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  • Question 1 - A 49-year-old female patient complains of loin pain and haematuria. Upon urine dipstick...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old female patient complains of loin pain and haematuria. Upon urine dipstick examination, the results show:
      Blood ++++
      Nitrites POS
      Leucocytes +++
      Protein ++
      Further urine culture reveals a Proteus infection, while an x-ray confirms the presence of a stag-horn calculus in the left renal pelvis. What is the probable composition of the renal stone?

      Your Answer: Struvite

      Explanation:

      Stag-horn calculi consist of struvite and develop in urine with high alkalinity, which is often caused by the presence of ammonia-producing bacteria.

      Types of Renal Stones and their Appearance on X-ray

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, are solid masses that form in the kidneys due to the accumulation of certain substances. There are different types of renal stones, each with a unique appearance on x-ray. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 40% of cases, and appear opaque on x-ray. Mixed calcium oxalate/phosphate stones and calcium phosphate stones also appear opaque and make up 25% and 10% of cases, respectively. Triple phosphate stones, which develop in alkaline urine and are composed of struvite, account for 10% of cases and appear opaque as well. Urate stones, which are radiolucent, make up 5-10% of cases. Cystine stones, which have a semi-opaque, ‘ground-glass’ appearance, are rare and only account for 1% of cases. Xanthine stones are the least common, accounting for less than 1% of cases, and are also radiolucent. Staghorn calculi, which involve the renal pelvis and extend into at least 2 calyces, are composed of triple phosphate and are more likely to develop in alkaline urine. Infections with Ureaplasma urealyticum and Proteus can increase the risk of their formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old retired teacher with advanced ovarian cancer is reviewed at home by...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old retired teacher with advanced ovarian cancer is reviewed at home by her General Practitioner (GP). Her daughter requested a home visit due to significant deterioration in her health over the past few days, and she is concerned that she can no longer meet her healthcare needs at home without assistance.
      During the consultation, the GP discusses considering hospice care for the patient.
      To be appropriate for hospice care management, a patient must:

      Your Answer: No longer be seeking curative treatment

      Explanation:

      Myths about Hospice Care: Debunked

      Hospice care is often misunderstood, leading to misconceptions about who can receive it and what it entails. Here are some common myths about hospice care debunked:

      Myth #1: Hospice care is only for patients with terminal cancer.
      Fact: Patients with any terminal diagnosis can seek hospice care, not just those with cancer. Commonly, patients with chronic lung disease, dementia, and neurodegenerative disorders benefit from hospice care.

      Myth #2: Patients must be bed-bound to receive hospice care.
      Fact: Mobility status does not affect admission to hospice. Patients in hospices often take part in activities and may be fully mobile.

      Myth #3: Patients must have a ‘do not resuscitate’ (DNACPR) decision to receive hospice care.
      Fact: Although most patients will have a DNACPR decision in a hospice, this is not a requirement.

      Myth #4: Patients must have uncontrolled pain to receive hospice care.
      Fact: While some patients may be admitted to a hospice for pain control, hospices are able to treat other symptoms, and pain control can be addressed in other settings, depending on the patient’s needs and wishes.

      Hospice care and palliative care both focus on quality of life care for the patient and address adjustment to illness and end-of-life issues. Both forms of care address pain and symptom control issues for patients. However, hospice care is for patients who are no longer actively seeking curative treatment and have a terminal diagnosis with a life expectancy of 6 months or less. In contrast, for palliative care treatment, patients may still be undergoing aggressive treatment and do not have to be terminally ill. It is important to understand the facts about hospice care to make informed decisions about end-of-life care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old male patient visits their GP complaining of abdominal pain and bloody...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient visits their GP complaining of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea that began six weeks ago. He has never experienced anything like this before and believes he may have lost some weight in the past three months. When asked about his family history, he mentions that his father was diagnosed with bowel cancer at the age of 30, and he remembers his grandfather having a stoma before he passed away when the patient was a child. The GP suspects bowel cancer and is concerned about a potential genetic abnormality. During colonoscopy, a large tumour is discovered in the ascending colon near the hepatic flexure, but the rest of the colonic mucosa appears normal. What is the most probable underlying genetic issue?

