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  • Question 1 - You are evaluating a 5-year-old boy with eczema. Which of the following emollients...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 5-year-old boy with eczema. Which of the following emollients is most likely to cause skin irritation?

      Your Answer: Cetraben

      Correct Answer: Aqueous cream

      Explanation:

      Aqueous Cream May Cause Skin Irritation, Warns Drug Safety Update

      The use of aqueous cream as an emollient has been widely prescribed in the UK. However, a report published in the March 2013 issue of the Drug Safety Update (DSU) warns that it may cause burning and skin irritation in some patients, particularly children with eczema. The report showed that 56% of patients attending a paediatric dermatology clinic who used aqueous cream as a leave-on emollient reported skin irritation, typically within 20 minutes of application. This compared to 18% of children who used an alternative emollient. Skin irritation was not seen in patients using aqueous cream as a soap substitute. It is believed that the high sodium lauryl sulfate content in aqueous cream may be the cause of the irritation. The DSU doesn’t suggest that aqueous cream should not be prescribed, but advises that patients and parents should be warned about possible side-effects. It is recommended to routinely prescribe alternative emollients.

      Spacing: 2

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on his forearms for the past 2 weeks. Loratadine has provided some relief for the itch, and occasionally the rash disappears within a few hours. However, in the last day, the rash has spread to his back and loratadine is no longer effective. The patient has no known allergies or triggers and is feeling well otherwise. What should be the next course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Blood tests for IgE

      Correct Answer: Trial of an oral corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      It is likely that the patient is experiencing a severe urticarial rash, which is a common condition that doesn’t require a dermatology appointment or further investigations at this stage. The patient is stable and not showing signs of anaphylaxis. To investigate further, a symptom diary would be sufficient, especially with exposure to different work environments as an archaeologist. The first-line treatment would be a non-sedating antihistamine such as loratadine or cetirizine. However, if the urticaria is severe, as in this case, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary.

      Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring any treatment?

      Your Answer: Granuloma annulare

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Granuloma Annulare and Actinic Keratoses

      Granuloma annulare is a common skin condition that is characterized by palpable annular lesions that can appear anywhere on the body. The cause of this condition is unknown, and it is rarely associated with diabetes. In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the lesions will resolve on their own within a year.

      On the other hand, actinic keratoses are rough, scaly lesions that develop on sun-damaged skin. These lesions can also be a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma. Treatment options for actinic keratoses include cryotherapy, topical 5-fluorouracil (Efudix), topical diclofenac (Solaraze), excision, and curettage. While spontaneous regression of actinic keratoses is possible, it is not common.

      In summary, both granuloma annulare and actinic keratoses are skin conditions that require different approaches to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of her left great toe for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seeking treatment as it is causing her significant embarrassment. Upon examination, there is a yellowish discoloration on the medial left great toe with nail thickening and mild onycholysis.

      What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Start topical antifungal

      Correct Answer: Take nail sample for laboratory testing

      Explanation:

      Before prescribing any treatment, laboratory testing should confirm the presence of a fungal nail infection. Although it is likely that the patient’s symptoms are due to onychomycosis, other conditions such as psoriasis should be ruled out. Oral terbinafine would be a suitable treatment option if the test confirms a fungal infection. However, topical antifungal treatments are generally not ideal for nail infections. A topical corticosteroid is not appropriate for treating a fungal nail infection, but may be considered if the test reveals no fungal involvement and there are signs of an inflammatory dermatosis like psoriasis. While taking a nail sample is necessary, antifungal treatment should not be initiated until the fungal cause is confirmed. This is because different nail conditions can have similar appearances, and starting treatment without confirmation would not be beneficial.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - How many milligrams of corticosteroid cream are present in a single 'fingertip unit'?...

    Incorrect

    • How many milligrams of corticosteroid cream are present in a single 'fingertip unit'?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 mg

      Explanation:

      How to Measure the Amount of Topical Corticosteroids to Apply

      Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply the cream or ointment in the correct amount to ensure effective treatment and avoid side effects. The length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be used to specify the quantity to be applied to a given area of skin. This length can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the distance from the tip of the adult index finger to the first crease. One fingertip unit (approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g) is sufficient to cover an area that is twice that of the flat adult hand (palm and fingers together).

      It is important to spread the corticosteroid thinly on the skin but in sufficient quantity to cover the affected areas. The amount of cream or ointment used should not be confused with potency, as one gram of a potent steroid is the same in terms of mass as one gram of a mild steroid. Potency doesn’t come into play when measuring the amount of cream to use. If you need to make an educated guess, think about the units. One milligram is an exceptionally small amount and is unlikely to represent a fingertip unit. By using the fingertip unit measurement, you can ensure that you are applying the correct amount of topical corticosteroid for effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has just been diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 and has developed a rash that is consistent with erythema multiforme.
      What is the most probable finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Target lesions with a central blister

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Erythema multiforme is a self-limiting skin condition that is characterized by sharply demarcated, round, red or pink macules that evolve into papular plaques. The lesions typically develop a central blister or crust and a surrounding paler pink ring that is raised due to oedema, creating the classic target appearance. However, atypical targets may also occur, with just two zones and/or an indistinct border. Mucous membranes may also be involved.

      The most common cause of erythema multiforme is Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1, followed by Mycoplasma, although many other viruses have been reported to cause the eruption. Drugs are an infrequent cause, and conditions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are now considered distinct from erythema multiforme.

      Unlike monomorphic eruptions, the lesions in erythema multiforme are polymorphous, meaning they take on many forms. The rash may also involve the palms and soles, although this is not always the case. While there may be a mild itch associated with the condition, intense itching is more commonly seen in Chickenpox in children.

      Lesions in erythema multiforme typically start on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet and spread along the limbs towards the trunk. The condition usually resolves without complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old man presents with a painful rash on his lower back that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents with a painful rash on his lower back that has been bothering him for the past 7 days. He had visited the doctor 4 days ago and was prescribed aciclovir for shingles, but the pain persists despite taking paracetamol, ibuprofen, codeine, and amitriptyline. The pain is described as a severe burning sensation with a mild itch, which is affecting his daily functioning and sleep.

      During the examination, the man's temperature is recorded at 37ºC. The rash is located on the left lower back and is characterized by closely grouped red papules and vesicles with surrounding erythema.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this man's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      If simple analgesia and neuropathic analgesia are not effective in treating refractory pain in shingles, corticosteroids such as prednisolone can be used, but only for acute shingles. This is according to the NICE CKS guideline, which recommends considering oral corticosteroids in the first 2 weeks following rash onset in immunocompetent adults with localized shingles if the pain is severe, but only in combination with antiviral treatment. In the case of a patient who has been on antiviral treatment for seven days and has tried several analgesics without relief, a course of prednisolone would be an appropriate treatment option. Chlorphenamine, an antihistamine medication, may help alleviate itching symptoms but is not the most appropriate treatment option for severe pain. Flucloxacillin, an antibiotic, is not necessary unless there is evidence of co-existing cellulitis. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, has no role in shingles management. Morphine, an opioid medication, may be considered if the pain doesn’t respond to corticosteroids.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - During a follow up visit at an asthma clinic a 39-year-old female complains...

    Incorrect

    • During a follow up visit at an asthma clinic a 39-year-old female complains of the appearance of a mole.

      Which of the following characteristics of the lesion would raise suspicion that it is a malignant melanoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lesion has irregular outline

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Melanoma: The ABCDE Mnemonic

      Melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be deadly if not detected and treated early. To help identify potential melanomas, dermatologists use the ABCDE mnemonic. Each letter represents a characteristic that may indicate the presence of melanoma.

      A stands for asymmetry. If one half of a mole or lesion doesn’t match the other half, it may be a sign of melanoma. B is for border irregularity. Melanomas often have uneven or jagged edges. C represents color variegation. Melanomas may have multiple colors or shades within the same lesion. D is for diameter. Melanomas are typically larger than a pencil eraser, but any mole or lesion that is 6mm or more in diameter should be examined by a dermatologist. Finally, E stands for evolution. Any changes in size, shape, or color of a mole or lesion should be monitored closely.

      By remembering the ABCDE mnemonic, individuals can be more aware of the characteristics of melanoma and seek medical attention if they notice any concerning changes in their skin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, night...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, night sweats, and muscle pains that have been bothering her for a few months. She believes that these symptoms began after she developed a rash on her leg four months ago. She has not traveled anywhere. Samantha is upset and emotional about her symptoms.

      As part of Samantha's evaluation, which tests should be considered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi antibody test

      Explanation:

      Consider Lyme disease as a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with vague and unexplained symptoms such as fever, night sweats, headache, or paraesthesia. These symptoms may also include inflamed lymph nodes, neck pain, and joint/muscle aches. The causative agent of Lyme disease is Borrelia burgdorferi. Malaria is unlikely in patients with no travel history and symptoms lasting for 4 months. Scabies typically presents with an itchy rash, which is not evident in the scenario. Glandular fever may cause fatigue and muscle aches, but the absence of a sore throat and the need for a blood test for diagnosis make it less likely. Toxoplasma gondii is usually asymptomatic but may cause flu-like symptoms and muscle aches, and it is not associated with a rash.

      Lyme Disease: Symptoms and Progression

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. The disease progresses in two stages, with early and later features. The early features of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, which is a small papule that often appears at the site of the tick bite. This papule develops into a larger annular lesion with central clearing, resembling a bulls-eye. This occurs in 70% of patients and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as malaise, fever, and arthralgia.

      As the disease progresses, it can lead to more severe symptoms. The later features of Lyme disease include cardiovascular symptoms such as heart block and myocarditis, as well as neurological symptoms such as cranial nerve palsies and meningitis. Patients may also experience polyarthritis, which is inflammation in multiple joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painful swelling of his penis...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with painful swelling of his penis and a retracted foreskin. He has a long-term catheter in place. What is the most frequent cause of paraphimosis in a non-diabetic man of this age? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Failure of a clinician to replace the foreskin after a procedure

      Explanation:

      Causes of Paraphimosis: Understanding the Factors Involved

      Paraphimosis is a medical condition where the foreskin becomes trapped behind the glans penis and cannot be reduced. While it can be a painful and distressing condition, it is important to understand the various factors that can contribute to its development.

      One common cause of paraphimosis is the failure of a clinician to replace the foreskin after a procedure. This can occur during penile examination, cleaning, catheterisation, or cystoscopy. If the foreskin is left retracted for too long, it can become swollen and difficult to reduce.

      Another potential cause is chronic balanoposthitis, which is a chronic inflammation of the glans and foreskin. While this is uncommon, it can lead to phimosis (inability to retract the foreskin) in men with diabetes.

      Lichen sclerosus is another dermatological condition that can lead to phimosis. While it is uncommon, it is important to be aware of this potential cause.

      Excessive sexual activity is not a common cause of paraphimosis and is not indicated by the history. However, it is important to practice safe and responsible sexual behavior to prevent any potential complications.

      Finally, while sildenafil has been reported to cause priapism (a sustained painful penile erection), it is not a known cause of paraphimosis. By understanding the various factors involved in the development of paraphimosis, individuals can take steps to prevent this condition and seek appropriate medical care if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During a thorough skin examination, a darkly pigmented macule is observed on the palmar side of his left index finger. The lesion measures approximately 4 mm in size and displays poorly defined, irregular borders with an irregular pigment network on dermoscopy. No other pigmented lesions are detected on the patient. He has never noticed it before and is uncertain if it is evolving.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acral lentiginous melanoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s atypical lesion, with three of the five following characteristics, suggests a diagnosis of melanoma. The most common subtype in this patient population is acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur in areas not exposed to the sun, such as the soles of the feet and palms.

      It is unlikely that the lesion is an acquired or congenital naevus. New-onset pigmented lesions in patients over 50 should always be referred to a dermatologist for assessment. Congenital naevi are present at birth and the patient would have a long history with them.

      Nodular melanoma is less likely in this case, as it typically presents as dark papules on sun-exposed areas of skin in the Caucasian population.

      While superficial spreading melanoma is a possibility, a dark-skinned patient with a lesion on the palmar hand or soles of the feet is more likely to have acral lentiginous melanoma.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old woman has been experiencing an uncomfortable rash around her mouth for...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has been experiencing an uncomfortable rash around her mouth for the past 2 months. She uses a skin-cleansing face wash daily and applies hydrocortisone 1% ointment twice a day. Additionally, she has sought advice from a pharmacist who recommended clotrimazole 2% cream and has started using an old tube of fusidic acid cream. She has also started taking iron supplements after reading online that her symptoms may be due to iron deficiency. Despite all these efforts, her rash is getting worse.

      During examination, you observe clusters of papules with surrounding erythema around her mouth, with sparing of her lip margins. There are no comedones, cysts, or nodules.

      What is the top priority treatment that should be discontinued?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      The patient’s perioral dermatitis is likely being exacerbated by her use of topical steroids, so the primary focus of treatment should be to avoid them. Topical erythromycin or clindamycin may be helpful for some patients, while more severe cases may require oral antibiotics like tetracycline or doxycycline. To be cautious, it is recommended that the patient stop using all topical creams and switch to a gentle non-soap-based cleanser for facial washing. It is important to note that oral iron is not a contributing factor to perioral dermatitis, and it is possible that the patient may have mistaken her symptoms for angular cheilitis, which is linked to iron deficiency.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 36-year-old woman presents with a 3-year history of recurrent painful pustules and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with a 3-year history of recurrent painful pustules and nodules in both axillae. She frequently goes to the gym and initially attributed her symptoms to deodorant use, although there have been no signs of improvement since stopping these.

