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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old woman comes in for her routine anatomy ultrasound scan at 20...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes in for her routine anatomy ultrasound scan at 20 weeks’ gestation. The ultrasound reveals significant fetal structural abnormalities, such as holoprosencephaly, cleft palate, short limbs, polydactyly, bilateral club feet, enlarged kidneys, and polyhydramnios.
      What is the probable underlying diagnosis of the unborn child?

      Your Answer: Potter syndrome

      Correct Answer: Patau syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Genetic Disorders and Their Prenatal Ultrasound Findings

      Prenatal ultrasound is a valuable tool for detecting genetic disorders in fetuses. Here are some common genetic disorders and their corresponding ultrasound findings:

      1. Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13)
      Trisomy 13 has a prevalence of 1 per 6500 births. Fetuses with trisomy 13 may have brain anomalies such as holoprosencephaly, midfacial hypoplasia, ventriculomegaly, and microcephaly. Other possible findings include cleft lip and palate, microphthalmia, hypotelorism, and cardiac defects.

      2. Cystic Fibrosis (CF)
      Hyperechogenic fetal bowel is a possible ultrasound finding in fetuses with CF. This may be a normal variant, but it can also be associated with severe disease.

      3. Down Syndrome
      20% of second-trimester fetuses with Down syndrome have major structural anomalies such as polyhydramnios, double bubble, and large cardiac septal defects. Other possible markers include nuchal fold thickness, pyelectasis, and short long bones.

      4. Klinefelter Syndrome
      Klinefelter syndrome is characterized by two or more X chromosomes in boys, resulting in infertility and small testicles. Ultrasound findings may be subtle, and many people may not realize they are affected.

      5. Potter Syndrome
      Potter syndrome is suspected when severe oligohydramnios and intrauterine growth retardation are present. Ultrasound findings may include pulmonary hypoplasia, abnormal facies, and limb abnormalities such as club feet and contractures.

      In conclusion, prenatal ultrasound can provide valuable information for detecting genetic disorders in fetuses. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the possible ultrasound findings associated with these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old man visits his GP with a concern about a painless lump...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man visits his GP with a concern about a painless lump in his scrotum and bilateral breast enlargement. What would be the most suitable initial test for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fine needle aspiration of testicular lump

      Correct Answer: Testicular ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      If the cause of this patient’s gynaecomastia was suspected to be hyperprolactinaemia, a pituitary MRI could be considered. Gynaecomastia can also be caused by a prolactinoma, which typically results in galactorrhoea. However, there are no other indications of a prolactinoma.

      Understanding Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a type of cancer that commonly affects men between the ages of 20 and 30. Germ-cell tumors are the most common type of testicular cancer, accounting for around 95% of cases. These tumors can be divided into seminomas and non-seminomas, which include embryonal, yolk sac, teratoma, and choriocarcinoma. Other types of testicular cancer include Leydig cell tumors and sarcomas. Risk factors for testicular cancer include infertility, cryptorchidism, family history, Klinefelter’s syndrome, and mumps orchitis.

      The most common symptom of testicular cancer is a painless lump, although some men may experience pain. Other symptoms may include hydrocele and gynaecomastia, which occurs due to an increased oestrogen:androgen ratio. Tumor markers such as hCG, AFP, and beta-hCG may be elevated in germ cell tumors. Ultrasound is the first-line diagnostic tool for testicular cancer.

      Treatment for testicular cancer depends on the type and stage of the tumor. Orchidectomy, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy may be used. Prognosis for testicular cancer is generally excellent, with a 5-year survival rate of around 95% for seminomas and 85% for teratomas if caught at Stage I. It is important for men to perform regular self-examinations and seek medical attention if they notice any changes or abnormalities in their testicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      9.1
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  • Question 3 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted to the obstetric ward....

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted to the obstetric ward. She has been monitored for the past few weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension but has now developed proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 162/94 mmHg. What is the most appropriate antihypertensive to start?

      Your Answer: Losartan

      Correct Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension is typically treated with Labetalol as the initial medication.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      8
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old snowboarder presents to the Emergency department complaining of pain and swelling around the first metacarpophalangeal joint (MCP joint) following a fall during practice.
      Upon examination, there is significant swelling and bruising on the ulnar side of the joint.

      What is the most probable injury that the patient has sustained?

