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  • Question 1 - You are seeing a middle-aged patient in your morning clinic. You suspect he...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a middle-aged patient in your morning clinic. You suspect he had a TIA three days ago. He has no neurological deficit at present and is otherwise well.

      Which of the following does NICE advise as the next step of management?

      Your Answer: Arrange immediate admission

      Correct Answer: Arrange for specialist assessment within 24 hours

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Suspected TIA

      When suspecting a TIA has occurred within the last week, NICE advises administering aspirin 300 mg and seeking assessment within 24 hours by a stroke specialist physician. However, they no longer recommend using the ABCD2 scoring system as evidence shows it is poor at distinguishing between high and low risk of stroke after a TIA.

      If the suspected TIA happened over one week ago, the patient can be referred for assessment within 7 days. Immediate admission should be considered for patients with a bleeding disorder or on an anticoagulant, those who have had more than one TIA (consider crescendo TIAs), severe carotid stenosis, suspected cardioembolic source, or lack reliable support at home to contact emergency services if further symptoms occur.

      It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure proper assessment and treatment for patients with suspected TIA.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease presents to the clinic with abdominal discomfort and bloody stools. She has been managing her condition with daily mesalamine 1 g. She has not undergone any previous surgeries.
      Upon further questioning, she reports experiencing colicky abdominal pain and passing bloody stools 8-10 times a day for the past three days.
      During the physical examination, her temperature is 37.8°C, pulse rate is 96 bpm, and blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg. The abdomen is tender to palpation but no masses or signs of peritonitis are present.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Arrange urgent blood tests (FBC, U&E, LFTs, CRP and ESR) and an abdominal x ray followed by review in 24-48 hours

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for inpatient management

      Explanation:

      Severity of Ulcerative Colitis and the Truelove-Witts Criteria

      Severe flare-ups of inflammatory bowel disease can lead to serious complications such as toxic megacolon, perforation, sepsis, and severe bleeding. Hospital admission and inpatient treatment are necessary in such cases. Severe ulcerative colitis is characterized by significant systemic upset and severe lower gastrointestinal symptoms. Blood investigations can provide further information on disease severity.

      The Truelove-Witts criteria are a validated way of stratifying disease severity. According to these criteria, acute severe ulcerative colitis is defined as bowels open more than six times daily plus one or more of the following: haemoglobin less than 105 g/L, ESR greater than 30 mm/hr, pulse rate greater than 90 bpm, and temperature greater than 37.8°C.

      If a patient presents with bloody diarrhea and systemic unwellness (fever and/or tachycardia), immediate hospital admission for in-patient assessment is necessary. Approximately half of severe ulcerative colitis attacks occur as a first attack in a patient without a previous diagnosis.

      Moderate disease is classified as four to six stools a day (with or without blood) with minimal systemic disturbance. Mild disease is classified as less than four stools a day (with or without blood) with no systemic unwellness (no fever or tachycardia) and a normal ESR.

      It is important to note that anti-diarrheal agents such as loperamide should be avoided as they have not been shown to reduce stool frequency in ulcerative colitis and have been associated with an increased risk of toxic megacolon. Studies from the 1950s show that untreated severe ulcerative colitis had a mortality rate of almost 25%, but with the use of corticosteroids and expert surgical input, this figure has been reduced to less than 1%.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 3 - A 62-year-old woman with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and wheezing over the past few hours. She has a history of asthma but has not been consistent with her medication. During previous consultations, her best peak flow measurements were recorded at 300 L/min. What is the identifying characteristic of acute severe asthma in this patient?

      Your Answer: Inability to complete sentences in one breath

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >20/min

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.

      Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of best or predicted, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. The goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 at 94-98%.

      It is important to note that increasing symptoms is a vague description that only indicates a moderate asthma exacerbation and is not a marker of an acute severe attack. The only indicator of an acute severe asthma attack in this case is the patient’s inability to complete sentences in one breath.