      Your Answer: Li-Fraumeni Syndrome (LFS)

      Correct Answer: Lynch Syndrome

      Explanation:

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) has a mutation in the APC gene and is characterized by over 100 colonic adenomas and a 100% cancer risk. MYH-associated polyposis has a biallelic mutation of the MYH gene and is associated with multiple colonic polyps and a 100% cancer risk by age 60. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome has a mutation in the STK11 gene and is characterized by multiple benign intestinal hamartomas and an increased risk of GI cancers. Cowden disease has a mutation in the PTEN gene and is associated with multiple intestinal hamartomas and an 89% risk of cancer at any site. HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) has germline mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes and is associated with a high risk of colorectal and endometrial cancer. Screening and management strategies vary for each syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with increasing early-morning bilateral knee pain and stiffness and generalised fatigue. On examination, she is noted to have flat erythema over the malar eminences with sparing of the nasolabial folds. Multiple painless oral ulcers are also noted. Examination of the knee joints reveals tenderness and suprapatellar effusions bilaterally.
      Which of these is most specific for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA)

      Correct Answer: Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythaematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease where the body produces autoantibodies against various antigens, leading to the formation of immune complexes that can deposit in different parts of the body, such as the kidneys. Symptoms of SLE include fatigue, joint pain, rash, and fever. Diagnosis of SLE requires the presence of at least four out of eleven criteria, including malar rash, discoid rash, photosensitivity, oral or nasopharyngeal ulceration, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, CNS disorders, haematological disorders, positive immunology, and positive ANA. Anti-double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibody is highly specific for SLE but only positive in 60% of patients. Other antibodies, such as anti-La antibodies, rheumatoid factor IgG, ANCA, and Scl70, are raised in other autoimmune diseases such as Sjögren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, and various vasculitides.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which option is not advised when managing compartment syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which option is not advised when managing compartment syndrome?

      Your Answer: Intravenous fluids

      Correct Answer: Anticoagulation

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome will be exacerbated by anticoagulation.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old female presents with a five day history of fever, cough and...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old female presents with a five day history of fever, cough and malaise. She recently returned from a holiday in southern Spain and has since developed a non-productive cough with chills that have worsened. The patient has a history of smoking 10 cigarettes per day but no other medical history. On examination, she has a temperature of 40°C, blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg, and a pulse of 106 bpm. Chest examination reveals inspiratory crackles at the left base only, with a respiratory rate of 28/min. Baseline investigations show haziness at the left base on CXR, Hb 128 g/L (115-165), WCC 5.5 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 210 ×109/L (150-400), Sodium 130 mmol/L (137-144), Potassium 3.8 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Creatinine 100 µmol/L (60-110), Urea 5.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Glucose 5.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Legionnaires disease

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires Disease: A Community-Acquired Pneumonia

      This patient’s medical history and symptoms suggest that they have contracted a community-acquired pneumonia. However, despite the obvious infection, their white cell count appears relatively normal, indicating that they may have an atypical pneumonia. Further investigation reveals that the patient recently traveled to Spain and is experiencing hyponatremia, which are both indicative of Legionnaires disease. This disease is caused by the Legionella pneumophila organism and is typically spread through infected water supplies, such as air conditioning systems.

      To diagnose Legionnaires disease, doctors typically look for the presence of urinary antigen before any rise in serum antibody titres. Fortunately, the organism is sensitive to macrolides and ciprofloxacin, which can be used to treat the disease. Overall, it is important for doctors to consider Legionnaire’s disease as a potential cause of community-acquired pneumonia, especially in patients with a recent history of travel and hyponatremia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 4-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office with a diffuse, blanching, erythematosus...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl comes to the doctor's office with a diffuse, blanching, erythematosus rash all over her trunk, arms, and legs. She has been running a fever and feeling generally cranky and tired for about a week. Additionally, she has been experiencing abdominal discomfort for the past few days. During the examination, the doctor notices that the skin on her palms and soles is peeling, and her tongue is red with a white coating. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease can be identified by a combination of symptoms, including a high fever lasting more than five days, red palms with peeling skin, and a strawberry tongue. If a fever lasts for more than five days and is accompanied by desquamation and strawberry tongue, it is likely to be Kawasaki disease. Scarlet fever also causes skin peeling and strawberry tongue, but the fever is not as prolonged. Meningitis causes a non-blanching rash and more severe symptoms, while Henoch-Schonlein purpura presents with a non-blanching rash, abdominal pain, joint pain, and haematuria.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old male patient complains of a bulge in his left groin area....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male patient complains of a bulge in his left groin area. Upon examination, the lump is soft and exhibits a positive cough impulse. However, it can be managed by applying pressure over the midpoint of the inguinal ligament after reduction. What is the probable origin of this lump?