      Your Answer: Ulnar collateral ligament

      Explanation:

      Skier’s Thumb: A Common Injury in Winter Sports

      Skier’s thumb, also known as gamekeeper’s thumb, is a common injury that occurs in winter sports. It is caused by damage or rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament, which is located at the base of the thumb. This injury can result in acute swelling and gross instability of the thumb. In severe cases where a complete tear of the ligament is suspected, an MRI may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and surgical repair may be required.

      Once the acute swelling has subsided, treatment for skier’s thumb typically involves immobilization in a thumb spica. This is the standard therapy for cases of partial rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      8.4
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  • Question 5 - A 44-year-old woman underwent a kidney transplant four years ago due to end...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old woman underwent a kidney transplant four years ago due to end stage renal failure caused by lupus nephritis. The transplant was from her sister, and she received anti-thymocyte globulin (ATG) induction and plasma exchange pre-transplant due to low-grade donor specific antibodies. She has been stable on tacrolimus, mycophenolate mofetil and prednisolone, with only one episode of acute cellular rejection at six months post-transplant. During her four-year follow-up, she presented with a creatinine level of 150 umol/l and high blood pressure at 150/95 mmHg, which increased to 160 umol/l in a repeat sample one month later. She was admitted for further investigations and biopsy, which revealed double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane, without inflammatory infiltrate and negative C4d. Donor specific antibodies were still present, but titres were low. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Transplant glomerulopathy

      Explanation:

      Pathological Processes in Renal Transplant Patients

      Double contouring of the glomerular capillary basement membrane is a characteristic feature of transplant glomerulopathy, a chronic antibody-mediated rejection that affects up to 15% of renal transplant patients at five years post-transplant. Acute cellular rejection, on the other hand, is characterized by interstitial inflammation, tubulitis, and/or arthritis, and is unlikely to occur in patients on stable medication doses. Acute humoral rejection, which is characterized by C4d deposition, capillaritis, and/or arthritis, is another possible pathological process in renal transplant patients.

      BK viral nephropathy, which occurs in 1-8% of renal transplant patients, is associated with T cell depleting agents such as ATG. Biopsy findings in BK viral nephropathy typically show nuclear viral inclusions in the tubular epithelial cells, which can be limited to the medulla in early disease, and tubulointerstitial inflammation. Urine cytology can also be used to detect decoy cells and urothelial cells with characteristic nuclear viral inclusions, thus avoiding the need for biopsy.

      Finally, acute calcineurin inhibitor (CNI) toxicity is unlikely in patients on stable doses of tacrolimus, but almost all patients develop chronic CNI nephrotoxicity. Biopsy findings in chronic CNI nephrotoxicity typically show interstitial fibrosis, tubular atrophy, and arteriolar hyalinosis. In the case of this patient, some background CNI toxicity is likely, but the biopsy findings are more consistent with transplant glomerulopathy as the primary pathological process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      18.8
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman has a hysterectomy due to severe dysmenorrhoea after exhausting pharmacological...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman has a hysterectomy due to severe dysmenorrhoea after exhausting pharmacological options. Several months later, she experiences a vaginal vault prolapse and is referred to gynaecologists. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention for her?

      Your Answer: Vaginal hysterectomy

      Correct Answer: Sacrocolpopexy

      Explanation:

      Sacrocolpopexy is the recommended treatment for vaginal vault prolapse. This surgical procedure involves suspending the vaginal apex to the sacral promontory, typically using the uterosacral ligaments for support. Other surgical options include anterior colporrhaphy for repairing a cystocele, vaginoplasty for reconstructing the vagina, vaginal hysterectomy for removing the uterus via the vagina, and bilateral oophorectomy for removing the ovaries. However, these options would not be appropriate for treating vaginal vault prolapse as the ovaries are not involved in the underlying pathology.

      Understanding Urogenital Prolapse

      Urogenital prolapse is a condition where one of the pelvic organs descends, causing protrusion on the vaginal walls. This condition is prevalent among postmenopausal women, affecting around 40% of them. There are different types of urogenital prolapse, including cystocele, cystourethrocele, rectocele, uterine prolapse, urethrocele, and enterocele.

      Several factors increase the risk of developing urogenital prolapse, such as increasing age, vaginal deliveries, obesity, and spina bifida. The condition presents with symptoms such as pressure, heaviness, and a sensation of bearing down. Urinary symptoms such as incontinence, frequency, and urgency may also occur.

