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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease comes in for evaluation...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of Crohn’s disease comes in for evaluation due to left flank pain indicative of renal colic. During the physical examination, a significant midline abdominal scar is observed, which is consistent with a previous small bowel resection. An abdominal X-ray without contrast shows several kidney stones.
      What kind of kidney stones are most likely present in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Cystine stones

      Correct Answer: Calcium oxalate stones

      Explanation:

      Types of Kidney Stones and Their Causes

      Kidney stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause severe pain when they pass through the urinary tract. There are different types of kidney stones, each with their own causes and treatment options.

      Calcium Oxalate Stones
      Increased urinary oxalate can be genetic, idiopathic, or enteric. Calcium citrate supplementation is the preferred therapy to reduce stone formation. Pain relief and infection prevention are important during the acute period of renal colic. Lithotripsy can be used to break up larger stones.

      Uric Acid Stones
      Uric acid stones are not visible on X-rays.

      Cystine Stones
      Cystine stones are also not visible on X-rays.

      Calcium Carbonate Stones
      These stones are linked to high levels of calcium in the body, either from diet or conditions like hyperparathyroidism.

      Magnesium Carbonate Stones
      Also known as struvite stones, these are made from magnesium, ammonia, and phosphate and are associated with urinary tract infections.

      Understanding the different types of kidney stones and their causes can help with prevention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      70.6
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-hour history of sudden-onset pain in his left scrotum that makes walking difficult. On examination, his left testicle is firm and diffusely tender.
      What is the most urgent management option?

      Your Answer: Scrotal exploration

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Testicular Torsion

      Testicular torsion is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention. One of the main differential diagnoses to consider in a patient with scrotal pain is testicular torsion. If there is a high suspicion of torsion, emergency exploration surgery should not be delayed by investigations.

      During scrotal exploration, the affected testicle is inspected for viability. If viable, detorsion and orchidopexy are performed. However, if the testicle is non-viable, it must be removed. The salvage rate for detorsion within 6 hours of symptom onset is >95%, but this drops to <10% after 24 hours. While antibiotics and analgesia are appropriate for epididymo-orchitis, ruling out testicular torsion is the priority. Urinalysis may be helpful in borderline cases, but an abnormal result does not exclude testicular torsion. Doppler ultrasound scan of the testes may also be useful, but if there is a high suspicion of torsion, scrotal exploration must not be delayed by investigations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a sudden-onset, severe, sharp, colicky pain in the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a sudden-onset, severe, sharp, colicky pain in the right iliac fossa, radiating to the right loin and her right labia. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago.
      Which of the following would be most useful as an initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      Medical Procedures and Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Urine Dipstick

      In cases of suspected renal colic, a urine dipstick should be performed to support the diagnosis and rule out a urinary tract infection. Microscopic haematuria is a common indicator of renal stones.

      Diagnostic Peritoneal Lavage (DPL)

      DPL is a surgical diagnostic procedure used to detect free-floating fluid in the abdominal cavity, usually blood. It is now performed less frequently due to the increased use of other imaging modalities such as FAST and CT.

      Blood Sugar Levels

      Hypoglycaemia symptoms occur when blood sugar levels fall below 4 mmol/l. Symptoms include hunger, trembling, sweating, confusion, and difficulty concentrating. However, the history provided does not suggest hypoglycaemia or diabetes.

      Rectal Examination

      Digital rectal examination is commonly used to assess the prostate, detect rectal bleeding, and investigate constipation, changes in bowel habit, and problems with urinary or faecal continence. In exceptional circumstances, it may be used to detect the uterus and cervix.

      Vaginal Examination

      Speculum vaginal examination is commonly used to diagnose pregnancy, assess gestational age, detect abnormalities in the genital tract, investigate vaginal discharge, examine the cervix, and take cervical cytology smears.

      Urinary Tract Infections (UTIs)

      UTIs are caused by the presence of bacteria in the urinary tract and can affect the bladder, prostate, or kidneys. Escherichia coli is the most common cause. Abacterial cystitis, or the urethral syndrome, is a type of UTI that does not involve bacteriuria. Complicated and uncomplicated UTIs are differentiated by the presence or absence of renal tract and function abnormalities.

      Overview of Common Medical Procedures and Conditions

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      34.7
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man presents with a right inguinal mass. Upon examination, the left...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a right inguinal mass. Upon examination, the left testis is found to be normal in size and position, but the right testis cannot be palpated in the scrotum. An ultrasound confirms that the inguinal mass is a cryptorchid testis.
      What is the best course of action for addressing this patient's testicular anomaly?