      Your Answer: Superficial inguinal ring

      Correct Answer: Deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      Inguinal Hernias

      An inguinal hernia occurs when part of the intestine or other viscera protrudes through a normal or abnormal opening in the parietal peritoneum. The inguinal canal, which runs obliquely from the internal to the external inguinal ring, is a common site for hernias. In men, it contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in women, it contains the round ligament and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The walls of the inguinal canal consist of an anterior wall made up of the external oblique aponeurosis, a posterior wall of peritoneum and transversalis fascia, a floor of in-rolled inguinal ligament, and a roof of arching fibers of the internal oblique and transverse abdominal muscles. Predisposing factors to hernias include obesity, muscle weakness, chronic cough, chronic constipation, and pregnancy.

      There are two types of inguinal hernias: direct and indirect. Direct hernias arise from the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, while indirect hernias arise from the abdominal cavity through the deep inguinal ring. Indirect hernias are more common than direct hernias. The course of a direct inguinal hernia is similar to that of the testis in males, while in females, the persistent processus vaginalis forms a small peritoneal pouch called the canal of Nuck.

      In conclusion, the anatomy and predisposing factors of inguinal hernias can help in their prevention and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with his son. The son reports...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with his son. The son reports that his father's memory has been declining for the past 8 months and he has been experiencing fluctuations in attention and consciousness. The patient has also reported seeing dogs and children running around in his living room. The patient has a medical history of resting tremors, rigidity, and shuffling gait for the past 10 years. However, there is no history of mood swings or urinary or bowel incontinence. On examination, there are no postural changes in his blood pressure. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinson's disease dementia

      Explanation:

      Dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) and Parkinson’s disease dementia (PDD) share similar features such as tremors, rigidity, postural instability, fluctuating cognition, and hallucinations. However, they can be differentiated based on the time of onset of dementia compared to motor symptoms. PDD is diagnosed if a patient had a Parkinson’s disease diagnosis for at least 1 year before the emergence of dementia. In contrast, DLB would have dementia occurring first followed by motor symptoms. This patient has had 8 years of preceding motor symptoms before the onset of dementia, making PDD more likely. It is important to distinguish between the two as their management varies significantly. Levodopa is the mainstay of treatment in PDD, whereas rivastigmine is the drug of choice in DLB. Treating this patient as DLB may miss out on important elements of treatment needed in patients with PDD. Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) and multiple system atrophy are not likely diagnoses in this case as they have different clinical features.

      Understanding Lewy Body Dementia

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.

      The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.

      Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 39-year-old male is being released from the cardiology unit on amiodarone due...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old male is being released from the cardiology unit on amiodarone due to the recent diagnosis of atrial fibrillation. What side effect of this medication should you advise him on?

      Your Answer: Diarrhoea

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone, a class III anti-arrhythmic agent used to manage various arrhythmias, is well-known for its side effects, which are frequently tested in medical student exams. One of its major side effects is pulmonary fibrosis, along with thyroid disturbances, skin discoloration, and additional arrhythmias. However, it is not typically linked to diarrhea, oligomenorrhea, or kidney damage, although it can cause liver damage.

      Amiodarone is a medication that can have several adverse effects on the body. One of the most common side effects is thyroid dysfunction, which can manifest as either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism. Additionally, the use of amiodarone can lead to the formation of corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis or pneumonitis, liver fibrosis or hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, and a ‘slate-grey’ appearance. Other potential adverse effects include thrombophlebitis and injection site reactions, bradycardia, and lengthening of the QT interval.

      It is important to note that amiodarone can also interact with other medications, leading to potentially dangerous outcomes. For example, the medication can decrease the metabolism of warfarin, which can result in an increased INR. Additionally, amiodarone can increase digoxin levels, which can lead to toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients who are taking amiodarone and to be aware of potential drug interactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      13.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (1/2) 50%
Palliative Care (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
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