      She doesn't take any regular medication and is allergic to macrolides.

      Upon examination, there are numerous lesions in both axillae consisting of pustules and nodules, as well as sinus tract formation. Mild scarring is also evident.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3-6 month course of lymecycline

      Explanation:

      To manage her hidradenitis suppurativa, which is a chronic follicular occlusive disorder affecting intertriginous areas, such as the axillae, groin, perineal and infra-mammary areas, long-term topical or oral antibiotics may be used. As she is experiencing severe symptoms with nodules, sinuses, and scarring, it would be appropriate to offer her long-term systemic antibiotics. Tetracycline is the first-line antibiotic, making lymecycline the correct answer. Macrolides, such as clarithromycin, can be offered as a second-line option, but she is allergic to this antibiotic. Oral fluconazole and ketoconazole shampoo are used to treat various fungal skin conditions, but hidradenitis suppurativa is not related to a fungal infection. Topical clindamycin can be effective in mild localised hidradenitis suppurativa, but this woman requires systemic treatment due to her severe bilateral symptoms.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in the Scottish Highlands ten days ago. He found an insect attached to the skin of her abdomen and removed it but is concerned it may have been a tick. She has now developed a circular erythematous rash that has begun to radiate out from the bite.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 21 days

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Lyme Disease: Early Manifestations and Treatment Options

      Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Its early manifestation is erythema chronicum migrans, which can progress to neurological, cardiovascular, or arthritic symptoms. Different strains of Borrelia spp. cause varying clinical manifestations, leading to differences in symptoms between countries. The disease is transmitted by Ixodes spp. or deer ticks. Early use of antibiotics can prevent persistent, recurrent, and refractory Lyme disease. Antibiotics shorten the clinical course and progression.

      In patients with erythema migrans alone, oral drug therapies can be started in primary care. Doxycycline (100 mg twice daily or 200 mg once daily for 21 days) is the first choice for patients aged 12 years or older. Amoxicillin (1 g three times daily for 21 days) is the first alternative, while azithromycin (500 mg daily for 17 days) is the second alternative but should be avoided in patients with cardiac abnormalities caused by Lyme disease. If there is any suggestion of cellulitis, co-amoxiclav or amoxicillin and flucloxacillin alone would be more appropriate.

      In the USA, a single dose of 200 mg of doxycycline within 72 hours of tick removal can prevent Lyme disease from developing. However, the risk in the UK is not high enough to warrant prophylactic antibiotics. Antibody testing in patients with erythema migrans is unhelpful as the rash develops before the antibodies. It is important to discuss management with a microbiologist, especially if there are further manifestations. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father was diagnosed with a malignant melanoma at the age of 49. He has worked in construction since leaving school and has spent many years working outside. He tells you that he has spent about 10 years working in North Africa, the majority of the time he spent outside in the sun.

      The patient has fair hair and blue eyes. You examine his skin and he has about 60 common naevi 2 mm or less in diameter. He also has four atypical naevi (naevi with flat and raised areas, oval in shape, with some colour variation) which are all 6 mm or more in diameter. He reports no changes in any of the moles but as he has so many is worried about his risk of skin cancer.

      What is the greatest risk factor for this patient to develop a melanoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: His history of high sun exposure

      Explanation:

      Assessing Pigmented Skin Lesions and Identifying Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider any risk factors for melanoma. The number and characteristics of naevi are the greatest risk factors for melanoma, with individuals who have more than 50 melanocytic naevi, of which 3 or more are atypical in appearance, classified as having atypical mole syndrome. This syndrome occurs in about 2% of the population and increases the risk of developing melanoma by 7 to 10 fold. The risk is further increased if there is a family history of melanoma in a first or second degree relative, known as familial atypical mole syndrome. Other risk factors include light-colored eyes, unusually high sun exposure, and red or light-colored hair.

      It is important to understand the extent of risk associated with these factors, as identifying high-risk patients presents an opportunity to advise them accordingly. Patients at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, and organ transplant recipients. Patients with giant congenital pigmented naevi also require long-term follow-up by a specialist, usually a dermatologist. By understanding these risk factors and providing appropriate guidance, healthcare professionals can help prevent and detect melanoma in high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old nursing home resident presents with a severely itchy rash. Upon examination, red linear lesions are observed on the wrists and elbows, while red papules are present on the penis. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical permethrin

      Explanation:

      Although lichen planus can have similar symptoms, scabies is more likely to cause intense itching. Additionally, lichen planus is less frequently seen in older individuals, as it typically affects those between the ages of 30 and 60.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man has developed small, well differentiated, scaly salmon-pink papules affecting his trunk, arms, and thighs over the past month. He has some mild itching but is otherwise well. He last presented to the surgery two months ago with tonsillitis.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Guttate Psoriasis from Other Skin Conditions: A Clinical Analysis

      Guttate psoriasis is a skin condition that often appears 7-10 days after a streptococcal infection. It is characterized by numerous teardrop-shaped lesions on the trunk and proximal limbs, which are red and covered with a fine scale. While the scale may be less evident in the early stages, the lesions typically resolve on their own after 2-3 months.

      When diagnosing guttate psoriasis, it is important to consider other skin conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Atopic eczema, for example, is less well differentiated than psoriasis lesions and may not have a history of a preceding sore throat. A delayed hypersensitivity reaction to amoxicillin would typically result in skin reactions that resolve spontaneously and would not last for a month. Lichen planus, an autoimmune condition, causes shiny papules without scale and is characterized by Whickham’s striae, which are white lines on the surface of the skin. Pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that causes a widespread rash with scale and well-defined edges, may also be considered but is less likely if there is a history of a preceding sore throat.

      In summary, a thorough clinical analysis is necessary to distinguish guttate psoriasis from other skin conditions with similar symptoms. A careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and physical examination can help clinicians arrive at an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of hypertension, psoriasis, and bipolar disorder visits his doctor complaining of a thick scaly patch on his right knee that appeared after starting a new medication.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely responsible for exacerbating his rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Lithium has been found to potentially worsen psoriasis symptoms.

      Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors, including trauma, alcohol consumption, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, the sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis symptoms. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take steps to avoid or manage them as needed.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 36-year-old woman presents with a painful boil in her axilla. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with a painful boil in her axilla. She reports a history of abscess in the other axillae which required incision and drainage, and now wants to prevent it from happening again. She also complains of frequently having spots and pustules in the groin area. Upon examination of the affected axillae, there is a small inflamed pustule, along with a few other nodules and scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hidradenitis suppurativa

      Explanation:

      Hidradenitis suppurativa is a skin disorder that is chronic, painful, and inflammatory. It is characterized by the presence of nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in areas where skin folds overlap, such as the armpits, groin, and inner thighs.

      This condition is more common in women, smokers, and individuals with a higher body mass index. Over time, the lesions can lead to the development of scars and sinus tracts.

      Acanthosis nigricans, on the other hand, is a skin condition characterized by thickening and discoloration of the skin in skin folds. It is often a sign of an underlying disease such as diabetes or malignancy.

      Acne vulgaris is another skin condition that can present with papules and pustules, but it typically affects the face, upper back, and chest rather than the areas affected by hidradenitis suppurativa.

      Rosacea is a skin condition that causes redness and inflammatory papules on the face, particularly on the cheeks and nose.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - You see a pediatric patient with a suspected fungal skin infection but the...

    Incorrect

    • You see a pediatric patient with a suspected fungal skin infection but the appearance is atypical and so you want to send skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture.

      Which of the following forms part of best practice with regards the sample?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient should be informed that microscopy and culture results should be available within 1-2 days

      Explanation:

      Obtaining Skin Samples for Fungal Microscopy and Culture

      To obtain skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture, it is recommended to scrape the skin from the advancing edge of the lesion(s) using a blunt scalpel blade. This area typically provides a higher yield of dermatophyte. It is important to obtain at least 5 mm2 of skin flakes, which should be placed into folded dark paper and secured with a paperclip. Alternatively, commercially available packs can be used.

      The sample should be kept at room temperature as dermatophytes are inhibited at low temperatures. Microscopy results typically take 1-2 days, while culture results take 2-3 weeks. By following these steps, accurate and timely results can be obtained for the diagnosis and treatment of fungal infections.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.

      Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.

      Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis. He has been unable to retract his foreskin for a few years now, and the tip of his penis is quite sore. He also reports a foul odor. Apart from this, he is in good health. He believes that this problem developed gradually over several years.

      During the examination, you observe that the man is not circumcised, and there is a tight white ring around the tip of his foreskin. The glans penis is barely visible through the end of the foreskin, and it appears to be inflamed.

      What is the specific condition responsible for causing this man's balanitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Sclerosus

      Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. It is characterized by the formation of white plaques that lead to atrophy of the epidermis. The condition can cause discomfort, with itch being a prominent symptom. Pain during intercourse or urination may also occur.

      Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually based on clinical examination, although a biopsy may be necessary if atypical features are present. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. However, patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, so regular follow-up is recommended.

      According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, skin biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis unless the woman fails to respond to treatment or there is clinical suspicion of cancer. The British Association of Dermatologists also advises that biopsy is not always essential when the clinical features are typical, but it is advisable if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Biopsy is mandatory if there is any suspicion of neoplastic change. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital LS, if there are pigmented areas, or if second-line therapy is to be used.

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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old man presented with a small lump on his temple that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presented with a small lump on his temple that is shiny with visible telangiectasiae and is gradually increasing in size.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Skin Tumours: Types, Symptoms, and Management

      Skin tumours are abnormal growths of skin cells that can be benign or malignant. Basal cell carcinomas are the most common malignant skin tumour, usually caused by excessive sun exposure in early life and previous sunburn. They often present as a slow-growing nodule or papule that forms an ulcer with a raised ‘rolled’ edge. Basal cell carcinomas grow slowly and rarely metastasise.

      Low-risk basal cell carcinomas can be managed in primary care if the GP meets the requirements to perform skin surgery. A specialist referral is appropriate for most people with a suspicious skin lesion, and urgent referral is necessary if there is a concern that a delay may have a significant impact.

      Squamous cell carcinomas have a crusted or ulcerated surface, while seborrhoeic warts have a warty pigmented surface appearance. Lentigo maligna is a melanoma in situ that progresses slowly and can remain non-invasive for years. In amelanotic melanoma, the colour may be pink, red, purple, or the colour of normal skin, and growth is likely to be rapid with a poor prognosis.

      In conclusion, early detection and management of skin tumours are crucial for better outcomes. Regular skin checks and seeking medical advice for any suspicious skin lesion are recommended.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old female student presents with generalised pruritus of six weeks duration.

    She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female student presents with generalised pruritus of six weeks duration.

      She has little other history of note and has otherwise been well. This itching has deteriorated over this time and is particularly worse at night. She has been unaware of any rashes and denies taking any prescribed drugs. There is no history of atopy.

      She shares a flat with her boyfriend and drinks approximately 12 units per week and smokes cannabis occasionally.

      On examination, there is little of note except there are some scratch marks over the shoulders and back and she has some erythema between the fingers. Otherwise cardiovascular, respiratory and abdominal examination is normal.

      Which of the following therapies would be most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Scabies: Symptoms and Treatment

      Scabies is a highly contagious disease caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is commonly found in sexually active individuals. The disease is characterized by generalised pruritus, and it is important to carefully examine the finger spaces for burrows.

      The most effective treatments for scabies include permethrin cream, topical benzyl benzoate, and malathion. While permethrin cream doesn’t directly alleviate pruritus, it helps to kill the mite, which is the root cause of the disease. Patients should be advised that it may take some time for the itching to subside as the allergic reaction to the mite abates. Additionally, it is important to apply the cream to all areas below the neck, not just where the rash is present.

      In summary, scabies is a highly contagious disease that can cause significant discomfort. However, with proper treatment and care, patients can effectively manage their symptoms and prevent the spread of the disease.

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  • Question 25 - A 65-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of toenail thickening and lifting...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of toenail thickening and lifting with discoloration on 2 of his 5 toes on his left foot. He is in good health and has no other medical issues. He is eager to receive treatment as it is causing discomfort when he walks.

      Upon examination, you determine that he has an obvious fungal toenail infection on his 2nd and 5th toenails of his left foot and proceed to take some nail clippings.

      After a week, you receive the mycology results which confirm the presence of Trichophyton rubrum.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      When it comes to dermatophyte nail infections, the preferred treatment is oral terbinafine, especially when caused by Trichophyton rubrum, which is a common organism responsible for such infections. It is important to note that not treating the infection is not an option, especially when the patient is experiencing symptoms such as pain while walking. Oral itraconazole may be more appropriate for Candida infections or as a second-line treatment for dermatophyte infections. Amorolfine nail lacquer is not recommended according to NICE CKS guidelines if more than two nails are affected.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - How would you characterize an individual with asteatotic eczema? ...

    Incorrect

    • How would you characterize an individual with asteatotic eczema?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An 90-year-old female who has developed cracked fissured skin on her lower legs with a 'crazy-paving' appearance

      Explanation:

      Types of Eczema and Asteatotic Eczema in Elderly Patients

      There are various types of eczema, each with its own unique characteristics and triggers. Atopic eczema is common in children, while pompholyx affects middle-aged women and discoid eczema is more prevalent in older men. Varicose eczema is often seen in individuals with poor circulation, and asteatotic eczema is a common condition in elderly patients.

