-
Question 1
Correct
-
A young woman comes in with a gunshot wound and exhibits spastic weakness on the left side of her body. She also has lost proprioception and vibration on the same side, while experiencing a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the opposite side. The sensory deficits begin at the level of the umbilicus. Where is the lesion located and what is its nature?
Your Answer: Left-sided Brown-Sequard syndrome at T10
Explanation:The symptoms described indicate a T10 lesion on the left side, which is known as Brown-Sequard syndrome. This condition causes spastic paralysis on the same side as the lesion, as well as a loss of proprioception and vibration sensation. On the opposite side of the lesion, there is a loss of pain and temperature sensation. It is important to note that transverse myelitis is not the cause of these symptoms, as it presents differently.
Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedrich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a painless visual disturbance that started 2 hours ago. She has a medical history of hypertension and dyslipidemia.
During the examination, there is no facial asymmetry, and the patient appears comfortable. The visual field test shows homonymous hemianopia on the right side, and automated perimetry indicates macular sparing. The patient is unable to name familiar objects, such as a pen or a spoon.
Which artery is most likely to have been occluded?Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The correct answer is the posterior cerebral artery. When a lesion occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, it can result in contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. This is because the visual cortex is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery, which is responsible for the patient’s symptoms. The macula is usually spared because the posterior pole of the occipital cortex, which processes visual signals from the macula, receives collateral flow from the middle cerebral artery.
On the other hand, lesions in the anterior cerebral artery, which supplies the frontal cortex, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, altered sensorium, and aphasia. Meanwhile, occlusion of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, which supplies the lateral pons, can lead to sudden onset vertigo, vomiting, ataxia, nystagmus, and dysarthria.
Lastly, the central retinal artery is not the correct answer as occlusion of this artery typically results in amaurosis fugax, which is a painless transient ‘descending curtain’ visual field defect, rather than homonymous hemianopia.
Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.
Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A patient presents with difficulties with swallowing, muscle cramps, tiredness and fasciculations. A diagnosis of a motor neuron disease is made. Which is the most common type?
Your Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Explanation:The majority of individuals diagnosed with motor neuron disease suffer from amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, which is the prevailing form of the condition.
Understanding the Different Types of Motor Neuron Disease
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually occurs after the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, primary lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and progressive bulbar palsy. Some patients may also have a combination of these patterns.
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is the most common type of motor neuron disease, accounting for 50% of cases. It typically presents with lower motor neuron signs in the arms and upper motor neuron signs in the legs. In familial cases, the gene responsible for the disease is located on chromosome 21 and codes for superoxide dismutase.
Primary lateral sclerosis, on the other hand, presents with upper motor neuron signs only. Progressive muscular atrophy affects only the lower motor neurons and usually starts in the distal muscles before progressing to the proximal muscles. It carries the best prognosis among the different types of motor neuron disease.
Finally, progressive bulbar palsy affects the muscles of the tongue, chewing and swallowing, and facial muscles due to the loss of function of brainstem motor nuclei. It carries the worst prognosis among the different types of motor neuron disease. Understanding the different types of motor neuron disease is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and care for patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 61-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of a sudden onset headache, describing it as 'the worst pain in his life'. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He has been smoking for 25 years and drinks 18 units of alcohol per week.
After a head CT scan, it is revealed that there is evidence of a bleed. The bleed has occurred below a specific layer of the meninges that is designed to protect the brain and spinal cord from impact.
What is the name of the layer of the meninges that the bleed has occurred below?Your Answer: Arachnoid mater
Explanation:The middle layer of the meninges is known as the arachnoid mater. If a male with a history of hypertension and heavy smoking experiences a sudden and severe headache, it may indicate a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which has a high mortality rate.
A CT head scan can reveal the presence of blood in the subarachnoid cisterns, which would normally appear black. The arachnoid mater is responsible for protecting the brain from sudden impact and is one of three layers of the meninges, with the outermost layer being the dura mater and the innermost layer being the pia mater.