      Treatment for urogenital prolapse depends on the severity of the condition. If the prolapse is mild and asymptomatic, no treatment may be necessary. Conservative treatment options include weight loss and pelvic floor muscle exercises. A ring pessary may also be used. In severe cases, surgery may be required. The surgical options for cystocele/cystourethrocele include anterior colporrhaphy and colposuspension. Uterine prolapse may require hysterectomy or sacrohysteropexy, while posterior colporrhaphy is used for rectocele.

      In conclusion, urogenital prolapse is a common condition among postmenopausal women. It is important to understand the different types, risk factors, and treatment options available to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.3
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her Accident and Emergency with visual loss. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her Accident and Emergency with visual loss. She has known persistently uncontrolled hypertension, previously managed in the community. Blood tests are performed as follows:
      Investigation Patient Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 148 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 2.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 75 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/
      Chloride (Cl–) 100 mEq/l 96–106 mEq/l
      What is the next most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: 24 hour urine metanephrine levels

      Correct Answer: Aldosterone-to-renin ratio

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hypertension in a Young Patient: The Importance of Aldosterone-to-Renin Ratio

      Hypertension in a young patient with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia can be caused by renal artery stenosis or an aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma. To determine the cause, measuring aldosterone levels alone is not enough. Both renin and aldosterone levels should be measured, and the aldosterone-to-renin ratio should be evaluated. If hyperaldosteronism is confirmed, CT or MRI of the adrenal glands is done to locate the cause. If both are normal, adrenal vein sampling may be performed. MR angiogram of renal arteries is not a first-line investigation. Similarly, CT angiogram of renal arteries should not be the first choice. 24-hour urine metanephrine levels are not useful in this scenario. The electrolyte abnormalities point towards elevated aldosterone levels, not towards a phaeochromocytoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is commonly associated with neonatal cyanosis?

      Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

      Correct Answer: Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage

      Explanation:

      Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Connection

      Total anomalous pulmonary venous connection (TAPVC) is a condition that causes cyanosis in newborns. It is characterized by an abnormality in blood flow where all four pulmonary veins drain into systemic veins or the right atrium, with or without pulmonary venous obstruction. This results in the mixing of systemic and pulmonary venous blood in the right atrium.

      In contrast, conditions such as patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), atrial septal defect (ASD), and ventricular septal defect (VSD) are left to right shunts. Tricuspid atresia is another condition that is typically associated with cyanosis, but mitral regurgitation is not.

      It is important to understand the differences between these conditions and their effects on blood flow in order to properly diagnose and treat them. Further reading on TAPVC can be found on Medscape.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      2.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 67-year-old male presents to eye casualty with partial loss of vision in...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents to eye casualty with partial loss of vision in his left eye. Upon further questioning, he reports that he has also had a temporal headache for around 2 weeks and has felt generally unwell. He denies any jaw pain when chewing but does have some scalp tenderness. Blood tests are taken which show an ESR of 65mm/hr.
      He has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes and he smokes 20 cigarettes per day.
      What is the most appropriate initial management for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 10 - A 75-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents with severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of metastatic lung cancer presents with severe bony pain. Despite being treated with increasing doses of opioids as an outpatient, he now reports experiencing intense pain in his right shoulder that worsens with movement. This pain is distinct from the metastatic bone pain he has been experiencing in his lower limbs. There is no history of trauma. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a shoulder x ray and give him a broad arm sling

      Explanation:

      Managing Bony Pain in Patients with Metastatic Carcinoma

      The common assumption is that all bony pain in patients with metastatic carcinoma is solely due to bone metastases. However, it is important to consider other possible causes, especially if the pain is worsened by movement and has a different character from known bone metastases. Patients with advanced malignancy are prone to low-force fractures, particularly in the neck of the humerus, even without a history of trauma.

      Before increasing opioid dosage or adding NSAIDs, it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and immobilize the fracture site. A broad arm sling can often provide sufficient pain relief. Bisphosphonates should not be used unless hypercalcemia has been confirmed. When a fracture is suspected, an x-ray is a simpler investigation modality than a bone scan or MRI. However, an MRI may be necessary to provide detail if a pathological fracture requires surgical repair, such as a neck of femur fracture associated with metastatic deposit.

      While dexamethasone can be used as an adjunct in pain management, it should not be the next step. Proper diagnosis and immobilization of the fracture site should be the primary focus in managing bony pain in patients with metastatic carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Genetics (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Passmed