      Your Answer: Remove it (orchidectomy)

      Explanation:

      Options for Managing Cryptorchidism

      Cryptorchidism, or undescended testis, is a condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum. Here are some options for managing this condition:

      1. Orchidectomy: This involves removing the undescended testis, which eliminates the risk of developing seminoma. If the patient is 30 years old or older, the undescended testis is unlikely to be capable of spermatogenesis, so removal should not affect fertility.

      2. Bilateral orchidectomy: This involves removing both testes, but it is not necessary if only one testis is undescended. The opposite testis is not affected by the undescended testis and should be left intact.

      3. Orchidopexy: This is a surgical procedure to place the undescended testis in the scrotum. It is most effective when done before the age of 2, but it does not reduce the risk of developing testicular cancer.

      4. Testosterone therapy: This is not necessary for patients with cryptorchidism, as the Leydig cells in the testicular interstitium continue to produce testosterone.

      5. Chromosome analysis: This is indicated if there is a suspicion of a chromosomal defect, such as testicular feminisation or Klinefelter syndrome.

      In summary, the management of cryptorchidism depends on the individual case and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      27.7
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man who has received a transplant of the left kidney is...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man who has received a transplant of the left kidney is exhibiting symptoms that suggest hyperacute rejection of the transplant. What is the probable time frame for this type of rejection to occur?

      Your Answer: Within minutes of transplantation

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Types and Timing of Transplant Rejection

      Transplant rejection can occur in different types and at different times after transplantation. Hyperacute rejection is the earliest and occurs within minutes of transplantation due to pre-existing donor-specific antibodies. This reaction is complement-mediated and irreversible, requiring prompt removal of the transplanted tissue. Acute rejection can occur up to 3 months after transplantation and is cell-mediated, involving the activation of phagocytes and cytotoxic T lymphocytes. Rejection that occurs in the first few days after transplantation is known as accelerated acute rejection. Chronic rejection, which is controversial, involves antibody-mediated vascular damage and can occur months to years after transplantation. Blood group matching can minimize hyperacute rejection, while monitoring and immunosuppressive therapy can help prevent and treat other types of rejection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      14
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain which...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain which started about six hours ago. She claims the pain is in the lower abdomen and has been worsening gradually. She has not been able to pass urine since before the pain started.
      Upon examination, vital signs are stable and suprapubic tenderness is present. There is no rebound tenderness, and the examining doctor does not find any signs of peritonitis. In addition, the doctor finds a large solid abdominal mass in the right lower quadrant. The patient said this mass had been there for a few years and has made it difficult to get pregnant. The patient also claims that she has heavy periods. She is due to have an operation for it in two months. A serum pregnancy test is negative.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis requiring immediate treatment and admission?

      Your Answer: Acute urinary retention

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Acute Urinary Retention and an Abdominal Mass

      During this admission, the patient presents with symptoms consistent with acute urinary retention, including sudden onset of symptoms and suprapubic tenderness. The presence of an abdominal mass suggests a possible gynecological cause, such as a uterine fibroid. However, it is important to note that if cancer is suspected, the patient would be referred for investigation under the 2-week cancer protocol, but the acute admission is required for urinary retention and catheterization.

      Other possible diagnoses, such as ovarian cyst, appendicitis, and caecal tumor, are less likely based on the patient’s symptoms and presentation. While a uterine fibroid may be a contributing factor to the urinary retention, it is not the primary reason for the admission. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      77.8
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He reports one day of pain in his right loin spreading round into the groin. The pain comes in waves and he says it is the worst pain he has ever experienced. The ED doctor suspects a diagnosis of renal colic.
      What investigation finding would be the most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Microscopic haematuria

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Urine and Blood Tests for Renal Colic

      Renal colic is a common condition that can cause severe pain in the back and abdomen. When evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, several tests may be ordered to help diagnose the condition and determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting urine and blood tests for renal colic:

      – Microscopic haematuria with normal nitrites and leukocytes is a common finding in patients with renal colic and/or stones. This suggests that there is blood in the urine, but no signs of infection.
      – Positive leukocytes or nitrites on a urine dipstick would be suggestive of a urinary tract infection and would not be consistent with a diagnosis of renal stones.
      – A raised serum creatinine can occur with severe renal stones where there is urethral obstruction and subsequent hydronephrosis. This would be a urological emergency and the patient would likely require urgent stenting to allow passage of urine.
      – A raised serum white cell count would be more consistent with an infection as the cause of the patient’s pain, making this a less appropriate answer.