It is important to note that the dural venous sinuses and occipital bone are not considered part of the meninges.
The Three Layers of Meninges
The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.
The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Where is the area postrema located in the brain? A 16-year-old girl was prescribed erythromycin for her severe acne, but after three days, she had to stop taking it due to severe nausea that made her unable to function.
Your Answer: Amygdala
Correct Answer: Floor of the 4th ventricle
Explanation:The vomiting process is initiated by the chemoreceptor trigger zone, which receives signals from various sources such as the gastrointestinal tract, hormones, and drugs. This zone is located in the area postrema, which is situated on the floor of the 4th ventricle in the medulla. It is noteworthy that the area postrema is located outside the blood-brain barrier. The nucleus of tractus solitarius, which is also located in the medulla, contains autonomic centres that play a role in the vomiting reflex. This nucleus receives signals from the chemoreceptor trigger zone. The vomiting centres in the brain receive inputs from different areas, including the gastrointestinal tract and the vestibular system of the inner ear.
Vomiting is the involuntary act of expelling the contents of the stomach and sometimes the intestines. This is caused by a reverse peristalsis and abdominal contraction. The vomiting center is located in the medulla oblongata and is activated by receptors in various parts of the body. These include the labyrinthine receptors in the ear, which can cause motion sickness, the over distention receptors in the duodenum and stomach, the trigger zone in the central nervous system, which can be affected by drugs such as opiates, and the touch receptors in the throat. Overall, vomiting is a reflex action that is triggered by various stimuli and is controlled by the vomiting center in the brainstem.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old female comes to the GP complaining of sudden eye pain and vision changes. During the examination, the GP observes a significant relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) in her right eye. What will occur when the GP shines a penlight into her right eye?
Your Answer: Pupillary constriction in the left eye but no constriction in the right
Correct Answer: No pupillary constriction in both eyes
Explanation:The process of transmitting light through the afferent pathway begins with the retina receiving the light. An action potential is then generated in the optic nerve, which travels through the left and right lateral geniculate bodies. Finally, axons synapse at the left and right pre-tectal nuclei.
When there is a defect in the afferent pathway, a relative afferent pupillary defect (RAPD) can occur. This is characterized by the absence of constriction in both pupils when a light is shined in the affected eye. For example, if there is a RAPD in the left eye, shining the light in the left eye will result in absent constriction in both pupils, while shining the light in the right eye will result in constriction of both pupils.
In this question, there is a RAPD in the right eye. Therefore, shining the light in the right eye will result in absent constriction in both eyes. Any answers indicating full or partial constriction in one or both pupils are incorrect.
A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina. When light is shone on the affected eye, it appears to dilate while the normal eye remains unchanged.
The causes of a relative afferent pupillary defect can vary. For instance, it may be caused by a detachment of the retina or optic neuritis, which is often associated with multiple sclerosis. The pupillary light reflex pathway involves the afferent pathway, which starts from the retina and goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 50-year-old woman visits her general practitioner with a complaint of severe facial pain. The pain occurs several times a day and is described as the worst she has ever experienced. It is sudden in onset and termination and is felt in the right ophthalmic and maxillary regions of her face.
During the examination, the cranial nerves appear normal except for the absence of a blink reflex in the patient's right eye when cotton wool is rubbed against it. However, the patient blinks when cotton wool is rubbed against her left eye.
Which efferent pathway of this reflex is responsible for this nerve?Your Answer: CN VII
Explanation:Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a suspected heroin overdose. Her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 9, with only eye opening to trapezial squeeze and incoherent speech with inappropriate words. During her evaluation, the physician orders an arterial blood gas test.
What are the expected arterial blood gas results in this situation?Your Answer: Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Explanation:Respiratory acidosis can occur as a result of opioid overdose due to the depression of the central nervous system, which leads to a reduction in respiratory rate. This causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, resulting in the formation of carbonic acid and a subsequent decrease in blood pH.
