for each problem, achieving a shared understanding of the problems with the patient, involving the patient in the management and encouraging them to accept appropriate responsibility, using time and resources appropriately, and establishing or maintaining a relationship with the patient. The Fraser model includes interviewing and history-taking, physical examination, diagnosis and problem-solving, patient management, relating to patients, anticipatory care, and record-keeping. The Neighbour model, called the Inner Consultation, includes connecting, summarizing, handing over, safety netting, and housekeeping. Finally, the Tuckett model emphasizes that the consultation is a meeting between two experts, doctors are experts in medicine, patients are experts in their own illnesses, shared understanding is the aim, doctors should seek to understand the patient’s beliefs, and doctors should address explanations in terms of the patient’s belief system. By using these models, healthcare professionals can provide effective and patient-centered care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      101.9
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Who is authorized to sign the DVLA Notification form for healthcare professionals? ...

    Incorrect

    • Who is authorized to sign the DVLA Notification form for healthcare professionals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A practice manager

      Explanation:

      DVLA Form 3854: Who Can Complete It?

      The DVLA accepts submissions of the Notification form for health professionals form DOM 3854 completed by a nurse, as long as they provide an active NMC number. However, some specialist reports may require a registered medical practitioner’s counter-signature before acceptance.

      Typically, the patient’s GP completes DVLA medical reports. However, opticians or optometrists can also complete this particular form, provided they supply their GOC number.

      To summarize, the DVLA Form 3854 can be completed by nurses and optometrists, but some specialist reports may require a registered medical practitioner’s counter-signature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Consulting In General Practice (5/29) 17%
Passmed