      Asteatotic eczema is caused by a lack of epidermal lubrication, which can be exacerbated by factors such as over-washing, inadequate soap removal, diuretic use, and dry air with low humidity. This condition is characterized by dry, cracked skin with a crazy-paving appearance. Treatment involves addressing any underlying triggers and using topical emollients and steroids to soothe and moisturize the affected area. With proper care, asteatotic eczema can be effectively managed in elderly patients.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old woman has a pigmented lesion on her leg.
    Select from the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has a pigmented lesion on her leg.
      Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of malignancy.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recent growth

      Explanation:

      Identifying Suspicious Pigmented Lesions: Signs of Malignancy

      When it comes to pigmented lesions, it’s important to approach new or growing ones with caution. While benign melanocytic naevi tend to remain stable over time, malignant lesions may exhibit signs of growth and other concerning features. These may include a size greater than 7mm, irregular pigmentation, asymmetry, and an irregular border or contour. While itching and bleeding may also be indicative of malignancy, they can also be caused by other factors such as trauma or seborrhoeic keratosis. To identify potential melanomas, healthcare professionals may use the Glasgow 7-point checklist or the ABCDE’s of melanoma. By remaining vigilant and aware of these warning signs, we can help ensure early detection and treatment of potentially dangerous pigmented lesions.

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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old obese man has hyperpigmented, thickened, velvety skin, with surrounding skin tags...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old obese man has hyperpigmented, thickened, velvety skin, with surrounding skin tags in both axillae.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acanthosis nigricans

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Hyperpigmented Skin: Acanthosis Nigricans, Erythrasma, Melasma, Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum, and Post-Inflammatory Hyperpigmentation

      Hyperpigmented skin can be caused by a variety of conditions. One possible cause is acanthosis nigricans, which presents with thick, velvety skin in the neck and flexures, often accompanied by skin tags. This condition is commonly associated with obesity and hereditary factors. However, it can also be a sign of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.

      Another possible cause of hyperpigmented skin is erythrasma, a bacterial infection that causes pink-red macules that turn brown, typically in the groin and axilla. However, the bilateral distribution of the pigmentation in this case makes erythrasma less likely.

      Melasma is another condition that can cause hyperpigmentation, but it typically presents with symmetrical blotchy brown pigmentation on the face. The distribution described in the scenario makes melasma less likely.

      Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a rare condition that affects the shins of people with diabetes. However, the distribution of the pigmentation in this case rules out this condition as a cause.

      Finally, post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can occur after trauma such as burns, causing flat macules. However, it doesn’t cause skin thickening, as described in this case.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for hyperpigmented skin includes acanthosis nigricans, erythrasma, melasma, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 29 - A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red rash over the last few weeks which has been gradually worsening. It is mostly affecting the flexures and the face. The child’s mother suffers from atopic eczema and suspects that this is the problem with her son’s skin.
      What is the most appropriate management option in the treatment of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Managing Eczema: Key Recommendations

      Eczema is a chronic skin condition that can cause significant discomfort and distress. While there is no cure for eczema, there are several strategies that can help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of flare-ups. Here are some key recommendations for managing eczema:

      1. Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears: Using emollients frequently can help reduce the frequency of flare-ups and the need for steroid treatment.

      2. Only mildly potent corticosteroids should be used: While both mildly and moderately potent topical steroids can be used in children if needed for short courses, very potent preparations should only be used under specialist guidance.

      3. Antihistamines should not be prescribed routinely: While antihistamines may provide some relief from itching, they are not recommended for routine use in the management of eczema.

      4. Oral antibiotics should only be used when necessary: Antibiotics are only indicated where there is clinical suspicion of superimposed bacterial infection.

      5. Topical tacrolimus should be used as a second-line treatment: Topical tacrolimus should only be used in cases that are not controlled with maximum corticosteroid therapy, or where there is high risk of side-effects from steroid use.

      By following these recommendations, patients with eczema can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

    She describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

      She describes pain and tenderness of the superficial veins.

      There is no fever or malaise and no evidence of arterial insufficiency (her ankle brachial pressure index is 1).

      She is allergic to penicillin.

      What are the two most appropriate treatments for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical non-steroidal

      Explanation:

      Management of Limited Superficial Thrombophlebitis

      In the management of limited superficial thrombophlebitis, the most appropriate treatment option is the use of class 1 compression stockings. This is because most patients find class 2 compression stockings too painful. Additionally, an ankle brachial pressure index of between 0.8 and 1.3 means that arterial disease is unlikely, and compression stockings are generally safe to wear. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection, and the patient’s allergy to penicillin precludes the use of antibiotics as a treatment option. Topical non-steroidals can be used for mild and limited superficial thrombophlebitis, such as is presented here. Although an oral non-steroidal or paracetamol may be suggested, it is not presented as an option. As this condition is relatively common in primary care, it is important to be familiar with the most appropriate treatment options.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 31 - A 53-year-old man reports to you that a mole on his left forearm...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old man reports to you that a mole on his left forearm has recently become darker, although he believes the size has not changed. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped pigmented lesion measuring 8 mm × 6 mm. The lesion appears mildly inflamed, with some areas darker than others, but there is no discharge. Sensation over the lesion and surrounding skin is normal.

      Using the 7-point weighted checklist recommended by the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE), what is the score of this patient's skin lesion based on the above clinical description?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      The 7-Point Checklist for Detecting Skin Cancer

      The 7-point weighted checklist is a tool used by clinicians to identify suspicious skin lesions that may be cancerous. It comprises three major features, including a change in size, irregular shape, and irregular colour, as well as four minor features, such as inflammation and oozing. Major features score 2 points each, while minor features score 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation, even if the score is less than 3.

      The incidence of malignant melanoma is increasing rapidly, particularly among young people, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. High-risk patients include those with fair skin, freckling or light hair, users of sunbeds, atypical or dysplastic naevi, a family history of melanoma, and a history of blistering sunburn. Clinicians should also offer safe sun advice and encourage patients to seek medical attention if they have any concerns.

      The 7-point checklist can be found in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer and is an important tool for detecting skin cancer early. By being aware of the risk factors and using this checklist, clinicians can help to improve outcomes for patients with skin cancer.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 32 - A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman is referred acutely with a sudden onset of erythematous vesicular eruption affecting upper and lower limbs bilaterally also affecting trunk back and face. She had marked oral cavity ulceration, micturition was painful. She had recently been commenced on a new drug (Methotrexate) for rheumatoid arthritis. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Severe Drug Reaction

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS), also known as erythema multiforme major, is a severe and extensive drug reaction that always involves mucous membranes. This condition is characterized by the presence of blisters that tend to become confluent and bullous. One of the diagnostic signs of SJS is Nikolsky’s sign, which is the extension of blisters with gentle sliding pressure.

      In addition to skin lesions, patients with SJS may experience systemic symptoms such as fever, prostration, cheilitis, stomatitis, vulvovaginitis, and balanitis. These symptoms can lead to difficulties with micturition. Moreover, SJS can affect the eyes, causing conjunctivitis and keratitis, which carry a risk of scarring and permanent visual impairment.

      If there are lesions in the pharynx and larynx, it is important to seek an ENT opinion. SJS is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.

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  • Question 33 - A 58-year-old man who is a recent immigrant from Tanzania complains about an...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man who is a recent immigrant from Tanzania complains about an ulcer on his penis. This is painless and has been present for some months, but is slowly enlarging. On examination he has an ulcer at the base of his glans and an offensive exudate. He also has bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Penile cancer

      Explanation:

      Penile Cancer, Chancroid, and Syphilis: A Comparison

      Penile cancer is a rare condition in the UK, but is more commonly seen in patients from Asia and Africa. It is often associated with poor hygiene and herpes infections, and can cause difficulty in retracting the foreskin. The 5-year survival rate with lymph-node involvement is around 50%.

      Chancroid, on the other hand, is characterized by a painful ulcer. Lymphadenitis is also painful, and may progress to a suppurative bubo. Multiple ulcers may be present.

      In syphilis, the primary chancre typically heals within 4-8 weeks, with or without treatment.

      While these conditions may have some similarities, they are distinct and require different approaches to diagnosis and treatment. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have any of these conditions.

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  • Question 34 - A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman has moderately severe acne consisting mainly of inflamed papules. There has been no visible response in spite of taking erythromycin 500 mg twice daily for three months. She also uses benzoyl peroxide but finds it irritates her face if she uses it too frequently. She found oxytetracycline upset her stomach. Her only other medication is Microgynon 30®, which she uses for contraception.
      What is the most appropriate primary care management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol in place of Microgynon 30®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Moderate to Severe Acne

      Explanation:

      When treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider various options and their associated risks and benefits. In cases where topical treatments and oral antibiotics have not been effective, alternative options should be explored.

      One option is to switch to a combined oral contraceptive pill, such as co-cyprindiol, which can provide better control over acne. However, it is important to discuss the higher risk of venous thromboembolism associated with this type of contraceptive.

      If primary care treatments continue to fail, referral to a dermatologist for consideration of isotretinoin may be necessary. Isotretinoin tablets can be effective in treating severe acne, but they must be prescribed by a dermatologist.

      Extending the course of systemic antibiotics beyond three months, as advised by NICE guidance, is not recommended. Similarly, topical antibiotics and tretinoin gel are unlikely to be effective when systemic antibiotics have not worked.

      In summary, when treating moderate to severe acne, it is important to consider all options and their associated risks and benefits. Referral to a dermatologist may be necessary if primary care treatments are not effective.

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  • Question 35 - A 75-year-old obese woman had a deep venous thrombosis several years ago. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old obese woman had a deep venous thrombosis several years ago. She has an ulcer over the left medial malleolus with fibrosis and purpura of the surrounding skin.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A venous ulcer

      Explanation:

      Understanding Venous Leg Ulcers: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Venous leg ulcers are a common condition in the UK, accounting for approximately 3% of new cases seen in dermatological clinics. These ulcers are more prevalent in patients who are obese, have a history of varicose veins, or have experienced deep vein thrombosis. The underlying cause of venous leg ulcers is venous stasis, which leads to an increase in capillary pressure, fibrin deposits, and poor oxygenation of the skin. This, in turn, can result in poorly nourished skin and minor trauma, leading to ulceration.

      Treatment for venous leg ulcers focuses on reducing exudates and promoting healing using dressings such as Granuflex® or Sorbisan®. Compression bandaging is the primary treatment option, and preventive therapy may include weight loss, wearing support stockings, or surgical treatment of varicose veins.

      It is important to note that other conditions may present with similar symptoms, such as absent pulses, widespread purpura on the legs, injury, or diabetes. Therefore, a proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 36 - A 67-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with a recent skin lesion on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with a recent skin lesion on her forearm that has been there for 3 weeks. She mentions that she first noticed it after a minor injury to the area, and it has been growing rapidly since then. Upon examination, there is a 12mm raised, symmetrical nodule with a large keratinized center. The surrounding skin looks normal, and there are no other comparable lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratoacanthoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Keratoacanthoma

      Keratoacanthoma is a type of non-cancerous tumor that affects the epithelial cells. It is more commonly found in older individuals and is rare in younger people. The appearance of this tumor is often described as a volcano or crater, starting as a smooth dome-shaped papule that rapidly grows into a central crater filled with keratin. While spontaneous regression within three months is common, it is important to have the lesion removed as it can be difficult to distinguish from squamous cell carcinoma. Removal can also prevent scarring. It is important to be aware of the features of keratoacanthoma and seek medical attention if any suspicious growths are noticed.

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  • Question 37 - A 40-year-old woman presents with some yellowish-brown tender oval patches that have developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents with some yellowish-brown tender oval patches that have developed slowly on her shins over the past few months. The patches are shiny, pale and atrophic with telangiectasia.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum: A rare skin condition that is more prevalent in diabetic patients. It is characterized by the development of yellowish-brown patches that slowly grow over several months. The center of the patch becomes pale and thin with telangiectasia. Lesions can occur on various parts of the body, but the most common site is pretibial. Trauma can cause ulceration, and no treatment has proven to be completely effective.

      Lichen Sclerosus: Usually found in the anogenital area of women and on the prepuce, glans, and coronal sulcus in men. Patches are white and thickened or crinkled like cigarette paper.

      Erythema Nodosum: Presents as red, tender nodules on the anterior aspect of the lower leg. The nodules last for 3-6 weeks.

      Granuloma Annulare: Typically found on the dorsa of the hands or feet, but can be more widespread. The disseminated form is characterized by skin-colored, pink, or mauve non-scaly papules arranged in rings 10 cm or more in diameter.

      Venous Eczema: Itchy erythematous scaly or crusted patches on the lower legs. The patches may be confluent and circumferential, and there may be pigmentary changes due to haemosiderin deposition.

      Characteristics of Common Skin Conditions

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  • Question 38 - A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male presents with a widespread skin rash. He had a coryzal illness and a sore throat last week, which has now improved. The rash has spread extensively, but it is not itchy. On examination, you observe erythematous 'tear drop' shape, scaly plaques covering his whole torso and upper legs. You estimate that guttate psoriasis covers 25 percent of the patient's total body surface area. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology for phototherapy

      Explanation:

      Referral is the most appropriate option if the psoriatic lesions are widespread and affecting a large area of the patient’s body. However, if the lesions are not widespread, reassurance may be a reasonable management option as they may self-resolve in 3-4 months. In cases where the psoriatic lesions are not widespread, treatment similar to that used for trunk and limb psoriasis can be applied, including the use of topical steroids, emollients, and vitamin D analogues.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.