      In summary, when evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, it is important to consider the results of urine and blood tests in conjunction with other clinical findings to make an accurate diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      34.5
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  • Question 8 - A 19-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful swelling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painful swelling in the area of his glans penis that has been present for 6 hours. Upon examination, the glans penis is red, oedematous, and extremely tender. The foreskin is pulled back, but there is no evidence of scrotal or penile necrosis or redness.

      What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Refer to Urology for emergency circumcision

      Correct Answer: Soak the foreskin and glans penis in a hypertonic solution and attempt to manually replace the foreskin by using gentle, but sustained, distal traction

      Explanation:

      Management of Penile Conditions: Differentiating Paraphimosis and Balanitis

      Penile conditions such as paraphimosis and balanitis require prompt and appropriate management. Paraphimosis occurs when the foreskin is retracted but cannot be replaced, leading to swelling of the glans penis. This is a urological emergency that requires immediate intervention. Treatment involves attempting to manually reduce the foreskin, aided by a hypertonic solution to draw out fluid from the swollen area. Referral to Urology is necessary if reduction is not successful.

      Balanitis, on the other hand, is inflammation of the foreskin usually caused by dermatitis or infection with Candida, Gardnerella, or staphylococcal organisms. Symptoms include tenderness and erythema of the glans penis, itching, penile discharge, difficulty with retraction of the foreskin, and difficulty urinating or controlling urine stream. Treatment involves prescribing a 7-day course of hydrocortisone and clotrimazole cream or flucloxacillin if caused by Staphylococcus aureus.

      It is important to differentiate between these two conditions and provide appropriate management to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      30.5
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  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction that...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction that has been going on for 6 months. He has a BMI of 30 kg/m², a history of hypertension, and has been smoking for 35 years. He reports no other symptoms and feels generally healthy.
      What is the primary initial test that should be done for this patient's erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: What to Test For

      When a man presents with erectile dysfunction, it is important to test for reversible or modifiable risk factors. One common risk factor is diabetes, so all men should have a HbA1c or fasting blood glucose test. A lipid profile should also be done to calculate cardiovascular risk. Erectile dysfunction can be an early sign of cardiovascular disease, especially in patients with pre-existing risk factors such as hypertension, increased BMI, and smoking history. Additionally, a blood test for morning testosterone should be done.

      However, a C-reactive protein test is not useful as a first-line test for erectile dysfunction. An ultrasound abdomen and urea and electrolyte tests are also not helpful in establishing an underlying cause. While an enlarged prostate may be associated with erectile dysfunction, a urine dip is not necessary if the patient has no symptoms of a urinary-tract infection. Overall, testing for diabetes and cardiovascular risk factors is crucial in the initial investigation of erectile dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      34.8
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  • Question 10 - A 4-year-old boy undergoes a biopsy for a painless testicular tumour. Microscopy reveals...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy undergoes a biopsy for a painless testicular tumour. Microscopy reveals tissue that resembles glomeruli. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Yolk cell tumour

      Explanation:

      Types of Testicular Tumours and Their Characteristics

      Testicular tumours can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. The following are some of the common types of testicular tumours and their distinguishing features:

      1. Yolk Sac Tumour: This is the most common type of testicular tumour in children under the age of 4. It is a mucinous tumour that contains Schiller-Duval bodies, which resemble primitive glomeruli. Alpha fetoprotein is secreted by these tumours.

      2. Embryonal Carcinoma: This type of tumour typically occurs in the third decade of life. On microscopy, glands or papules are seen.

      3. Leydig Cell Tumour: This is a benign tumour that can cause precocious puberty or gynaecomastia. Reinke crystals are noted on histology.

      4. Seminoma: Seminoma is the most common testicular tumour, usually occurring between the ages of 15 and 35. Its features include large cells with a fluid-filled cytoplasm that stain CD117 positive.

      5. Choriocarcinoma: This tumour secretes β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG). Due to the similarity between thyroid-stimulating hormone and β-HCG, symptoms of hyperthyroidism may develop. Histology of these tumours shows cells that resemble cytotrophoblasts or syncytiotrophoblastic tissue.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of testicular tumours and their characteristics can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      6.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Urology (8/10) 80%
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