It is unlikely that the respiratory acidosis in an acute opioid overdose would be compensated by the kidneys within the short time frame. Therefore, a normal arterial blood gas (ABG) result would be incorrect.
Partially compensated respiratory acidosis is also unlikely in this case, as the patient’s respiratory acidosis is unlikely to have been compensated at this stage.
However, partially compensated respiratory alkalosis may occur if the patient has an increased respiratory rate. This leads to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood, resulting in an alkalotic state. Over time, the bicarbonate levels in the blood will decrease to correct the pH.
Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses
Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.
Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.
The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 35-year-old male presents to the acute eye clinic with sudden onset of a painful red eye. He denies any history of trauma and has a medical history of ankylosing spondylitis for the past 8 years. On examination, his left eye has a visual acuity of 6/60 while his right eye is 6/6. Mild hypopyon is observed in his left eye during slit lamp examination. The diagnosis is anterior uveitis and he is prescribed steroid eye drops and cycloplegics. Which structure in the eye is affected in this case?
Your Answer: Ciliary body and iris
Explanation:Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 19-year-old man is trimming some bushes when a tiny piece of foliage gets into his eye, causing it to water. Which component is accountable for transmitting parasympathetic nerve signals to the lacrimal apparatus?
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: Pterygopalatine ganglion
Explanation:The pterygopalatine ganglion serves as a pathway for the parasympathetic fibers that reach the lacrimal apparatus.
The Lacrimation Reflex
The lacrimation reflex is a response to conjunctival irritation or emotional events. When the conjunctiva is irritated, it sends signals via the ophthalmic nerve to the superior salivary center. From there, efferent signals pass via the greater petrosal nerve (parasympathetic preganglionic fibers) and the deep petrosal nerve (postganglionic sympathetic fibers) to the lacrimal apparatus. The parasympathetic fibers relay in the pterygopalatine ganglion, while the sympathetic fibers do not synapse.
This reflex is important for maintaining the health of the eye by keeping it moist and protecting it from foreign particles. It is also responsible for the tears that are shed during emotional events, such as crying. The lacrimal gland, which produces tears, is innervated by the secretomotor parasympathetic fibers from the pterygopalatine ganglion. The nasolacrimal duct, which carries tears from the eye to the nose, opens anteriorly in the inferior meatus of the nose. Overall, the lacrimal system plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the eye.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 54-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a gradual increase in numbness and tingling in her right hand's ring and little fingers. She works as a librarian and denies any physical strain or injury. There is no significant medical history or family history of similar symptoms.
The woman reports that her symptoms are causing her to take frequent breaks from work and is worried about losing her job.
What is the primary pathology most commonly associated with her symptoms?Your Answer: Nerve entrapment of the medial epicondyle
Explanation:The correct answer is nerve entrapment of the medial epicondyle. The ulnar nerve provides sensory innervation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the 4th and 5th digits, and it travels posterior to the medial epicondyle through the ulnar tunnel. Medial epicondylitis, an over-use injury of the flexor-pronator muscles, can cause ulnar nerve damage.
The other answer choices are incorrect. The radial nerve supplies dorsal sensation to the thumb and wrist extension, while the ulnar nerve arises from C8-T1 of the brachial plexus. Fracture of the humeral shaft is associated with radial nerve damage, not ulnar nerve damage.
The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.
The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.
Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
An 81-year-old patient has presented to their physician with episodes of syncope and lightheadedness triggered by activities such as shaving or wearing a shirt with a collar. The patient also reports a change in their sense of taste. During the examination, the physician feels the patient's carotid pulse, which triggers another lightheaded episode. The patient's vital signs are taken immediately, revealing a heart rate of 36 bpm, blood pressure of 60/42 mmHg, sats of 96%, and a temperature of 36.7ºC. The physician suspects carotid sinus syndrome and wonders which cranial nerve is responsible for the hypersensitive response in this scenario.