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  • Question 39 - Sophie has just turned 30 and has recently started taking Microgynon 30. However,...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie has just turned 30 and has recently started taking Microgynon 30. However, she is concerned about the impact it may have on her skin as she has an important event coming up soon. What is a typical skin-related adverse effect of Microgynon 30?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Melasma

      Explanation:

      The use of combined oral contraceptive pills can lead to skin-related side effects that are similar to those observed during pregnancy. The high levels of estrogen in these pills can cause hyperpigmentation, known as melasma, on areas of the skin that are exposed to the sun. This side effect is more common in women who use the pill for longer durations or at higher doses. However, melasma usually disappears after discontinuing the pill or after pregnancy.

      The oral contraceptive pill can also cause vascular effects such as spider naevi, telangiectasia, and angiomas due to high levels of estrogen. Women taking the pill may also experience genital candidiasis (thrush). The progesterone used in the pill can be androgenic, leading to acne vulgaris, hirsutism, greasy hair, and alopecia. However, some progesterones, such as drospirenone (in Yasmin) and desogestrel (in Marvelon), are less androgenic and induce acne less. For effective treatment of acne, the estrogen dose must be sufficient to counteract the androgenic nature of the progesterone used.

      There is no evidence to suggest that taking the oral contraceptive pill increases the risk of eczema, rosacea, or dermatographia. However, the pill may cause erythema nodosum more commonly than erythema multiforme.

      Understanding Melasma: A Common Skin Condition

      Melasma is a skin condition that causes the development of dark patches or macules on sun-exposed areas, especially the face. It is more common in women and people with darker skin. The term chloasma is sometimes used to describe melasma during pregnancy. The condition is often associated with hormonal changes, such as those that occur during pregnancy or with the use of hormonal medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy.

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  • Question 40 - An obese 57-year-old man presents with a discharge from under the foreskin and...

    Incorrect

    • An obese 57-year-old man presents with a discharge from under the foreskin and a sore penis. There are small, red erosions on the glans, and the foreskin is also swollen and red. He denies any recent sexual contact. He is otherwise fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications.
      Which condition is most likely to have led to these signs and symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Causes of Balanitis and their Risk Factors

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis. There are several causes of balanitis, and identifying the underlying cause is crucial for effective treatment. Here are some of the common causes of balanitis and their associated risk factors:

      Diabetes Mellitus: Diabetes is the most common underlying condition associated with adult balanitis, especially if the blood sugar is poorly controlled. It predisposes the patient to a bacterial or candida infection. Obesity is also a risk factor for underlying diabetes.

      Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection: While immunosuppression (such as secondary to HIV infection) predisposes to balanitis, there are no indications that he is at risk of HIV.

      Contact Dermatitis: Contact or irritant dermatitis is a cause of balanitis; however, there are no risk factors described. Common causes of contact dermatitis balanitis include condoms, soap, and poor hygiene.

      Syphilis: Syphilis is a cause of infective balanitis; however, it is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.

      Trichomonas: Although a cause of infective balanitis, trichomonas is not the most common cause and is unlikely in a patient who denies recent sexual contact.

      In conclusion, identifying the underlying cause of balanitis is crucial for effective treatment. Diabetes, HIV infection, contact dermatitis, syphilis, and trichomonas are some of the common causes of balanitis, and their associated risk factors should be considered during diagnosis.

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  • Question 41 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      The bullous form of lichen planus is an exceptionally uncommon occurrence.

      Bullous Disorders: Causes and Types

      Bullous disorders are characterized by the formation of fluid-filled blisters or bullae on the skin. These can be caused by a variety of factors, including congenital conditions like epidermolysis bullosa, autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus, insect bites, trauma or friction, and certain medications such as barbiturates and furosemide.

      Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare genetic disorder that affects the skin’s ability to adhere to the underlying tissue, leading to the formation of blisters and sores. Autoimmune bullous disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks proteins in the skin, causing blistering and inflammation. Insect bites can also cause bullae to form, as can trauma or friction from activities like sports or manual labor.

      Certain medications can also cause bullous disorders as a side effect. Barbiturates, for example, have been known to cause blistering and skin rashes in some people. Furosemide, a diuretic used to treat high blood pressure and edema, can also cause bullae to form in some cases.

      Overall, bullous disorders can be caused by a variety of factors and can range from mild to severe. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause and may include medications, wound care, and lifestyle modifications.

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  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old woman comes in for pre-employment evaluation as she is starting work...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes in for pre-employment evaluation as she is starting work as a nurse on a pediatric ward next month. She has received all her childhood and school-aged vaccinations but cannot recall if she had Chickenpox as a child.

      What vaccine is most likely required before she can start her new job?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella vaccine

      Explanation:

      For healthcare workers who do not have natural immunity to varicella, the most appropriate course of action is to administer a varicella vaccine. While a diphtheria, pertussis, and tetanus booster may be recommended by the employer, it is not necessary in this case as the patient has a history of vaccination. Hepatitis A vaccine is typically only given to those who travel and is not routinely required for employment. While an influenza vaccine may be suggested by the employer, the patient’s most pressing need is likely the varicella vaccine. While a measles, mumps, and rubella vaccination may be considered, it is not the most urgent vaccination needed for employment.

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

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  • Question 43 - Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratoderma blenorrhagica

      Explanation:

      Reiter’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of waxy yellow papules on the palms and soles, a condition known as keratoderma blenorrhagica.

      Skin Disorders Associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body, including the skin. Skin manifestations of SLE include a photosensitive butterfly rash, discoid lupus, alopecia, and livedo reticularis, which is a net-like rash. The butterfly rash is a red, flat or raised rash that appears on the cheeks and bridge of the nose, often sparing the nasolabial folds. Discoid lupus is a chronic, scarring skin condition that can cause red, raised patches or plaques on the face, scalp, and other areas of the body. Alopecia is hair loss that can occur on the scalp, eyebrows, and other areas of the body. Livedo reticularis is a mottled, purplish discoloration of the skin that can occur on the arms, legs, and trunk.

      The skin manifestations of SLE can vary in severity and may come and go over time. They can also be a sign of more serious internal organ involvement. Treatment for skin manifestations of SLE may include topical or oral medications, such as corticosteroids, antimalarials, and immunosuppressants, as well as sun protection measures.

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  • Question 44 - A 65-year-old male presents to your clinic with a suspected fungal toenail infection....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents to your clinic with a suspected fungal toenail infection. The infection has been gradually developing, causing discoloration of the nail unit with white/yellow streaks and distorting the nail bed. The severity of the infection is moderate. During his last visit, nail scrapings were taken for microscopy and culture, which recently confirmed dermatophyte infection. The patient is experiencing discomfort while walking and is seeking treatment for the fungal infection.

      What is the most suitable treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Oral terbinafine is recommended for treating dermatophyte nail infections.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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  • Question 45 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed that she has been scratching her face, particularly around her mouth and that she has developed some 'spots and scabs' in the area. The patient doesn't appear systemically unwell or distressed. The child has a history of atopic eczema and viral-induced wheeze.

      On examination of the child's face you note the presence of pustules and vesicles surrounding the mouth and nose area along with some honey-coloured plaques. You diagnose impetigo and prescribe topical fusidic acid as well as advising good hygiene measures.

      The father is concerned about sending the child to preschool. What do you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient must have been on treatment for 48h before returning to daycare

      Explanation:

      Patients with impetigo can go back to school or work once they are no longer contagious, which is either when all lesions have crusted over or after 48 hours of starting treatment. For measles or rubella, it is recommended to wait for at least 4 days after the rash appears before returning to work or school.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

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  • Question 46 - A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man visits your GP clinic with concerns about spots on his face that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved and the patient is becoming more self-conscious about them. He is seeking treatment. During examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, but no nodules.

      What is the best initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line management for acne is non-antibiotic topical treatment. For mild to moderate acne, a trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide, topical azelaic acid, or topical antibacterial is appropriate. Referral to dermatology is not necessary for mild to moderate acne. Oral antibiotics should only be considered if topical management options have failed. It is important to reassure the patient that treatment is available and necessary, and to review their progress in 2 months.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 47 - An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to you with concerns about several scaly patches on his scalp. He mentions that they are not causing him any discomfort. Upon examination, you observe numerous rough scaly lesions on his sun-damaged skin, accompanied by extensive erythema and telangiectasia.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-fluorouracil cream

      Explanation:

      Topical diclofenac can be utilized to treat mild actinic keratoses in this individual.

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

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  • Question 48 - A 50-year-old man presents with widespread erythema and scaling of the skin to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with widespread erythema and scaling of the skin to the extent that nearly the whole of the skin surface is involved.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythroderma

      Explanation:

      Erythroderma is a condition where the skin becomes red all over the body, affecting at least 90% of the skin surface. It can occur suddenly or gradually and is often accompanied by skin peeling. The cause can be related to various skin disorders, including eczema, drug reactions, and cancer. Psoriasis is the most common cause in adults. Patients with erythroderma should be hospitalized as it can lead to fever, heart failure, and dehydration. Asteatotic eczema is a type of eczema that causes dry, itchy, and cracked skin, usually on the shins of elderly patients. Atopic eczema is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that often starts in infancy and is associated with high levels of immunoglobulin E. Ichthyosis is a condition where the skin is persistently scaly and can be congenital or acquired. Toxic epidermal necrolysis is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by drug reactions.

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  • Question 49 - What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for two weeks to a...

    Incorrect

    • What amount of corticosteroid cream should be prescribed for two weeks to a teenager with eczema on the front and back of both hands?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100 g

      Explanation:

      How to Measure and Apply Topical Corticosteroids

      Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply them correctly to ensure maximum effectiveness and minimize side effects.

      To apply topical corticosteroids, spread a thin layer over the affected area, making sure to cover it completely. The amount of cream or ointment needed can be measured using a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube from the tip of an adult index finger to the first crease. One ftu is approximately 0.5 g and is enough to cover an area twice the size of an adult hand (palm and fingers together).

      For example, to treat both hands for two weeks, 14 g of cream or ointment is needed. If the hands are frequently immersed in water, it may be necessary to apply the cream or ointment twice daily, in which case 15-30 g should be prescribed.

      By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that they are using the correct amount of topical corticosteroids and achieving the best possible results.

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  • Question 50 - A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of cracked and peeling feet...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of cracked and peeling feet for the past 3 weeks. Her soles appear shiny and glazed, but her heels are not affected. The web spaces between her toes are also spared. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juvenile plantar dermatosis

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to correctly diagnose juvenile plantar dermatosis as it can be misidentified as athlete’s foot, and therefore requires different treatment.

      Juvenile plantar dermatosis is a prevalent condition that causes dry skin on the feet in children and adolescents, typically affecting those aged 3 to 14, although it can occur in individuals of any age. One key distinguishing factor is that juvenile plantar dermatosis spares the web spaces, whereas tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) commonly affects these areas.

      The initial treatment for juvenile plantar dermatosis involves using moisturizing cream at night and barrier cream during the day. Additionally, patients can be advised to reduce friction by wearing well-fitting shoes, two pairs of cotton socks, and changing socks frequently.

      Eczema typically presents as scaly, red patches in flexor creases, such as the elbow or knee.

      Contact dermatitis may appear similar to juvenile plantar dermatosis, but there would be a history of exposure to a potential trigger.

      In summary, accurately diagnosing juvenile plantar dermatosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment is provided, as it can be mistaken for other conditions such as athlete’s foot.

      Understanding Athlete’s Foot

      Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.

      To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.

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  • Question 51 - Sophie is a 5-year-old girl who has been brought to your clinic by...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 5-year-old girl who has been brought to your clinic by her father. He reports that she developed a rash with small spots on her upper lip 3 days ago. The spots have now burst and formed a yellowish crust. Sophie has no medical history and no known allergies.

      During the examination, Sophie appears to be in good health. She has a red rash on the left side of her upper lip with a few visible blisters and an area of yellow crust. There are no other affected areas.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe hydrogen peroxide cream

      Explanation:

      If fusidic acid resistance is suspected or confirmed, mupirocin is the appropriate treatment for impetigo. Advising the person and their carers about good hygiene measures is important to aid healing and reduce the spread of impetigo, but it is not a treatment for the condition itself. Oral flucloxacillin is typically used for widespread non-bullous impetigo or in cases of bullous impetigo, systemic illness, or high risk of complications, none of which apply to Timothy’s localized impetigo.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 52 - A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a flame burn injury on his foot 7 years ago. The burn injury was managed with dressings and skin grafting but has never healed completely. Over the last 4 months, he has suffered from recurrent bleeding and ulceration at this site.

      Upon examination, there is extensive scarring on the dorsal aspect of his foot, and there is a 35mm ulcerated area with associated tenderness.

      The histopathology report confirmed the presence of malignant disease, describing the presence of keratin pearls. Imaging showed evidence of metastases.

      What is the most likely type of malignancy in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin

      Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that is commonly seen in individuals who have had excessive exposure to sunlight or have undergone psoralen UVA therapy. Other risk factors include actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease, immunosuppression, smoking, long-standing leg ulcers, and genetic conditions. While metastases are rare, they may occur in 2-5% of patients.

      This type of cancer typically appears on sun-exposed areas such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms. The nodules are painless, rapidly expanding, and may have a cauliflower-like appearance. Bleeding may also occur in some cases.

      Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma involves surgical excision with margins of 4mm for lesions less than 20 mm in diameter and 6mm for larger tumors. Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites. Prognosis is generally good for well-differentiated tumors that are less than 20 mm in diameter and less than 2 mm deep. However, poorly differentiated tumors that are larger than 20 mm in diameter and deeper than 4mm, as well as those associated with immunosuppression, have a poorer prognosis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 53 - A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent balanitis. He has swelling and redness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy presents with recurrent balanitis. He has swelling and redness of his glans penis and foreskin, and his mother reports a foul odor and slight discharge. What is the most frequently isolated organism in cases of balanitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C. albicans

      Explanation:

      Balanitis is most commonly caused by C. albicans, with group B beta-haemolytic streptococci being a less frequent cause among bacterial infections. The other options listed may also cause balanitis, but are not as commonly isolated.

      Understanding Balanitis: Causes, Assessment, and Treatment

      Balanitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the glans penis and sometimes extending to the underside of the foreskin. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including bacterial and candidal infections, autoimmune conditions, and poor hygiene. Proper assessment of balanitis involves taking a thorough history and conducting a physical examination to determine the cause and severity of the condition. In most cases, diagnosis is made clinically based on the history and examination, but in some cases, a swab or biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

      Treatment of balanitis involves a combination of general and specific measures. General treatment includes gentle saline washes and proper hygiene practices, while specific treatment depends on the underlying cause of the condition. For example, candidiasis is treated with topical clotrimazole, while bacterial balanitis may be treated with oral antibiotics. Dermatitis and circinate balanitis are managed with mild potency topical corticosteroids, while lichen sclerosus and plasma cell balanitis of Zoon may require high potency topical steroids or circumcision.

      Understanding the causes, assessment, and treatment of balanitis is important for both children and adults who may be affected by this condition. By taking proper hygiene measures and seeking appropriate medical treatment, individuals with balanitis can manage their symptoms and prevent complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 54 - A 55-year-old woman complains of discomfort while eating. Upon examination, white-lace pattern lesions...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman complains of discomfort while eating. Upon examination, white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers are observed in the buccal region of her mouth.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Oral lichen planus is characterised by buccal white-lace pattern lesions and ulcers, causing discomfort while eating. Other conditions such as Sjögren’s syndrome, blocked Stensen’s duct, Behçet’s disease, and oral psoriasis may have different symptoms and are less likely to be the cause of buccal lesions.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

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  • Question 55 - An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few weeks about a leg ulcer on her right leg that doesn't seem to be healing despite multiple rounds of antibiotics. You schedule some Doppler tests, which reveal an ankle: brachial pressure index (ABPI) of 0.4 in the affected leg and 0.8 in the other leg. A wound swab indicates the presence of coliforms. What is the most probable diagnosis from the options provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arterial insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) and its Role in Diagnosing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a crucial diagnostic tool for identifying peripheral arterial disease. By comparing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle to the brachial artery pressure, doctors can determine if there is lower blood pressure in the leg, which is a sign of arterial disease. To measure the ABPI, a Doppler ultrasound blood flow detector and a sphygmomanometer are used to detect the artery pulse in the brachial and dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial arteries.

      A normal ABPI falls between 0.9 and 1.2, while a value below 0.9 indicates arterial disease. An ABPI of 1.3 or greater is considered abnormal and suggests severe arterial disease. In cases where the ABPI is below 0.5, the disease is considered severe. It’s important to note that an ulcer with a normal ABPI is most likely a venous ulcer.

      While coliforms are common commensals in leg ulcers and typically don’t require treatment, failure of any ulcer to heal should raise concerns about the possibility of a squamous cell carcinoma. Vasculitis typically doesn’t affect the ABPI unless it’s a large vessel vasculitis, such as polyarteritis nodosa, which would be apparent. Understanding the ABPI and its role in diagnosing peripheral arterial disease is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 56 - A 39-year-old female patient complains of a skin rash that has been bothering...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old female patient complains of a skin rash that has been bothering her for a week. She reports experiencing a burning sensation and itchiness around her mouth. Despite using hydrocortisone cream, the rash has not improved significantly. On examination, you observe a bilateral perioral papular eruption consisting of 4-5 clusters of 1-2 mm papules with sparing of the vermillion border. What would be the most suitable next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Hydrocortisone is the most appropriate treatment for this patient’s perioral dermatitis, as it is a milder steroid compared to other options. Stronger steroids can worsen the condition with prolonged use. While using only emollients is not unreasonable, it may not provide complete relief within a reasonable timeframe. It is also recommended to minimize the use of skin products. Fusidic acid is typically used for localized impetigo, but it is not suitable for this patient as there are no signs of golden-crusted lesions.

      Understanding Periorificial Dermatitis

      Periorificial dermatitis is a skin condition that is commonly observed in women between the ages of 20 and 45 years old. The use of topical corticosteroids, and to a lesser extent, inhaled corticosteroids, is often linked to the development of this condition. The symptoms of periorificial dermatitis include the appearance of clustered erythematous papules, papulovesicles, and papulopustules, which are typically found in the perioral, perinasal, and periocular regions. However, the skin immediately adjacent to the vermilion border of the lip is usually spared.

      When it comes to managing periorificial dermatitis, it is important to note that steroids may actually worsen the symptoms. Instead, the condition should be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics. By understanding the features and management of periorificial dermatitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to address this condition and improve their skin health.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 57 - A 47-year-old patient complains of pruritic lesions on the soles of their feet...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old patient complains of pruritic lesions on the soles of their feet that have persisted for the last two months. Upon examination, small blisters are observed, accompanied by dry and cracked skin in the surrounding area. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pompholyx

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pompholyx Eczema

      Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.

      To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 58 - A 72-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a 6-week history of an...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a 6-week history of an itchy rash. The rash appeared on the medial and anterior aspects of the thigh and the trunk. It consisted of numerous small fluid-filled vesicles and a number of larger lesions measuring 2-3 cm, filled with serous fluid. Many of the lesions have burst, leaving erosions.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bullous pemphigoid

      Explanation:

      Common Blistering Skin Conditions: Causes and Symptoms

      Blisters on the skin can be caused by various conditions, each with their own unique symptoms. Here are some common blistering skin conditions and their characteristics:

      1. Bullous pemphigoid: This autoimmune disorder results in blisters that are tense and do not rupture easily. They are usually symmetrical and appear on the trunk and limbs, with the mouth being affected in some cases.

      2. Dermatitis herpetiformis: This condition causes intensely itchy vesicles on the elbows, knees, and buttocks. It is associated with gluten intolerance and coeliac disease, and can be controlled by excluding gluten from the diet.

      3. Bullous impetigo: This superficial infection is caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus spp. and results in a golden-crusted eruption on a red base. Occasionally, a toxin produced by the organism can cause a blister.

      4. Scabies: This condition causes itchy papules and burrows of the scabies mite on the finger webs, elbows, ankles, axillae, and genitalia. In rare cases, it can cause blistering. Norwegian (crusted) scabies is a severe form that occurs in immunosuppressed individuals.

      5. Vesicular insect bite eruption: Insect bites can occasionally result in tense blisters on a wheal at the site of the bite. They are usually short-lived and accompanied by itching.

      If you experience blistering skin, it is important to seek medical attention to determine the underlying cause and receive appropriate treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 59 - Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old girl with a burn from a sparkler on her forearm.
      Select from the list the single statement regarding the management of burns that is correct.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full thickness burns are associated with loss of sensation on palpation of the affected area

      Explanation:

      Management of Burn Injuries

      Burn injuries can cause thermal damage and inflammation, which can be reduced by cooling the affected area with water at 15oC. However, ice-cold water should be avoided as it can cause vasospasm and further ischaemia. Sensation and capillary refill should be assessed at initial presentation, as full thickness burns are insensitive. Silver sulfadiazine has not been proven to prevent infection. Epidermal burns are characterized by erythema, while larger or awkwardly positioned blisters should be aspirated under aseptic technique to prevent bursting and infection. De-roofing blisters should not be routinely done.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 60 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a red rash on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a red rash on his face. He sustained a cut on his forehead while playing basketball. During the examination, it is observed that the redness is spreading towards his eye, and he has a temperature of 37.9ºC. The patient has no known allergies to any medication.

      What would be the most suitable medication to prescribe in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin + clavulanic acid

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of cellulitis around the eyes or nose, the recommended antibiotic is co-amoxiclav, which is a combination of amoxicillin and clavulanic acid. This is because amoxicillin alone doesn’t provide sufficient coverage against the broad spectrum of bacteria that can cause facial cellulitis, which can lead to serious complications such as orbital involvement. Doxycycline is not the first-line medication for this condition, but may be considered if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Erythromycin is another option for penicillin-allergic patients, but it doesn’t offer the same broad coverage as co-amoxiclav.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

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  • Question 61 - An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents with sudden onset erythema of the face. Both cheeks are affected as is the bridge of the nose. The erythema began in the paranasal areas and has spread to both cheeks rapidly. The affected area is bright red, firm, swollen and painful. The edge of the erythema is sharply defined and raised. She has been feeling hot and has been shivering. No other symptoms are reported.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erysipelas

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erysipelas

      Erysipelas is a condition that is typically diagnosed based on clinical symptoms. It usually comes on suddenly and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever. The condition is commonly found on the lower limbs or the face, with facial involvement often manifesting as a butterfly distribution on the cheeks and nasal bridge. The affected skin is characterized by a sharp, well-defined raised border and is bright red, firm, and swollen. In severe cases, dimpling, blistering, and necrosis can occur. While cellulitis shares some clinical features with erysipelas, it doesn’t demonstrate the same clear swelling. Erysipelas is predominantly caused by Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.

      Other conditions that can cause skin flushing and redness include carcinoid syndrome, mitral stenosis, rosacea, and systemic lupus erythematosus. Carcinoid syndrome is associated with neuroendocrine tumors that produce hormones, while mitral stenosis can cause a malar flush across the cheeks. Rosacea is a skin condition that affects the face and causes redness and blushing, while systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune condition that can have multi-organ involvement and is characterized by a photosensitive malar butterfly rash.

      Overall, the sudden onset and associated fever make erysipelas the most likely diagnosis based on the information provided.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 62 - A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of a dry, pruritic...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of a dry, pruritic rash affecting the lower arms and thighs.

      What is the most appropriate initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patch testing to ascertain contact allergen

      Explanation:

      Asteatotic Eczema and Xerotic Skin in the Elderly

      Asteatotic eczema is a common problem that often affects the elderly population. This condition can be improved with the use of plain emollients. Xerotic skin is also common in the elderly, particularly during the winter months when central heating can cause dryness. While other treatments may be necessary for patients who do not respond to emollients, these moisturizers should be the first line of defense against asteatotic eczema and xerotic skin. By using emollients regularly, patients can help to keep their skin hydrated and healthy.

      Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these common skin conditions in the elderly and to recommend appropriate treatments to help manage symptoms and improve quality of life. By addressing asteatotic eczema and xerotic skin early on, healthcare providers can help to prevent more serious complications from developing.

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  • Question 63 - A 52-year-old woman presents with a deterioration of her psoriasis.

    She is known to...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents with a deterioration of her psoriasis.

      She is known to suffer with chronic plaque psoriasis and in the past has suffered with extensive disease. On reviewing her notes she was recently started on a new tablet by her consultant psychiatrist.

      Which if the following tablets is the most likely cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis Triggers and Medications

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can be triggered or worsened by various factors. One of the triggers is a streptococcal infection, which can cause guttate psoriasis. Stress, cigarette smoking, and alcohol consumption are also known to be implicated in the development of psoriasis. In addition, certain medications have been identified as potential triggers, including lithium, indomethacin, chloroquine, NSAIDs, and beta-blockers. Among these medications, lithium is considered the most likely culprit. It is important for individuals with psoriasis to be aware of these triggers and to avoid them whenever possible to manage their condition effectively.

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  • Question 64 - You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a GP practice, and your next patient is a 40-year-old male. You note he was seen one week ago by a colleague who made a diagnosis of psoriasis on account of scaly, red patches on the scalp and elbows.

      He presents today to tell you that 'the rash has spread to the nails'. On examination, you note pitting and discoloration of the nails. He complains of pain and tenderness in the affected nails.

      What is the most appropriate option from the below to manage his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benzydamine mouthwash

      Explanation:

      For managing the symptoms of oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash can be used as a locally-acting non-steroidal anti-inflammatory. In severe cases, systemic steroids or topical steroids can also be considered. It is important to note that sodium lauryl sulphate, a common ingredient in healthcare products, may be associated with aphthous ulceration in certain patients. Chlorhexidine and hydrogen peroxide mouthwashes are primarily used for oral hygiene and not for addressing oral discomfort.

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.

      Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 65 - An 80-year-old man presents with a lesion on the right side of his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with a lesion on the right side of his nose that has been gradually increasing in size over the past few months. Upon examination, you notice a raised, circular, flesh-colored lesion with a central depression. The edges of the lesion are rolled and contain some telangiectasia.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A basal cell carcinoma is a commonly observed type of skin cancer.

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma

      Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.

      If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.