      If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48 hour history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48 hour history of dysuria and visible blood in his urine. He also reports some frequency of urination. However, he denies fever, abdominal pain or loin pain and feels generally well. He mentions that his urine has gradually cleared and looks normal again since he first noticed the frank blood. On examination, he appears systemically well with a regular pulse rate of 76 and blood pressure of 138/76 mmHg. His abdomen and loins are unremarkable on palpation. A urine sample is obtained and dipstick testing reveals leucocytes ++ and blood+++. You prescribe antibiotics to cover a urinary tract infection. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer him urgently to a urologist due to the visible haematuria

      Correct Answer: Send a urine sample to establish accurately the presence of a urinary infection

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral for Painless Visible Haematuria

      Male or female patients who present with painless visible haematuria should be referred urgently for specialist assessment. However, if a patient presents with dysuria and visible haematuria, it is important to establish whether there is a urinary tract infection. If an infection is present, it can be treated appropriately, and referral for further investigation of the haematuria may not be necessary.

      On the other hand, if an infection is not confirmed, urgent referral is warranted to investigate the haematuria with speed. Therefore, the next most appropriate step is to establish if a urinary tract infection is present. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of haematuria to ensure prompt and effective treatment. Early referral and assessment can help prevent potential complications and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 5 - For which of the following should an urgent referral to the urology services...

    Correct

    • For which of the following should an urgent referral to the urology services be made?

      Your Answer: A 38-year-old male who on insurance medical examination is found to have + haematuria on urinalysis

      Explanation:

      Criteria for Urgent Referral to Urology

      There are specific criteria for urgent referral to urology that are based on the potential risk of underlying carcinoma. These criteria include macroscopic haematuria, microscopic haematuria in subjects over 60 who have either dysuria or a raised WBC count in blood, swellings of the body of the testis, palpable renal mass, solid renal mass found on imaging, an elevated age-specific prostate-specific antigen (PSA), and a clinically suspicious penile lesion.

      It is important to familiarize oneself with the current indications for urgent referral. It is worth noting that patients over 60 years old may require more urgent attention, as indicated by the criteria for microscopic haematuria. By being aware of these criteria, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive timely and appropriate care.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman with known asthma presents to your clinic with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with known asthma presents to your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. Her usual peak flow is 400 L/min. What characteristic indicates acute severe asthma in this individual?

      Your Answer: Respiratory rate 26/min

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.

      Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. It is important to note that there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients, as it depends on their usual best reading or predicted peak flow reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, then it is a marker of an acute severe attack.

      According to BTS guidance, pulsus paradoxus is not an adequate indicator of the severity of an acute asthma attack and should not be used. A pulse of 101/min would not be considered a marker of acute severe asthma because the threshold is 110/min or greater. However, a respiratory rate of 26/min is clearly above the threshold advised by BTS and would be a marker of an acute severe attack. If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, then the patient should be admitted.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old man takes 2 x co-dydramol 10/500 tablets, four times daily for...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man takes 2 x co-dydramol 10/500 tablets, four times daily for arthritis of his knee. During a routine medicines review over the phone, he reveals that he's been buying paracetamol from the local supermarket for the past 2 months and supplements his co-dydramol with an additional paracetamol tablet four times a day.

      You inform him that his prescribed medication contains paracetamol and that he's effectively taking 3 x 500mg paracetamol tablets four times a day. A total of 12 tablets a day. He weighs 70Kg.

      What is the threshold amount of paracetamol taken over a 24 hour period that would be required for medical admission and n-acetylcysteine infusion?

      Your Answer: 150 mg/Kg

      Correct Answer: 50 mg/Kg

      Explanation:

      Harmful Levels of Paracetamol

      When it comes to harmful levels of paracetamol, patients are divided into two groups: those who have taken an acute overdose and those who have taken a staggered overdose, which includes patients who may have taken therapeutic excess over a period of time. Surprisingly, even modest amounts of paracetamol can be harmful, especially for frail elderly patients.

      According to the British National Formulary, a staggered overdose involves ingesting a potentially toxic dose of paracetamol over more than one hour, with the possible intention of causing self-harm. Therapeutic excess is the inadvertent ingestion of a potentially toxic dose of paracetamol during its clinical use. In these cases, patients who have taken more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol in any 24-hour period are at risk of toxicity and should be commenced on acetylcysteine immediately, unless it is more than 24 hours since the last ingestion, the patient is asymptomatic, the plasma-paracetamol concentration is undetectable, and liver function tests, serum creatinine and INR are normal.

      It’s important to note that there is no set number of tablets that can cause toxicity as it depends on the patient’s weight. Rarely, toxicity can occur with paracetamol doses between 75-150 mg/kg in any 24-hour period, and clinical judgement of the individual case is necessary to determine whether to treat those who have ingested this amount of paracetamol. For small adults, this may be within the licensed dose, but ingestion of a licensed dose of paracetamol is not considered an overdose. The doctor may not be informed until after the event, so familiarity with the timescales is also important.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 8 - Whilst doing morning housecalls, you are phoned to visit the home of a...

    Incorrect

    • Whilst doing morning housecalls, you are phoned to visit the home of a 47-year-old man who is known to suffer from benign paroxysmal vertigo. The visit was requested by a relative on the basis of his ongoing dizziness but upon arrival, it becomes clear that he has sustained a head injury.

      Whilst fixing a shelf in his garage, he became dizzy and fell to the ground.

      Which of the following symptoms require immediate referral to the emergency ambulance services (i.e. 999) for emergency transportation to the emergency department?

      Your Answer: A positive Dix-Hallpike manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: Bleeding from the nose

      Explanation:

      NICE’s Guidance on Head Injury Management

      A base of open or depressed skull fracture or penetrating head injury requires immediate referral to the emergency ambulance (999) service. Signs of a skull fracture that warrant referral to the emergency ambulance service include clear fluid running from the ears or nose, black eye with no associated damage around the eyes, bleeding from one or both ears, and bruising behind one or both ears.

      On the other hand, a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver is simply consistent with benign positional paroxysmal vertigo. It is important to follow NICE’s guidance on head injury management to ensure prompt and appropriate care for patients with head injuries. Proper identification and referral of patients with skull fractures can prevent further complications and improve outcomes.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 9 - A 36-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalised lethargy and weakness. She has...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalised lethargy and weakness. She has a significant medical history of childhood asthma and vitiligo, and currently only uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. She reports feeling constantly worn out, weak, and experiencing body aches. She also feels dizzy when standing up quickly. On examination, she appears well and has no fever, shortness of breath, or pain. Her blood pressure is 106/60, but drops to 94/56 when standing, causing brief lightheadedness. Cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examinations are normal. There is no joint swelling and she walks with a normal gait. Blood tests reveal a slightly low sodium of 130 mmol/L and a slightly raised potassium of 5.5 mmol/L. Which investigation is most likely to aid in establishing a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum cortisol level obtained at 9 am

      Explanation:

      Understanding Addison’s Disease

      Addison’s disease is a rare condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Patients may experience chronic fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness, among other symptoms. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.

      Clinical examination and blood tests can provide clues to the presence of Addison’s disease. Postural hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are common features. A serum cortisol level done at 8-9 am can also be helpful in diagnosing the condition. Levels below 100 nanomol/L require hospital admission, while levels between 100 and 500 nanomol/L merit endocrinology referral for further investigation.

      It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease, as early detection and treatment can prevent acute crises and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 10 - Each of the following is a characteristic of organophosphate poisoning, except for which...

    Incorrect

    • Each of the following is a characteristic of organophosphate poisoning, except for which one?

      Your Answer: Defecation

      Correct Answer: Mydriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning

      Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.

      The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.

      The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Urgent And Unscheduled Care (3/10) 30%
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