Your Answer: Vagus nerve (CN X)
Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
Explanation:Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old man with a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to his physician with an inability to walk. The patient has a history of chronic kidney disease, diabetic retinopathy and a prior myocardial infarction treated via a stent. The patient admits to a recent loss of sensation in the lower limbs and is found to also have associated motor neuropathy. Complications of his chronic disease are found to be the cause of his gait problems.
What findings would be expected during examination of the lower limbs?Your Answer: Babinski positive, increased reflexes, decreased tone
Correct Answer: Decreased reflexes, fasciculations, decreased tone
Explanation:When there is a lower motor neuron lesion, there is a reduction in everything, including reflexes, tone, and power. Fasciculations are also a common feature. Motor neuropathy caused by diabetes is a form of peripheral neuropathy, which typically presents with lower motor neuron symptoms. On the other hand, an upper motor neuron lesion is characterized by increased tone, reflexes, and weakness. A mixed picture may occur when there are both upper and lower motor neuron signs present. For example, Babinski positive, increased reflexes, and decreased tone indicate a combination of upper and lower motor neuron lesions. Similarly, decreased tone, decreased reflexes, and clonus suggest a mixed picture, with the clonus being an upper motor neuron sign. Conversely, increased tone, decreased reflexes, and clonus also indicate a mixed picture, with the increased tone and clonus being upper motor neuron signs and the decreased reflexes being a lower motor neuron sign.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
A 5-year-old child is brought to the pediatric clinic by their mother. The child was born to a mother with gestational diabetes and had a difficult delivery due to shoulder dystocia. During the physical examination, the doctor observes paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles. The doctor suspects the child has Klumpke's paralysis. What is commonly associated with this presentation?
Your Answer: Horner's syndrome
Explanation:Klumpke’s paralysis is not associated with Horner’s syndrome. It is caused by injury to the brachial plexus, specifically nerve roots C8-T1, and results in paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and movement of the fingers. When the T1 nerve root is affected, there may be an associated injury to the sympathetic chain, which can lead to symptoms of Horner’s syndrome such as partial ptosis, miosis, enophthalmos, and anhidrosis.
Anterior cord syndrome, Brown-Séquard syndrome, and central cord syndrome are all incorrect as they are not associated with Klumpke’s paralysis. Anterior cord syndrome causes motor paralysis and loss of pain and temperature sensation below the lesion, and is caused by ischaemia of the anterior spinal artery. Brown-Séquard syndrome is caused by a hemisection of the spinal cord due to traumatic injury, and central cord syndrome is the most common cervical cord injury that causes motor impairment of the upper limbs, usually due to trauma or osteoarthritis.
Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 9-month-old baby is presented to the emergency department by their mother with recurrent seizures and an increasing head circumference. The infant has been experiencing excessive sleeping, vomiting, and irritability. An MRI scan of the brain reveals an enlarged posterior fossa and an absent cerebellar vermis. Which structure is anticipated to be in a raised position in this infant?
Your Answer: Tentorium cerebelli
Explanation:The Dandy-Walker malformation causes an enlargement of the posterior fossa, resulting in an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid that pushes the tentorium cerebelli upwards. This can lead to symptoms due to the mass effect. The falx cerebri, pituitary gland, sphenoid sinus, and superior cerebellar peduncle are unlikely to be significantly affected by this condition.
The Three Layers of Meninges
The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.
The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.
The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with suspected spinal trauma following a car accident. He presents with back pain and pain in his right leg. Initial vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 125/83 mmHg and a heart rate of 83bpm. Upon examination, there is bruising on his chest and an obvious deformity in his right leg. Later that day, he suddenly experiences a severe headache and appears flushed, sweating profusely. His vital signs now show a blood pressure of 162/97mmHg and a heart rate of 51. What is the level of his injury?
Your Answer: T5
Explanation:Autonomic dysreflexia can occur if the spinal cord injury is at or above the T5 level. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as headache, sweating, hypertension, and bradycardia, which can be triggered by any afferent sympathetic signal, such as urinary retention or faecal impaction. A spinal injury at the level of L1 or S1 is too low to cause autonomic dysreflexia, but may affect bladder and bowel control and the use of the hip and legs.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that occurs in patients who have suffered a spinal cord injury at or above the T6 spinal level. It is caused by a reflex response triggered by various stimuli, such as faecal impaction or urinary retention, which sends signals through the thoracolumbar outflow. However, due to the spinal cord lesion, the usual parasympathetic response is prevented, leading to an unbalanced physiological response. This response is characterized by extreme hypertension, flushing, and sweating above the level of the cord lesion, as well as agitation. If left untreated, severe consequences such as haemorrhagic stroke can occur. The management of autonomic dysreflexia involves removing or controlling the stimulus and treating any life-threatening hypertension and/or bradycardia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 58-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of constipation and a decrease in his sex drive. The man cannot recall when the symptoms began, but he does recall falling off a ladder recently. Upon examination, the man appears to be in good health.
What is the most probable site of injury or damage in this man?Your Answer: Thoracic spine (T10,11,12)
Correct Answer: Sacral spine (S2,3,4)
Explanation:Understanding the Autonomic Nervous System
The autonomic nervous system is responsible for regulating involuntary functions in the body, such as heart rate, digestion, and sexual arousal. It is composed of two main components, the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems, as well as a sensory division. The sympathetic division arises from the T1-L2/3 region of the spinal cord and synapses onto postganglionic neurons at paravertebral or prevertebral ganglia. The parasympathetic division arises from cranial nerves and the sacral spinal cord and synapses with postganglionic neurons at parasympathetic ganglia. The sensory division includes baroreceptors and chemoreceptors that monitor blood levels of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and glucose, as well as arterial pressure and the contents of the stomach and intestines.
The autonomic nervous system releases neurotransmitters such as noradrenaline and acetylcholine to achieve necessary functions and regulate homeostasis. The sympathetic nervous system causes fight or flight responses, while the parasympathetic nervous system causes rest and digest responses. Autonomic dysfunction refers to the abnormal functioning of any part of the autonomic nervous system, which can present in many forms and affect any of the autonomic systems. To assess a patient for autonomic dysfunction, a detailed history should be taken, and the patient should undergo a full neurological examination and further testing if necessary. Understanding the autonomic nervous system is crucial in diagnosing and treating autonomic dysfunction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
A 70-year-old man comes to the Parkinson clinic for a levodopa review. In Parkinson's disease, which region of the basal ganglia is most affected?
Your Answer: Substantia nigra pars compacta
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease primarily affects the basal ganglia, which is responsible for movement. Within the basal ganglia, the substantia nigra is a crucial component that plays a significant role in movement and reward. The dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra, which contain high levels of neuromelanin, function through the indirect pathway to facilitate movement. However, these neurons are the ones most impacted by Parkinson’s disease. The substantia nigra gets its name from its dark appearance, which is due to the abundance of neuromelanin in its neurons.
Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that occurs due to the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and drooling of saliva. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 65-year-old male, with a history of rheumatoid arthritis, visits the doctor with complaints of left ankle pain and tingling sensation in his lower leg. The pain worsens after prolonged standing and improves with rest. Upon examination, the doctor observes swelling in the left ankle and foot. The doctor suspects tarsal tunnel syndrome, which may be compressing the patient's tibial nerve. Can you identify which muscles this nerve innervates?
Your Answer: Flexor hallucis longus
Explanation:The tibial nerve provides innervation to the flexor hallucis longus, which is responsible for flexing the big toe, as well as the flexor digitorum brevis, which flexes the four smaller toes. Meanwhile, the superficial peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus brevis, which aids in plantar flexion of the ankle joint, while the deep peroneal nerve innervates the extensor digitorum longus, which extends the four smaller toes and dorsiflexes the ankle joint. Additionally, the deep peroneal nerve innervates the tibialis anterior, which dorsiflexes the ankle joint and inverts the foot, while the superficial peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus longus, which everts the foot and assists in plantar flexion.
The Tibial Nerve: Muscles Innervated and Termination
The tibial nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve that begins at the upper border of the popliteal fossa. It has root values of L4, L5, S1, S2, and S3. This nerve innervates several muscles, including the popliteus, gastrocnemius, soleus, plantaris, tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, and flexor digitorum brevis. These muscles are responsible for various movements in the lower leg and foot, such as plantar flexion, inversion, and flexion of the toes.
The tibial nerve terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar nerves. These nerves continue to innervate muscles in the foot, such as the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, and quadratus plantae. The tibial nerve plays a crucial role in the movement and function of the lower leg and foot, and any damage or injury to this nerve can result in significant impairments in mobility and sensation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 99-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of recent facial weakness and slurred speech. The GP suspects a stroke and conducts a thorough neurological evaluation. During the cranial nerve examination, the GP observes that the glossopharyngeal nerve is unaffected. What are the roles and responsibilities of this nerve?
Your Answer: Motor and sensory
Correct Answer: Motor, sensory and autonomic
Explanation:The jugular foramen serves as the pathway for the glossopharyngeal nerve. This nerve has autonomic functions for the parotid gland, motor functions for the stylopharyngeus muscle, and sensory functions for the posterior third of the tongue, palatine tonsils, oropharynx, middle ear mucosa, pharyngeal tympanic tube, and carotid bodies.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old-male comes to your neurology clinic accompanied by his wife. She reports that she has observed alterations in his speech over the last six months, with frequent pauses between syllables of words. During the clinical examination, you observe that his speech is jerky and loud, and he has decreased tone in his upper and lower limbs. Considering the most probable diagnosis, what other symptom is he likely to exhibit?
Your Answer: Horizontal diplopia
Correct Answer: Horizontal nystagmus
Explanation:When a person has a cerebellar lesion, they may experience horizontal nystagmus, which is characterized by involuntary eye movements in a horizontal direction. This can be accompanied by other symptoms of cerebellar syndrome, such as scanning dysarthria and hypotonia, as well as ataxia, intention tremor, and dysdiadochokinesia.
In contrast, vertical diplopia is a symptom of fourth nerve palsy, where a person sees one object as two images, one above the other. This condition may also cause a head tilt and the affected eye to deviate up and out. Torsional diplopia, on the other hand, is another symptom of fourth nerve palsy, where a person sees one object as two images that are slightly tilted away from each other. This condition may also cause vertical diplopia and the affected eye to deviate up and rotate outward.
Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremour, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.
There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxic telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
John is a 35-year-old man who was discharged 3 days ago from hospital, after sustaining an injury to his head. Observations and imaging were all normal and there was no neurological deficit on examination. Since then he has noticed difficulty in going upstairs. He says that he can't see where he is going and becomes very unsteady. His wife also told him that he has started to tilt his head to the right, which he was unaware of.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/6 but he has difficulty looking up and out with his right eye, no other abnormality is revealed.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Trochlear nerve palsy
Explanation:Consider 4th nerve palsy if your vision deteriorates while descending stairs.
Understanding Fourth Nerve Palsy
Fourth nerve palsy is a condition that affects the superior oblique muscle, which is responsible for depressing the eye and moving it inward. One of the main features of this condition is vertical diplopia, which is double vision that occurs when looking straight ahead. This is often noticed when reading a book or going downstairs. Another symptom is subjective tilting of objects, also known as torsional diplopia. Patients may also develop a head tilt, which they may or may not be aware of. When looking straight ahead, the affected eye appears to deviate upwards and is rotated outwards. Understanding the symptoms of fourth nerve palsy can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and management for this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
What are the true statements about the musculocutaneous nerve, except for those that are false?
Your Answer: If damaged, then extension of the elbow joint will be impaired
Explanation:The muscles supplied by it include the biceps, brachialis, and coracobrachialis. If it is injured, the ability to flex the elbow may be affected.
The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway
The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.
The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old woman complains of faecal incontinence and displays weakened anal sphincter muscles upon examination. What are the primary nerve root values for the nerves that provide the external anal sphincter?
Your Answer: S4,5
Correct Answer: S2,3,4
Explanation:To prevent fecal matter from reaching the floor, the external anal sphincter receives nerve supply from the pudendal nerve’s inferior rectal branch, which originates from S2, S3, and S4 root values.
Anatomy of the Anal Sphincter
The anal sphincter is composed of two muscles: the internal anal sphincter and the external anal sphincter. The internal anal sphincter is made up of smooth muscle and is continuous with the circular muscle of the rectum. It surrounds the upper two-thirds of the anal canal and is supplied by sympathetic nerves. On the other hand, the external anal sphincter is composed of striated muscle and surrounds the internal sphincter but extends more distally. It is supplied by the inferior rectal branch of the pudendal nerve (S2 and S3) and the perineal branch of the S4 nerve roots.
In summary, the anal sphincter is a complex structure that plays a crucial role in maintaining continence. The internal and external anal sphincters work together to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus. Understanding the anatomy of the anal sphincter is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect bowel function.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 49-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe back pain. He rates this pain as 7/10. His past medical history includes asthma, for which he takes salbutamol inhalers, and constipation. Although he usually takes laxatives, these were stopped following a few recent episodes of bloody diarrhoea. A significant family history exists for cardiovascular disease, and he neither smokes nor drinks alcohol. On examination, there is symmetrical, ascending weakness in the lower limbs. No further abnormalities were identified on examination.
Which organism is most likely associated with his current condition?Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni
Explanation:Guillain-Barre syndrome is most commonly triggered by Campylobacter jejuni infection. It is important to suspect Guillain-Barre syndrome in patients with back pain, preceding gastrointestinal infection, and symmetrical, ascending weakness on examination. In addition to Guillain-Barre syndrome, Campylobacter jejuni is also associated with reactive arthritis. The other options listed may cause bloody diarrhea but are not typically associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome. Clostridium difficile is associated with antibiotic use, EHEC is associated with undercooked meat, and Entamoeba histolytica is associated with recent travel abroad.
Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds nerve fibers, leading to demyelination. This results in symptoms such as muscle weakness, tingling sensations, and paralysis.
The pathogenesis of Guillain-Barre syndrome involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. Studies have shown a correlation between the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, and the clinical features of the syndrome. In fact, anti-GM1 antibodies are present in 25% of patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. This syndrome typically presents as a descending paralysis, unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome that present as an ascending paralysis. The eye muscles are usually affected first in Miller Fisher syndrome. Studies have shown that anti-GQ1b antibodies are present in 90% of cases of Miller Fisher syndrome.
In summary, Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome are conditions that affect the peripheral nervous system and are often triggered by infections. The pathogenesis of these syndromes involves the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides in the peripheral nervous system. While Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by muscle weakness and paralysis, Miller Fisher syndrome is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A laceration of the wrist produces a median nerve transection in a 50-year-old patient. The wound is clean and seen immediately after injury. Collateral soft tissue damage is absent. The patient asks what the prognosis is. You indicate that the nerve should regrow at approximately:
Your Answer: None of the above
Correct Answer: 1 mm per day
Explanation:When a peripheral nerve is cut, it causes bleeding and the nerve ends retract. The axon, which is the part of the nerve that transmits signals, starts to degenerate immediately after the injury. This degeneration occurs both in the part of the nerve that is distal to the injury and in the part that is proximal to the first node of Ranvier. As the degenerated axonal fragments are removed by phagocytosis, empty spaces are left in the neurilemmal sheath where the axons used to be.
After a few days, axons from the proximal part of the nerve start to regrow. If they are able to make contact with the distal neurilemmal sheath, they can regrow at a rate of about 1 mm per day. However, if there is any trauma, fracture, infection, or separation of the neurilemmal sheath ends that prevents contact between the axons, the regrowth can be erratic and may result in the formation of a traumatic neuroma.
In cases where the nerve injury is accompanied by significant soft tissue damage and bleeding (which increases the risk of infection), some surgeons may choose to delay the reattachment of the severed nerve ends for several weeks.
Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.
Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 27-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of recurring episodes of neck, shoulder, and upper arm pain accompanied by paraesthesia in his left forearm and hand. He reports that the symptoms are most severe when he is working at a supermarket, stacking shelves. The patient has no medical history and is not taking any medications regularly. An ECG reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Thoracic outlet syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Thoracic Outlet Syndrome
Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a condition that occurs when there is compression of the brachial plexus, subclavian artery, or vein at the thoracic outlet. This disorder can be either neurogenic or vascular, with the former accounting for 90% of cases. TOS is more common in young, thin women with long necks and drooping shoulders, and peak onset typically occurs in the fourth decade of life. The lack of widely agreed diagnostic criteria makes it difficult to determine the exact epidemiology of TOS.
TOS can develop due to neck trauma in individuals with anatomical predispositions. Anatomical anomalies can be in the form of soft tissue or osseous structures, with cervical rib being a well-known osseous anomaly. Soft tissue causes include scalene muscle hypertrophy and anomalous bands. Patients with TOS typically have a history of neck trauma preceding the onset of symptoms.
The clinical presentation of neurogenic TOS includes painless muscle wasting of hand muscles, hand weakness, and sensory symptoms such as numbness and tingling. If autonomic nerves are involved, patients may experience cold hands, blanching, or swelling. Vascular TOS, on the other hand, can lead to painful diffuse arm swelling with distended veins or painful arm claudication and, in severe cases, ulceration and gangrene.
To diagnose TOS, a neurological and musculoskeletal examination is necessary, and stress maneuvers such as Adson’s maneuvers may be attempted. Imaging modalities such as chest and cervical spine plain radiographs, CT or MRI, venography, or angiography may also be helpful. Treatment options for TOS include conservative management with education, rehabilitation, physiotherapy, or taping as the first-line management for neurogenic TOS. Surgical decompression may be warranted where conservative management has failed, especially if there is a physical anomaly. In vascular TOS, surgical treatment may be preferred, and other therapies such as botox injection are being investigated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman presents with unsteadiness on her feet. She reports leaning to her right and has sustained scrapes on her right arm from falling on this side. During her walk to the examination room, she displays a broad-based ataxic gait, with a tendency to lean to the right.
Upon neurological examination, she exhibits an intention tremor and dysdiadochokinesia of her right hand. Her right lower limb is positive for the heel-shin test. Additionally, there is a gaze-evoked nystagmus of the right eye.
What is the likely location of the brain lesion?Your Answer: Right parietal
Correct Answer: Right cerebellum
Explanation:Unilateral damage to the cerebellum results in symptoms that are on the same side as the lesion. In this case, if the right cerebellum is damaged, the individual may experience dysdiadochokinesia, ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor, scanning dysarthria, and a positive heel-shin test. Damage to the left cerebellum would not cause symptoms on the right side. Damage to the left temporal lobe may result in changes in behavior and emotions, forgetfulness, disruptions in the sense of smell, taste, and hearing, and language and speech disorders. Damage to the right parietal lobe may cause alexia, agraphia, acalculia, left-sided hemi-spatial neglect, homonymous inferior quadrantanopia, loss of sensations like touch, apraxias, or astereognosis.
Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremour, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.
There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxic telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old woman has been diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism and her serum PTH levels are elevated. She undergoes a parathyroidectomy performed by an endocrine surgeon. How long does it typically take for serum PTH levels to decrease after successful removal of the functioning adenoma?
Your Answer: 1 hour
Correct Answer: 10 minutes
Explanation:Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body
Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.
PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.
Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.
Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
From which of these foraminae does the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve exit the skull?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Superior orbital fissure
Explanation:Standing Room Only – Locations of trigeminal nerve branches exiting the skull
V1 – Superior orbital fissure
V2 – Foramen rotundum
V3 – Foramen ovaleThe trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)