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  • Question 66 - A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of 'pale skin' on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 67 - A 35-year-old woman has developed a polymorphic eruption over the dorsa of both...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has developed a polymorphic eruption over the dorsa of both hands and feet. The lesions started 2 days ago and she now has some lesions on the arms and legs. Individual lesions are well-demarcated red macules or small urticarial plaques. Some lesions have a small blister or crusting in the centre, which seems darker than the periphery.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that typically begins with lesions on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and the palms and soles may also be involved. The initial lesions are red or pink macules that become raised papules and gradually enlarge to form plaques up to 2-3 cm in diameter. The center of a lesion darkens in color and may develop blistering or crusting. The typical target lesion of erythema multiforme has a sharp margin, regular round shape, and three concentric color zones. Atypical targets may show just two zones and/or an indistinct border. The rash is polymorphous, meaning it can take many forms, and lesions may be at various stages of development. The rash usually fades over 2-4 weeks, but recurrences are common. In more severe cases, there may be blistering of mucous membranes, which can be life-threatening. Some consider erythema multiforme to be part of a spectrum of disease that includes Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, while others argue that it should be classified separately as it is associated with infections rather than certain drugs.

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  • Question 68 - Sophie is a 26-year-old female who presents with a new rash that has...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 26-year-old female who presents with a new rash that has appeared over the past few weeks in both axillae. The rash is itchy but not painful, and Sophie is otherwise healthy.

      During the examination, you observe a lesion in both axillae that appears slightly red and glazed. Upon further examination, you discover another smaller lesion at the gluteal cleft. There are no joint abnormalities or nail changes.

      Based on your observations, you suspect that Sophie has flexural psoriasis. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence a moderately potent topical steroid for 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Flexural psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes itchy lesions in areas such as the groin, genital area, axillae, and other folds of the body. In this case, the erythema is mild and the lesions are not extensive, indicating a mild case of flexural psoriasis. According to NICE guidelines, a short-term application of a mild- or moderately-potent topical corticosteroid preparation (once or twice daily) for up to two weeks is recommended. Therefore, starting a potent topical steroid or using a mildly potent topical steroid for four weeks is not appropriate.

      To reduce scale and relieve itch, an emollient can be used. However, vitamin D analogues are not prescribed for flexural psoriasis in primary care. After four weeks, the patient should be reviewed. If there is a good initial response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids can be used to maintain disease control.

      If treatment fails or the psoriasis is at least moderately severe, referral to a dermatologist should be arranged.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 69 - You are assessing a patient with chronic plaque psoriasis. Previously, a combination of...

    Incorrect

    • You are assessing a patient with chronic plaque psoriasis. Previously, a combination of beclomethasone and calcipotriol was attempted but proved ineffective. Subsequently, calcipotriol monotherapy was prescribed twice daily, but this also failed to alleviate symptoms. The patient, who is in his mid-thirties, presents with plaques measuring approximately 6-7 cm on his elbows and knees. According to NICE guidelines, what are the two most suitable options to discuss with him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beclomethasone twice a day OR a coal tar preparation

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 70 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a painful skin rash that started as circular lesions on his trunk and limbs and has now spread to his face, lips, and mouth. He also reports flu-like symptoms and headache. On examination, he has marked facial and lip swelling with crusty sores, blistering, and ulceration in the oral cavity, as well as an erythematous rash on the trunk with small vesicles and bullae. What medication is linked to this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but known negative effect of lamotrigine treatment. This skin condition typically manifests within a few days of starting the medication and can cause flu-like symptoms such as fever, malaise, myalgia, and arthralgia. Painful erythema with blisters or ulcers is a hallmark of the syndrome, which can progress to areas of confluent erythema with skin loss. Mucosal involvement is also common, affecting the eyes, lips, mouth, oesophagus, upper respiratory tract (causing cough and respiratory distress), genitalia, and gastrointestinal tract (resulting in diarrhoea).

      Other drugs, such as aspirin, macrolides, opiates, and cyclosporin, can also cause drug rashes. Exanthematous eruptions are a common type of drug rash, characterised by pink-to-red macules that blanch on pressure.

      Urticaria and erythema multiforme are other types of drug-related rashes. Aspirin and anticonvulsants are associated with erythema multiforme, which typically presents as spot or target lesions and doesn’t involve mucosal tissues.

      Lamotrigine is a medication that is primarily used as an antiepileptic drug. It is typically prescribed as a second-line treatment for a range of generalised and partial seizures. The drug works by blocking sodium channels in the body, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures.

      Despite its effectiveness in treating seizures, lamotrigine can also cause a number of adverse effects. One of the most serious of these is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but potentially life-threatening skin condition. Other possible side effects of the drug include dizziness, headache, nausea, and blurred vision. It is important for patients taking lamotrigine to be aware of these potential risks and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 71 - A 25-year-old student presents to the walk-in centre complaining of intense itching. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents to the walk-in centre complaining of intense itching. He says that this is worse at night and after showering. On examination he has extensive scratch marks and papules on his trunk and limbs. In the finger web spaces and on the wrists are a few 0.5cm irregular grey lines. He has no previous medical history of note and takes no regular medication.
      Select the most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Scabies, Dermatitis Artefacta, Nodular Prurigo, Pemphigus Vulgaris, and Pompholyx are all skin conditions with distinct symptoms and characteristics.

      Scabies is caused by a mite that burrows under the skin, causing intense itching and papules, vesicles, pustules, and nodules. The finger web space lines are mite burrows. It is acquired through person-to-person contact and can live off the host for up to 36 hours.

      Dermatitis Artefacta, on the other hand, is a condition where the patient produces lesions through their own actions. These lesions may include red patches, swelling, blisters, crusts, cuts, burns, and scars. They do not itch and may have a bizarre shape or linear arrangement.

      Nodular Prurigo is characterized by very itchy firm scaly nodules that occur mainly on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. They tend to persist over time and may lessen in severity with treatment.

      Pemphigus Vulgaris involves painful flaccid bullae and erosions that may be widespread and involve mucous membranes. It is not itchy.

      Finally, Pompholyx involves the hands and feet and is usually symmetrical. It is characterized by itching and burning, and vesiculation initially along the lateral aspects of the fingers and then on the palms or soles. Vesicles tend to resolve after about 3-4 weeks, but recurrences are common.

      Overall, these skin conditions have distinct symptoms and characteristics that can help with diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 72 - What is the most potent topical steroid used for treating dermatological conditions? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most potent topical steroid used for treating dermatological conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Locoid (hydrocortisone butyrate 0.1%)

      Explanation:

      Topical Steroid Potencies: Understanding the Differences

      Topical steroids are commonly used in general practice to treat various skin conditions. However, it is crucial to understand the relative potencies of these medications to prescribe them safely and effectively.

      Dermovate is the most potent topical steroid, classified as very potent. Betnovate and hydrocortisone butyrate are both considered potent, while eumovate falls under the moderate potency category. Hydrocortisone 1% is classified as mild.

      To gain a better understanding of topical steroid potencies, the British National Formulary provides a helpful overview. By knowing the differences between these medications, healthcare professionals can prescribe the appropriate treatment for their patients’ skin conditions.

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  • Question 73 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her father, reporting a rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the clinic with her father, reporting a rash on her ears that has been present for 3 days. They have just returned from a trip to Mexico. The girl complains of itchiness and discomfort. She has not experienced any fever or respiratory symptoms recently. On examination, small blisters are observed on the helix of both ears, while the rest of her skin appears normal. The patient has no prior medical history.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juvenile spring eruption

      Explanation:

      Juvenile spring eruption (JSE) is a skin condition that typically affects boys aged 5-14 years during the spring season. It is caused by sun exposure and appears as a blistering rash on the ears, causing discomfort and itchiness. The recent holiday to Tenerife suggests a possible risk factor for this condition. Treatment involves using emollients and antihistamines, and symptoms usually resolve within a week.

      The rash associated with Chickenpox starts as red macules that become raised, blister, and crust over time. It is often accompanied by cold-like symptoms and fever and tends to be more widespread, affecting the trunk and limbs. This rash typically lasts for 4-10 days. However, since the patient has a 2-day history of a blistering rash isolated to the ears, Chickenpox is an unlikely diagnosis.

      Given the patient’s short history, the characteristic rash, and the absence of any relevant medical history, eczema is an unlikely possibility.

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis is a skin condition that is commonly seen in middle-aged or elderly patients. It is characterized by small skin-colored nodules that typically appear on the helix of the ear.

      Understanding Juvenile Spring Eruption

      Juvenile spring eruption is a skin condition that occurs as a result of sun exposure. It is a type of polymorphic light eruption (PLE) that causes itchy red bumps on the light-exposed parts of the ears, which can turn into blisters and crusts. This condition is more common in boys aged between 5-14 years, and it is less common in females due to increased amounts of hair covering the ears.

      The main cause of juvenile spring eruption is sun-induced allergy rash, which is more likely to occur in the springtime. Some patients may also have PLE elsewhere on the body, and there is an increased incidence in cold weather. The diagnosis of this condition is usually made based on clinical presentation, and no clinical tests are required in most cases. However, in aggressive cases, lupus should be ruled out by ANA and ENA blood tests.

      The management of juvenile spring eruption involves providing patient education on sun exposure and the use of sunscreen and hats. Topical treatments such as emollients or calamine lotion can be used to provide relief, and antihistamines can help with itch relief at night-time. In more serious cases, oral steroids such as prednisolone can be used, as well as immune-system suppressants.

      In conclusion, understanding juvenile spring eruption is important for proper diagnosis and management. By taking preventative measures and seeking appropriate treatment, patients can manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 74 - A 7-year-old boy is seen complaining of verrucas.
    Which of the following statements about...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is seen complaining of verrucas.
      Which of the following statements about treatment of verrucas is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Untreated verrucas often resolve spontaneously

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatments for Plantar Warts: A Guide

      Plantar warts, also known as verrucas, are notoriously difficult to treat due to their thick cornified layer. This layer makes it harder for treatments to penetrate to the lower epidermis, resulting in lower cure rates compared to other skin warts. However, there are several effective treatments available.

      First-line treatment for plantar warts is over-the-counter salicylic acid. While this treatment can turn the affected area white and cause soreness, it is often effective. Paring the wart before treatment may also help. Glutaraldehyde is another effective option, but it may turn the skin brown and cause sensitization.

      Cryotherapy is a second-line treatment that involves freezing the wart with liquid nitrogen. However, multiple cycles may be needed for it to be effective. Reported cure rates vary widely.

      For more aggressive treatment, salicylic acid and/or cryotherapy can be used with more intensive regimens. However, caution is needed as these treatments can have worse side effects.

      Surgery and bleomycin are not typically used for plantar warts. Instead, the British Association of Dermatologists recommends several other treatments with some evidence base, including dithranol, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), formaldehyde, laser, photodynamic therapy, topical immunotherapy, and podophyllotoxin.

      In conclusion, while plantar warts can be challenging to treat, there are several effective options available. Consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for your individual case.

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  • Question 75 - A 54-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a new patient health check....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old lady comes to your clinic for a new patient health check. While conducting the examination, you observe an 8 mm pigmented lesion on her back. She informs you that she had no knowledge of the lesion. The lesion has a uniform pigmentation and a regular outline. It is dry and inflamed, but appears distinct from all of her other moles on her back. She also mentions that her brother was recently diagnosed with melanoma.
      What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monitor for eight weeks

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral Needed for Suspicious Lesion

      This lesion on the patient’s skin may be a melanoma, and there are several clinical concerns that warrant urgent referral. Firstly, the lesion appears to be new and is greater than 7 mm in diameter. Additionally, there is a family history of melanoma, and the lesion is inflamed. It is important to be aware of the ugly duckling sign, which refers to a pigmented lesion that looks different from the surrounding ones.

      Given the patient’s age and family history, she is at high risk of melanoma and should be referred urgently to a dermatologist. It is important to note that excision in primary care should be avoided, as the guidance for excising lesions in primary care may differ depending on the country. Prompt referral and evaluation by a specialist is crucial in cases like this to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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  • Question 76 - A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He is currently taking multiple medications.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of his allergic reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Urticarial Eruption

      Urticaria, commonly known as hives, is a skin condition characterized by itchy, raised, and red welts. One of the most likely causes of an urticarial eruption is aspirin. However, other drugs are also frequently associated with this condition, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), penicillin, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, thiazides, and codeine. It is important to identify the underlying cause of urticaria to prevent further episodes and manage symptoms effectively.

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  • Question 77 - A 16-year-old girl comes to you with acne. Upon examination, you observe several...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to you with acne. Upon examination, you observe several whiteheads and blackheads, but no facial scarring. The patient expresses interest in treatment. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical retinoid

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of mild acne, the NICE guidance recommends starting with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide. This is particularly appropriate for boys. However, if the patient is female, a combined oral contraceptive may be prescribed instead of a retinoid due to the teratogenic effects of retinoids. Mild acne is characterized by the presence of blackheads, whiteheads, papules, and pustules. While scarring is unlikely, the condition can have a significant psychosocial impact. If topical retinoids and benzoyl peroxide are poorly tolerated, azelaic acid may be prescribed. Combined treatment is rarely necessary. Follow-up should be arranged after 6-8 weeks to assess the effectiveness and tolerability of treatment and the patient’s compliance.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 78 - A 68-year-old man has a well-demarcated, raised, tender, erythematous area on his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man has a well-demarcated, raised, tender, erythematous area on his left shin. It has appeared in the last 48 hours. His temperature is 38.5 °C. The left lower leg has evidence of varicose skin changes and excoriation.
      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Cellulitis: Streptococcus, Staphylococcus, Herpes Simplex Virus, Pseudomonas, and Varicella Zoster Virus

      Cellulitis is a common skin infection that is characterized by a red, tender area of skin associated with a fever. The most common pathogen causing cellulitis is streptococcus, which can enter the body through excoriated skin. Staphylococcus can also cause cellulitis, but it is less common than streptococcus. Herpes simplex virus typically causes cold sores or genital warts, and can be inoculated into abrasions, but this would produce a vesicular rash. Pseudomonas is not a common pathogen in cellulitis, but can occur following puncture wounds or in immunocompromised people. Varicella zoster virus causes Chickenpox and shingles, but neither of these descriptions are seen in cellulitis. Understanding the different causes of cellulitis can help with proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 79 - A 25-year-old male presents with a new skin rash, which appeared during his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents with a new skin rash, which appeared during his summer vacation spent hiking. He displays several pale brown patches on his neck, upper back, and chest. The patches seem slightly flaky but are not causing any discomfort. He is generally healthy. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by an overgrowth of Malassezia yeast, which commonly affects young males. It results in multiple patches of discolored skin, mainly on the trunk, which can appear pale brown, pink, or depigmented. The condition often occurs after exposure to humid, sunny environments.

      According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for pityriasis versicolor is either ketoconazole shampoo applied topically for five days or selenium sulphide shampoo for seven days (off-label indication). While topical antifungal creams like clotrimazole are effective, they are not typically used as first-line treatment unless the affected area is small due to their higher cost.

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

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  • Question 80 - A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head of his penis. He mentions that they have always been present and have not changed in any way. The patient confirms that he is not sexually active and has never had any sexual partners.

      During the examination, the GP observes several flesh-coloured papules on the corona of the penis. The GP diagnoses the patient with pearly penile papules.

      What is the most important advice the GP can offer the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pearly penile papules are benign and do not need to be investigated

      Explanation:

      Pearly penile papules are a common and harmless occurrence that do not require any medical intervention. These small bumps, typically measuring 1-2 mm in size, are found around the corona of the penis and are not a cause for concern. Although patients may worry about their appearance, they are asymptomatic and do not indicate any underlying health issues.

      It is important to note that pearly penile papules are not caused by any sexually transmitted infections, and therefore, routine sexual health screenings are not necessary. Screening should only be conducted if there is a genuine concern or suspicion of an infection. Typically, sexual health initiatives target individuals between the ages of 18 and 25.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

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  • Question 81 - You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter an 18-year-old student with acne on his face, chest, and shoulders. He presents with papules and pustules accompanied by widespread inflammation. Additionally, he has nodules and scarring on his chin. After diagnosing him with moderate-severe acne, you decide to refer him to dermatology while initiating treatment. Your treatment plan includes prescribing a topical retinoid and an oral antibiotic. What is the first-line antibiotic for acne vulgaris?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Tetracyclines are the preferred oral antibiotics for treating moderate to severe acne vulgaris. This condition is a common reason for patients to visit their GP and can significantly impact their quality of life.

      To address this patient’s acne and scarring, it would be appropriate to initiate a topical treatment and prescribe an oral antibiotic. Referral to a dermatologist may also be necessary, but first-line treatment may be effective.

      Tetracyclines are the recommended first-line oral antibiotics for acne vulgaris. All tetracyclines are licensed for this indication, and there is no evidence to suggest that one is more effective than another. The choice of specific tetracycline should be based on individual preference and cost.

      Tetracycline and oxytetracycline are typically prescribed at a dose of 500 mg twice daily on an empty stomach. Doxycycline and lymecycline are taken once daily and can be taken with food, although doxycycline may cause photosensitivity.

      Minocycline is not recommended for acne treatment, and erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines if they are contraindicated. The usual dose for erythromycin is 500 mg twice daily.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

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  • Question 82 - A 35-year-old female patient comes to you with circular patches of non-scarring hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient comes to you with circular patches of non-scarring hair loss on her scalp that have developed in the last 3 months. You diagnose her with alopecia areata. Although you suggest a watch-and-wait approach, she is distressed by the condition and wishes to try treatment. What management options could you initiate in Primary Care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid

      Explanation:

      Patients with hair loss may experience natural recovery within a year, but those who do not see regrowth or have more than 50% hair loss may require further treatment.

      Understanding Alopecia Areata

      Alopecia areata is a condition that is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response, resulting in localized hair loss that is well-defined and demarcated. This condition is characterized by the presence of small, broken hairs that resemble exclamation marks at the edge of the hair loss. While hair regrowth occurs in about 50% of patients within a year, it eventually occurs in 80-90% of patients. In many cases, a careful explanation of the condition is sufficient for patients. However, there are several treatment options available, including topical or intralesional corticosteroids, topical minoxidil, phototherapy, dithranol, contact immunotherapy, and wigs. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for alopecia areata to effectively manage this condition.

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  • Question 83 - A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother,...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother, who has observed an atypical rash on her son's abdomen. On the upper abdomen, there is a group of approximately 12 pearly white papules with a central depression, with each lesion measuring around 3-5 mm in size. There is no discomfort or itching. What self-care recommendations should be provided, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected people

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 84 - A 58-year-old patient comes to the dermatology clinic with a three-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old patient comes to the dermatology clinic with a three-month history of skin discoloration on their back. During the examination, you notice patchy areas of mild hypopigmentation that cover large portions of the back. Based on your observations, you suspect that the patient has pityriasis versicolor. What organism is most likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malassezia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.

      Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.

      In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 85 - A 32-year-old Caucasian woman with a history of type 1 diabetes presents for...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old Caucasian woman with a history of type 1 diabetes presents for review. She has just returned from a summer holiday in Spain and has noticed some patches on her limbs that do not appear to have tanned. Otherwise the skin in these patches appears normal.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Understanding Vitiligo: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options

      Vitiligo is a skin condition that results in the loss of melanocyte function, leading to areas of depigmentation on the skin. It is believed to be an autoimmune disorder and is often associated with other autoimmune diseases. While it affects around 0.4% of the Caucasian population, it can be more distressing for those with darker skin tones. Symptoms include patches of skin that fail to tan, particularly during the summer months.

      Treatment options for vitiligo include using strong protection on affected areas and using potent topical corticosteroids for up to two months to stimulate repigmentation. However, these should not be used on the face or during pregnancy. Hospital referral may be necessary if more than 10% of the body is involved, and treatment may include topical calcineurin inhibitors or phototherapy.

      It is important to differentiate vitiligo from other skin conditions such as pityriasis versicolor, lichen sclerosus, psoriasis, and chloasma. Macules and patches are flat, while papules and plaques are raised. A lesion becomes a patch or a plaque when it is greater than 2 cm across.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for vitiligo can help individuals manage this condition and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 86 - A 60-year-old man presents with a painful rash consisting of erythematous, swollen plaques...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with a painful rash consisting of erythematous, swollen plaques with clusters of small vesicles. These are present in a band on the left side of the body extending from the lower dorsal area of the back around the front of the abdomen but not crossing the midline. The rash has been present for 48 hours.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe for a patient presenting at this stage of the illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Herpes Zoster (Shingles)

      Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, is a viral infection that affects a specific dermatome. It is recommended to start antiviral treatment, such as aciclovir, within 72 hours of rash onset for individuals over 50 years old. Aciclovir has been shown to reduce the duration of symptoms and the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia. It is also indicated for those with ophthalmic herpes zoster, non-truncal rash, moderate to severe pain or rash, and immunocompromised individuals. Prednisolone may be added to aciclovir, but results are mixed. Pain relief can be achieved with co-codamol, but stronger medications may be necessary. Amitriptyline or gabapentin may be used for post-herpetic neuralgia. Antiviral treatment is not recommended for immunocompetent children with mild symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 87 - A 27-year-old male visits his GP after experiencing 3 episodes of prickling sensations...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male visits his GP after experiencing 3 episodes of prickling sensations in his left arm accompanied by involuntary jerking, lasting for a minute each time. He remains conscious during the episodes. The patient has a history of asthma and a nut allergy but is not taking any regular medications. After being referred to a neurologist, he is diagnosed with focal epilepsy and prescribed lamotrigine. What uncommon side effect should the patient be advised about, particularly in the initial 8 weeks of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lamotrigine therapy is associated with a rare but acknowledged adverse effect.

      Lamotrigine is a medication that is primarily used as an antiepileptic drug. It is typically prescribed as a second-line treatment for a range of generalised and partial seizures. The drug works by blocking sodium channels in the body, which helps to reduce the occurrence of seizures.

      Despite its effectiveness in treating seizures, lamotrigine can also cause a number of adverse effects. One of the most serious of these is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a rare but potentially life-threatening skin condition. Other possible side effects of the drug include dizziness, headache, nausea, and blurred vision. It is important for patients taking lamotrigine to be aware of these potential risks and to report any unusual symptoms to their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 88 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a complaint of a 'facial rash'. Upon examination, you note a blotchy, brownish pigmentation on both cheeks. She reports starting the combined oral contraceptive a few months ago and believes that her skin began to develop the pigmentation after starting the pill. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chloasma

      Explanation:

      Chloasma, also known as melasma, is a skin condition characterized by brown pigmentation that typically develops across the cheeks. It is more common in women and in people with darker skin, and commonly presents between the ages of 30-40. Hormonal contraceptives, pregnancy, sun exposure, and certain cosmetics are well-documented triggers for developing the condition.

      It is important to note that other conditions can cause facial rashes, but they would not fit into the description of chloasma. Acne rosacea causes papules and pustules, as well as facial flushing. Dermatomyositis causes a heliotrope rash across the face, eyelids, and light-exposed areas. Perioral dermatitis, also known as muzzle rash, causes papules that are usually seen around the mouth. Seborrhoeic dermatitis causes a scaling, flaky rash.

      Overall, chloasma is a common skin condition that can be triggered by hormonal changes and sun exposure.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 89 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a widespread rash. Upon examination, you notice numerous umbilicated papules all over his face, neck, trunk, and genitals. When squeezed, the lesions release a cheesy substance. Your diagnosis is molluscum contagiosum. What is the most crucial aspect of managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid application

      Explanation:

      Molluscum Contagiosum: Symptoms, Treatment, and Underlying Causes

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection caused by a DNA pox virus. It is characterized by small, dome-shaped papules with a central punctum that may appear umbilicated. Squeezing the lesions can release a cheesy material. While the infection usually resolves on its own within 12-18 months, patients may opt for treatment if they find the rash unsightly. Squeezing the lesions can speed up resolution.

      However, if a patient presents with hundreds of widespread lesions, it is important to investigate any underlying immunodeficiency problems. This may include conditions such as HIV/AIDS. Further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the extensive rash.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 90 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm nodule on the free border of the helix of his left ear. The nodule has been there for approximately six weeks and has a small amount of scale attached to its surface. He has trouble sleeping on that side of his head. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

      Explanation:

      Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Chronica Helicis: A Benign Tender Lump in the Ear Cartilage

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is a common condition characterized by a benign tender lump in the cartilaginous portion of the ear, specifically in the helix or antihelix. It is often caused by pressure between the head and pillow during sleep, particularly in individuals who predominantly sleep on one side. Minor trauma, exposure to cold, and tight headgear or telephone headsets can also trigger the condition.

      The lesion rarely resolves on its own and conservative measures such as using a soft pillow or sleeping on the opposite side may be attempted. Wearing a protective pressure-relieving device, using topical and intralesional steroids, or applying topical glyceryl trinitrate may also provide relief. Cryotherapy is sometimes used as well.

      Excision of the damaged cartilage area is often successful, but recurrence can occur at the edge of the excised area. The distinctive feature of chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is the associated pain and tenderness, which sets it apart from painless cutaneous tumors and non-tender actinic keratoses.

      It is important to note that tophi, which contain a white pasty material and are usually not painful or tender, typically develop around 10 years after the first attack of gout in untreated patients and are commonly found around the elbows, hands, and feet.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 91 - Which one of the following statements regarding the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is accurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the shingles vaccine (Zostavax) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is given subcutaneously

      Explanation:

      Varicella-Zoster Vaccination: Protection Against Chickenpox and Shingles

      Varicella-zoster is a herpesvirus that causes Chickenpox and shingles. There are two types of vaccines available to protect against these infections. The first type is a live attenuated vaccine that prevents primary varicella infection or Chickenpox. This vaccine is recommended for healthcare workers who are not immune to VZV and for individuals who are in close contact with immunocompromised patients.

      The second type of vaccine is designed to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster or shingles caused by reactivation of VZV. This live-attenuated vaccine is given subcutaneously and is offered to patients aged 70-79 years. The vaccine is also available as a catch-up campaign for those who missed out on their vaccinations in the previous two years of the program. However, the shingles vaccine is not available on the NHS to anyone aged 80 and over because it seems to be less effective in this age group.

      The main contraindication for both vaccines is immunosuppression. Side effects of the vaccines include injection site reactions, and less than 1 in 10,000 individuals may develop Chickenpox. It is important to note that vaccination is the most effective way to prevent varicella-zoster infections and their complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 92 - Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment is successful in around 90-95% of people

      Explanation:

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 93 - A 25-year-old patient with psoriasis presents with thick adherent scale on their torso....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient with psoriasis presents with thick adherent scale on their torso.

      You decide to treat with topical therapy.

      Which of the following formulations would be most appropriate for treating this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ointment

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Topical Treatment in Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects millions of people worldwide. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines on topical treatment for psoriasis. These guidelines take into account the patient’s preference and recommend the following:

      – For widespread psoriasis, use cream, lotion, or gel.
      – For scalp or hair-bearing areas, use a solution, lotion, or gel.
      – For thick adherent scale, use an ointment.

      It is important to note that these recommendations are not set in stone and may vary depending on the severity of the condition and the patient’s individual needs. Therefore, it is essential to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any treatment. By following these guidelines, patients can effectively manage their psoriasis symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 94 - A 68-year-old man is diagnosed with actinic keratoses on his left cheek and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is diagnosed with actinic keratoses on his left cheek and prescribed fluorouracil cream. Two weeks later he presents as the skin where he is applying treatment has become red and sore. On examination there is no sign of weeping or blistering. What is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continue fluorouracil cream + review in 1 week

      Explanation:

      Actinic keratoses, also known as solar keratoses, are skin lesions that develop due to prolonged exposure to the sun. These lesions are typically small, crusty, and scaly, and can appear in various colors such as pink, red, brown, or the same color as the skin. They are commonly found on sun-exposed areas like the temples of the head, and multiple lesions may be present.

      To manage actinic keratoses, prevention of further risk is crucial, such as avoiding sun exposure and using sun cream. Treatment options include a 2 to 3 week course of fluorouracil cream, which may cause redness and inflammation. Topical hydrocortisone may be given to help settle the inflammation. Topical diclofenac is another option for mild AKs, with moderate efficacy and fewer side-effects. Topical imiquimod has shown good efficacy in trials. Cryotherapy and curettage and cautery are also available as treatment options.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 95 - As a salaried GP working in a GP surgery, you recently had a...

    Incorrect

    • As a salaried GP working in a GP surgery, you recently had a consultation with a 75-year-old man who presented with an unsightly left hallux toenail. The nail was thickened and had a yellowish tinge, leading you to suspect a fungal toenail infection. After arranging nail scrapings and sending them off to the laboratory for analysis, the results have returned positive for Trichophyton rubrum. You call the patient to discuss the results and he is eager to know what treatment options are available.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine, taken once daily for 3-6 months

      Explanation:

      Fungal toenail infections caused by Trichophyton rubrum are challenging to treat and require extended courses of oral antifungal medication. Terbinafine is the preferred option and treatment usually lasts for 3-6 months. However, terbinafine can have harmful effects on the liver, so liver function tests should be conducted regularly during treatment. Oral itraconazole is another option, but it is typically used for fungal nail infections caused by yeasts and given as pulsed therapy. Topical creams are not effective for treating fungal toenail infections. In this case, the patient’s asymptomatic fungal toenail doesn’t require urgent surgical removal. A podiatrist referral may be considered if the patient has a high-risk foot or difficulty caring for their nails, but an urgent referral is not necessary.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 96 - A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on her back that has grown quickly over the past few months. She has a history of frequent sunbed use. The lesion measures 9.5 mm in diameter. She is referred to Dermatology, where a diagnosis of malignant melanoma is confirmed.
      What characteristic of the lesion would indicate the worst prognosis for this disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breslow thickness > 3 mm

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors for Malignant Melanoma

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be staged based on several prognostic factors. The Breslow thickness, measured in millimetres from the dermo-epidermal junction, is a key factor. A thickness greater than 3.5 mm is associated with a poor prognosis, while a thickness less than 1.5 mm has a 5-year survival rate of over 90%. The diameter of the melanoma, however, has not been found to be a significant factor.

      Clarke’s level is another important factor, measured from I to IV based on the level of invasion through the dermis. A Clarke’s level of I indicates that the melanoma has not invaded past the basement membrane, which is associated with a better outcome for the patient.

      Microsatellite metastases, which are cutaneous metastases around the primary melanoma, can increase the TNM staging score and result in a worse prognosis. Therefore, the lack of microsatellite metastasis is a positive prognostic factor.

      Surface ulceration, or the presence of an open sore on the skin, is a poor prognostic indicator and is accounted for in TNM scoring. The absence of surface ulceration is a positive factor for the patient’s prognosis.

      Overall, these factors can help predict the prognosis for patients with malignant melanoma and guide treatment decisions.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 97 - Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about in Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)

      The Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI) is a commonly used tool to evaluate the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It consists of 10 questions, each scored out of 3, with a maximum score of 30. The higher the score, the more significant the impact on the patient’s quality of life. The DLQI covers six areas, including symptoms and feelings, daily activities, leisure, work and school, personal relationships, and treatment.

      The DLQI questions are designed to assess the level of discomfort, embarrassment, and interference with daily activities caused by the skin condition. Patients are asked to rate the severity of symptoms such as itchiness, soreness, and pain, as well as the impact on social and leisure activities, work or study, and personal relationships. The DLQI also evaluates the impact of treatment on the patient’s life.

      Interpreting the DLQI scores is straightforward. A score of 0-1 indicates no effect on the patient’s life, while a score of 2-5 suggests a small impact. A score of 6-10 indicates a moderate effect, while a score of 11-20 suggests a very large impact. A score of 21-30 indicates an extremely large impact on the patient’s life.

      In summary, the DLQI is a quick and easy tool to assess the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It provides valuable information to healthcare professionals to tailor treatment plans and improve patient outcomes.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 98 - A woman who is 29 years old and 9 weeks pregnant visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 29 years old and 9 weeks pregnant visits her GP complaining of an eczematous rash on the flexures of her arms and neck, which has been present for 3 weeks and shows signs of excoriation.

      What could be the probable reason for the rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atopic eruption of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The most commonly occurring skin disorder during pregnancy is atopic eruption of pregnancy. This condition usually starts in the first or second trimester and is characterized by a widespread eczematous eruption on the face, neck, and flexural areas. The eruption can appear as eczematous patches or intact or excoriated papules. Other less common presentations include prurigo of pregnancy or pruritic folliculitis of pregnancy.

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is an autoimmune skin eruption that is associated with gluten sensitivity and is very itchy and vesicular. The lesions are typically found in the flexures of the elbow, dorsal forearms, knees, and buttocks. Immunofluorescence shows the deposition of IgA within the dermal papillae.

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy doesn’t cause a skin rash, but patients experience severe generalized pruritus mainly on the palms and soles. Excoriations may occur due to scratching.

      Pemphigoid gestationis is a rare condition that usually occurs later in pregnancy (second or third trimester) and is characterized by urticarial lesions or papules surrounding the umbilicus. Vesicles may also be present.

      Understanding Atopic Eruption of Pregnancy

      Atopic eruption of pregnancy (AEP) is a prevalent skin condition that occurs during pregnancy. It is characterized by a red, itchy rash that resembles eczema. Although it can be uncomfortable, AEP is not harmful to the mother or the baby. Fortunately, no specific treatment is required, and the rash usually disappears after delivery.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 99 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Despite returning from a recent trip to Italy, she complains of feeling constantly fatigued. During the examination, you notice a slightly raised red rash on the bridge of her nose and cheeks. Although she reports having stiff joints, there is no evidence of arthritis. You order some basic blood tests:

      Hb 12.5 g/dl
      Platelets 135 * 109/l
      WBC 3.5 * 109/l

      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Urea 3.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 80 µmol/l

      Free T4 11.8 pmol/l
      TSH 1.30 mu/l
      CRP 8 mg/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus

      Explanation:

      The presence of a malar rash, arthralgia, lethargy, and a history of mental health issues suggest a possible diagnosis of SLE. It is important to note that the CRP levels are usually within normal range in SLE, unlike the ESR.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus: A Multisystem Autoimmune Disorder

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a complex autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It typically develops in early adulthood and is more common in women and individuals of Afro-Caribbean descent. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.

      SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, as well as a discoid rash that is scaly, erythematous, and well-demarcated in sun-exposed areas. Other skin symptoms may include photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia.

      Musculoskeletal symptoms of SLE may include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis, while cardiovascular symptoms may include pericarditis and myocarditis. Respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis, and renal symptoms may include proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.

      Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, psychosis, and seizures. Overall, SLE is a complex and challenging condition that requires careful management and ongoing support.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 100 - A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to you with a painful verrucous lesion on his right heel. Upon removing the hard skin over the lesion with a scalpel, you notice some black pinpoint marks. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Viral wart

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Conditions

      Verrucae, also known as plantar warts, are thickened lesions found on the feet that can fuse together to form mosaic patterns. Pinpoint petechiae may be present, appearing as small black dots. Heel fissures are another common condition, caused by dry, thickened skin around the rim of the heel that cracks under pressure. Calluses and corns are also responses to friction and pressure, resulting in thickened areas of skin on the hands and feet. However, it is important to differentiate these benign lesions from malignant melanoma, particularly acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur on the soles or palms and presents as an enlarging pigmented patch. The ABCDE rule (Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving) can help identify potential melanomas.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 101 - A 20-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of facial acne....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of facial acne. On physical examination, it is noted that the majority of the lesions are closed and open comedones with very few inflamed lesions. What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adapalene

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Mild-to-Moderate Comedonal Acne

      Comedonal acne, characterized by blackheads and whiteheads, can be effectively treated with topical preparations. The first-line treatment is topical retinoids such as adapalene, tretinoin, or isotretinoin, followed by azelaic acid or benzoyl peroxide. While some initial redness and skin peeling may occur, this typically subsides over time. If excessive irritation occurs, treatment should be reduced or suspended until the reaction subsides. Adapalene is the preferred option due to its low irritation potential. Treatment should be applied once daily to all affected areas and continued until no new lesions appear. Topical retinoids are not recommended during pregnancy, and women of childbearing age should use effective contraception.

      Topical retinoids work by normalizing follicular keratinization, promoting comedone drainage, and inhibiting new comedone formation. They are also effective at treating inflammation by inhibiting microcomedone formation, as supported by evidence from placebo-controlled trials. In severe cases, manual extraction of sebum using a comedone extractor may be necessary, along with benzoyl peroxide for inflamed lesions. Topical antibiotics are ineffective against non-inflamed lesions, while systemic antibiotics are used for inflamed lesions and systemic retinoids for severe acne or treatment failures.

      Managing Comedonal Acne: Topical Treatment Options and Considerations

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 102 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a severe flare-up of hand eczema. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a severe flare-up of hand eczema. She has vesicular lesions on both hands, which are typical of bilateral pompholyx. The patient has been using Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate 0.05%) for a week, but her symptoms have not improved. You decide to prescribe Betnovate (betamethasone valerate 0.1%) for two weeks and then review her condition. According to the BNF guidelines, what is the appropriate amount of Betnovate to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30 g

      Explanation:

      Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment

      Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms. The potency of topical steroids varies, and the table below shows the different types of topical steroids by potency.

      To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the fingertip rule can be applied. One fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand. The table also provides the recommended number of FTUs per dose for different areas of the body.

      The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. The recommended amounts vary depending on the area of the body being treated.

      In summary, when using topical steroids for eczema treatment, it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls symptoms and to follow the recommended amounts for each area of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 103 - A 65-year-old female has been referred for management of a chronic ulcer above...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female has been referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:

      Right 0.98
      Left 0.98

      The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the most suitable approach to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compression bandaging

      Explanation:

      Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.

      The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 104 - Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy? ...

    Incorrect

    • Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10-20%

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 105 - A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old ex-farmer has well-controlled congestive cardiac failure and mild dementia. He points to a hard horn-like lesion sticking up from his left pinna for about 0.5 cm. It has a slightly indurated fleshy base.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate course of action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to secondary care

      Explanation:

      Cutaneous Horns and the Risk of Squamous Cell Carcinoma

      Cutaneous horns are hard, keratin-based growths that often occur on sun-damaged skin. Farmers and other outdoor workers are particularly at risk due to their increased sun exposure. While most cutaneous horns are benign, doctors should be cautious as they can be a sign of squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) at the base of the lesion. SCCs can metastasize, especially if they occur on the ear, so urgent referral for removal is necessary if an SCC is suspected.

      Although most cutaneous horns are caused by viral warts or seborrheic keratosis, up to 20% of lesions can be a sign of premalignant actinic keratoses or frank malignancy. Therefore, it is important for doctors to carefully evaluate any cutaneous horn and consider the possibility of SCC. While current guidelines discourage GPs from excising lesions suspected to be SCCs, urgent referral for removal is necessary to prevent metastasis and ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 106 - Which one of the following statements regarding acne vulgaris is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding acne vulgaris is inaccurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Beyond the age of 25 years acne vulgaris is more common in males

      Explanation:

      Females over the age of 25 years are more prone to acne.

      Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. The condition is characterized by the blockage of the pilosebaceous follicle with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. It is estimated that around 80-90% of teenagers are affected by acne, with 60% of them seeking medical advice. Moreover, acne may persist beyond adolescence, with 10-15% of females and 5% of males over 25 years old being affected.

      The pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is multifactorial, with several factors contributing to its development. One of the primary factors is follicular epidermal hyperproliferation, which leads to the formation of a keratin plug that obstructs the pilosebaceous follicle. Although androgen activity may control the sebaceous glands, levels are often normal in patients with acne. Another factor is the colonization of the anaerobic bacterium Propionibacterium acnes, which contributes to the inflammatory response. Inflammation is also a significant factor in the pathophysiology of acne vulgaris, leading to the formation of papules, pustules, and nodules.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 107 - A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial traumatic abrasion a month ago that never healed. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease. Examination reveals a 5cm ulcer over the left shin; it is superficial with an irregular border and slough in the base. There is mild pitting oedema and haemosiderin deposition bilaterally on the legs. The ipsilateral foot pulses are weakly palpable.
      Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: