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Question 1
Incorrect
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You see a 4-year-old girl who has had a fever for the past five days. Her mother reports her mouth looks more red and sore than usual. She also reports discomfort in her eyes.
On examination, you note a widespread non-vesicular rash and cervical lymphadenopathy.
What is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Refer to the on-call paediatric team
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:Kawasaki Disease Treatment and Follow-Up
Patients diagnosed with Kawasaki disease typically require hospitalization for treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin and to monitor for potential myocardial events. Due to the risk of cardiac complications, follow-up echocardiograms are necessary to detect any coronary artery aneurysms. It is important to note that Kawasaki disease is not a notifiable disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient is seeking your guidance on vulval itching.
What is the primary reason behind pruritus vulvae?Your Answer: Contact dermatitis
Explanation:Contact dermatitis is the leading reason for pruritus vulvae, which can be attributed to a delayed allergic reaction to substances such as medication, contraceptive creams/gel, and latex, or an irritant reaction to chemical or physical triggers like humidity, detergents, solvents, or friction/scratching.
Pruritus vulvae, or vaginal itching, is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 10 women who may seek medical assistance at some point. Unlike pruritus ani, pruritus vulvae typically has an underlying cause. The most common cause is irritant contact dermatitis, which can be triggered by latex condoms or lubricants. Other potential causes include atopic dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and psoriasis, which is seen in around one-third of patients with psoriasis.
To manage pruritus vulvae, women should be advised to take showers instead of baths and clean the vulval area with an emollient such as Epaderm or Diprobase. It is recommended to clean only once a day as repeated cleaning can worsen the symptoms. Most of the underlying conditions can be treated with topical steroids. If seborrhoeic dermatitis is suspected, a combined steroid-antifungal treatment may be attempted. Overall, seeking medical advice is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment of pruritus vulvae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with some yellowish-brown tender oval patches that have developed slowly on her shins over the past few months. The patches are shiny, pale and atrophic with telangiectasia.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Venous eczema
Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum: A rare skin condition that is more prevalent in diabetic patients. It is characterized by the development of yellowish-brown patches that slowly grow over several months. The center of the patch becomes pale and thin with telangiectasia. Lesions can occur on various parts of the body, but the most common site is pretibial. Trauma can cause ulceration, and no treatment has proven to be completely effective.
Lichen Sclerosus: Usually found in the anogenital area of women and on the prepuce, glans, and coronal sulcus in men. Patches are white and thickened or crinkled like cigarette paper.
Erythema Nodosum: Presents as red, tender nodules on the anterior aspect of the lower leg. The nodules last for 3-6 weeks.
Granuloma Annulare: Typically found on the dorsa of the hands or feet, but can be more widespread. The disseminated form is characterized by skin-colored, pink, or mauve non-scaly papules arranged in rings 10 cm or more in diameter.
Venous Eczema: Itchy erythematous scaly or crusted patches on the lower legs. The patches may be confluent and circumferential, and there may be pigmentary changes due to haemosiderin deposition.
Characteristics of Common Skin Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice
Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.
On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 µg/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman visits her GP for a regular check-up and expresses concern about her facial acne. She has a combination of comedones and pustules, but no significant scarring. Despite using a topical retinoid, she is hesitant to try another oral antibiotic after experiencing no improvement with three months of lymecycline. She has no risk factors for venous thromboembolism, her blood pressure is normal, and her cervical screening is up to date. She is interested in exploring hormonal treatments for her acne. What is the most appropriate medication to prescribe?
Your Answer: Dianette (Co-cyprindiol)
Correct Answer: Microgynon
Explanation:When treating moderate acne that doesn’t respond to topical treatments, it may be appropriate to add an oral antibiotic like lymecycline or doxycycline for up to three months. If there is no improvement, the acne worsens, or the patient cannot tolerate side effects, a different antibiotic can be tried. However, if the patient doesn’t want to try a different antibiotic, combined oral contraceptives can be considered as long as there are no contraindications. Second or third-generation combined oral contraceptives are typically preferred, such as Microgynon. It is important to note that Cerelle, a progesterone-only contraceptive, can worsen acne due to its androgenic activity. Dianette (co-cyprindiol) is a second-line contraceptive option for moderate to severe acne, but it comes with an increased risk of VTE and should only be used after careful discussion of the risks and benefits with the patient. It should be discontinued three months after acne has been controlled. Similarly, Cerazette is not a suitable option due to its androgenic activity.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with a recent skin lesion on her forearm that has been there for 3 weeks. She mentions that she first noticed it after a minor injury to the area, and it has been growing rapidly since then. Upon examination, there is a 12mm raised, symmetrical nodule with a large keratinized center. The surrounding skin looks normal, and there are no other comparable lesions. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keratoacanthoma
Explanation:Understanding Keratoacanthoma
Keratoacanthoma is a type of non-cancerous tumor that affects the epithelial cells. It is more commonly found in older individuals and is rare in younger people. The appearance of this tumor is often described as a volcano or crater, starting as a smooth dome-shaped papule that rapidly grows into a central crater filled with keratin. While spontaneous regression within three months is common, it is important to have the lesion removed as it can be difficult to distinguish from squamous cell carcinoma. Removal can also prevent scarring. It is important to be aware of the features of keratoacanthoma and seek medical attention if any suspicious growths are noticed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding fungal nail infections is inaccurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Treatment is successful in around 90-95% of people
Explanation:Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.
The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.
Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 28-year-old woman who has chronic plaque psoriasis. Despite trying various combinations of potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, coal tar and dithranol over the past two years, she has seen limited improvement. Light therapy was attempted last year but the psoriasis returned within a month. The patient is feeling increasingly discouraged, especially after a recent relationship breakdown. As per NICE guidelines, what is a necessary requirement before considering systemic therapy for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has a significant impact on physical, psychological or social wellbeing
Explanation:Referral Criteria for Psoriasis Patients
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects a significant number of people. According to NICE guidelines, around 60% of psoriasis patients will require referral to secondary care at some point. The guidance provides some general criteria for referral, including diagnostic uncertainty, severe or extensive psoriasis, inability to control psoriasis with topical therapy, and major functional or cosmetic impact on nail disease. Additionally, any type of psoriasis that has a significant impact on a person’s physical, psychological, or social wellbeing should also be referred to a specialist. Children and young people with any type of psoriasis should be referred to a specialist at presentation.
For patients with erythroderma or generalised pustular psoriasis, same-day referral is recommended. erythroderma is characterized by a generalised erythematous rash, while generalised pustular psoriasis is marked by extensive exfoliation. These conditions require immediate attention due to their severity. Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the referral criteria for psoriasis patients to ensure that they receive appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with a severely itchy rash that has been present for the past 3 weeks. She had been prescribed quinine for night cramps prior to the onset of the rash. The rash initially appeared on her wrists but has since spread to her left leg after she accidentally hit it.
During the examination, you observe raised erythematous/violaceous plaques of varying shapes and sizes on the flexor side of her wrists and left leg near the site of injury.
Which of the following treatment options would be the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.1% betamethasone valerate cream
Explanation:Betamethasone valerate cream may not be the most suitable option as it is a lower potency steroid cream.
While calcipotriol/betamethasone dipropionate ointment is commonly used to treat psoriasis, it may not be the most likely diagnosis in this case as psoriasis typically affects the extensor surfaces and doesn’t usually cause severe itching.
Although fexofenadine can provide relief for itching, it is not typically the first choice of treatment.
Permethrin is not used to treat lichen planus, as it is primarily used to treat scabies.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of 'pale skin' on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine.
What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.
Understanding Vitiligo
Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male comes to the surgery with a chronic issue of excessive sweating in his armpits. Apart from this, he is healthy, but the problem is impacting his self-esteem and social activities. What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical aluminium chloride
Explanation:Hyperhidrosis is typically treated with topical preparations containing aluminium chloride as the first-line option.
Managing Hyperhidrosis
Hyperhidrosis is a condition characterized by excessive sweating. To manage this condition, there are several options available. The first-line treatment is the use of topical aluminium chloride preparations, which can cause skin irritation as a side effect. Another option is iontophoresis, which is particularly useful for patients with palmar, plantar, and axillary hyperhidrosis. Botulinum toxin is also licensed for axillary symptoms. Surgery, such as endoscopic transthoracic sympathectomy, is another option, but patients should be informed of the risk of compensatory sweating. Overall, there are several management options available for hyperhidrosis, and patients should work with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman complains of bullae on her forearms after returning from a trip to Spain. She also reports that her hands have delicate skin that tears easily. The patient has a history of hypertrichosis and has previously been referred to a dermatologist. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation:Understanding Porphyria Cutanea Tarda
Porphyria cutanea tarda is a type of hepatic porphyria that is commonly inherited due to a defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase. However, it can also be caused by liver damage from factors such as alcohol, hepatitis C, or estrogen. The condition is characterized by a rash that is sensitive to sunlight, with blistering and skin fragility on the face and hands being the most common features. Other symptoms include hypertrichosis and hyperpigmentation.
To diagnose porphyria cutanea tarda, doctors typically look for elevated levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine, as well as pink fluorescence under a Wood’s lamp. Additionally, serum iron ferritin levels are used to guide therapy.
Treatment for porphyria cutanea tarda typically involves the use of chloroquine or venesection. Venesection is preferred if the iron ferritin level is above 600 ng/ml. With proper management, individuals with porphyria cutanea tarda can lead normal lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin ulcer on his lower leg that has persisted for 8 weeks despite a course of oral flucloxacillin. What is the initial investigation that should be prioritized?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:To rule out arterial insufficiency as a potential cause, it would be beneficial to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index measurement. If the results are abnormal, it may be necessary to refer the patient to vascular surgeons.
If the ulcer doesn’t respond to active management, such as compression bandaging, it may be necessary to consider a biopsy to rule out malignancy and a referral should be made.
It is uncommon for non-healing leg ulcers to be caused by persistent infection.
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.
The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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How many milligrams of corticosteroid cream are present in a single 'fingertip unit'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10 mg
Explanation:How to Measure the Amount of Topical Corticosteroids to Apply
Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to treat skin conditions such as eczema and psoriasis. It is important to apply the cream or ointment in the correct amount to ensure effective treatment and avoid side effects. The length of cream or ointment expelled from a tube can be used to specify the quantity to be applied to a given area of skin. This length can be measured in terms of a fingertip unit (ftu), which is the distance from the tip of the adult index finger to the first crease. One fingertip unit (approximately 500 mg or 0.5 g) is sufficient to cover an area that is twice that of the flat adult hand (palm and fingers together).
It is important to spread the corticosteroid thinly on the skin but in sufficient quantity to cover the affected areas. The amount of cream or ointment used should not be confused with potency, as one gram of a potent steroid is the same in terms of mass as one gram of a mild steroid. Potency doesn’t come into play when measuring the amount of cream to use. If you need to make an educated guess, think about the units. One milligram is an exceptionally small amount and is unlikely to represent a fingertip unit. By using the fingertip unit measurement, you can ensure that you are applying the correct amount of topical corticosteroid for effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has plaques of psoriasis on her face.
Select the single most suitable preparation for her to apply.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone cream 1%
Explanation:Treatment of Facial Psoriasis: Precautions and Options
When it comes to treating psoriasis on the face, it is important to keep in mind that the skin in this area is particularly sensitive. While various preparations can be used, some may cause irritation, staining, or other unwanted effects. For instance, calcipotriol can irritate the skin, betamethasone can lead to skin atrophy, and coal tar and dithranol can cause staining. Therefore, milder options are typically preferred, such as hydrocortisone or clobetasone butyrate. These may also be combined with an agent that is effective against Candida for flexural psoriasis.
It is important to note that corticosteroids should only be used for a limited time (1-2 weeks per month) to treat facial psoriasis. If short-term moderate potency corticosteroids do not provide satisfactory results or if continuous treatment is needed, a calcineurin inhibitor such as pimecrolimus cream or tacrolimus ointment may be used for up to 4 weeks. However, it is worth noting that these options do not have a license for this particular indication. Overall, caution and careful consideration of the options are key when treating psoriasis on the face.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with type-1 diabetes has observed an atypical lesion on the dorsum of his left hand. Upon examination, he presents with a solitary erythematous circular lesion that has a raised border. The lesion is not scaly.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the options provided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Granuloma annulare
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions: Granuloma Annulare, Necrobiosis Lipoidica, Fungal Infection, Scabies, and Erythema Multiforme
Granuloma Annulare is a skin condition that presents as groups of papules forming an arc or ring around a slightly depressed center. It is usually found on the dorsal surfaces of hands, feet, fingers, and extensor surfaces of arms and legs. The generalised form of this condition presents similar but bigger rings that are more widely disseminated. A subcutaneous form also exists that presents as nodules. Although an association with diabetes has been suggested, it is not always present. The local type is self-limiting and doesn’t require treatment, while a large number of treatments are described for the generalised form but have little evidence to support them.
Necrobiosis Lipoidica is another condition that occurs in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by firm, red-yellow plaques that occur over the shins. This condition may pre-date the development of diabetes by many years.
Fungal infections, such as tinea or ringworm, are epidermal conditions that produce scaling. On the other hand, scabies presents as crusted linear itchy lesions on the hands and web spaces, plus a generalised itchy nonspecific rash. Erythema Multiforme presents as multiple erythematous lesions with a darker or vesicular centre, particularly on the hands and feet.
In summary, these dermatological conditions have distinct presentations and require different treatments. It is important to seek medical advice for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A young adult with psoriasis manages his flare-ups at home using potent topical steroids. He is aware of the potential side effects of continuous topical steroid use and asked about the recommended duration of break between courses of treatment according to NICE guidelines.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aim for a break of 8 weeks
Explanation:Managing Psoriasis with Topical Treatments
Psoriasis patients are advised by NICE to take a break of at least 4 weeks between courses of treatment with potent or very potent corticosteroids. During this period, patients should consider using topical treatments that are not steroid-based, such as vitamin D or vitamin D analogues, or coal tar to maintain psoriasis disease control. These topical treatments can help manage psoriasis symptoms and prevent flare-ups. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs. By incorporating non-steroid topical treatments into their psoriasis management plan, patients can achieve better control of their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with scabies after presenting with itchy lesions on his hands. As part of the treatment plan, it is important to advise him to apply permethrin 5% cream as directed. Additionally, he should be reminded to treat all members of his household and wash all bedding and clothes in hot water. What instructions should be given regarding the application of the cream?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All skin including scalp + leave for 12 hours + repeat in 7 days
Explanation:Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man has an ulcer on his right foot. He has had type 1 diabetes for 20 years.
There is a small ulcer of 2 cm diameter on the outer aspect of his right big toe.
His peripheral pulses are all palpable. He has a peripheral neuropathy to the mid shins. The ulcer has an erythematous margin and is covered by slough.
Which is the most likely infective organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Diabetic Foot Ulcers and Infections
Diabetic foot ulcers can be categorized into two types: those in neuropathic feet and those in feet with ischemia. The former is warm and well-perfused with decreased sweating and dry skin, while the latter is cool and pulseless with thin, shiny skin and atrophy of subcutaneous tissues. Diabetic foot infections are serious and range from superficial paronychia to gangrene. Diabetics are more susceptible to foot ulceration due to neuropathy, vascular insufficiency, and reduced neutrophil function. Once skin ulceration occurs, pathogenic organisms can colonize the underlying tissues, and early signs of infection may be subtle. Local signs of wound infection include friable granulation tissue, yellow or grey moist tissue, purulent discharge, and an unpleasant odor. The most common pathogens are aerobic Gram-positive bacteria, particularly Staphylococcus aureus and beta-hemolytic Streptococci. If infection is suspected, deep swab and tissue samples should be sent for culture, and broad-spectrum antibiotics started. Urgent surgical intervention is necessary for a large area of infected sloughy tissue, localised fluctuance and expression of pus, crepitus in the soft tissues on radiological examination, and purplish discoloration of the skin. Antibiotic treatment should be tailored according to the clinical response, culture results, and sensitivity. If osteomyelitis is present, surgical resection should be considered, and antibiotics continued for four to six weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old female comes to the clinic from her nursing home with an atypical rash on her arms and legs. The rash appeared after starting furosemide for her mild ankle swelling. Upon examination, there are multiple tense lesions filled with fluid, measuring 1-2 cm in diameter on her arms and legs. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythema multiforme
Explanation:Pemphigoid: A Skin Condition Caused by Furosemide
Pemphigoid is a skin condition that typically affects elderly individuals, presenting as tense blisters on the arms and legs. In some cases, it can be caused by the use of furosemide, a diuretic medication. While other diuretics can also cause pemphigoid, it is a rarer occurrence.
A positive immunofluorescence test can confirm the diagnosis, and treatment typically involves the use of steroids. It is important to differentiate pemphigoid from pemphigus, which presents in younger age groups and causes flaccid blisters that easily erupt and leave widespread lesions.
Overall, recognizing the signs and causes of pemphigoid is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl is brought in by her father. She had been in the Scottish Highlands ten days ago. He found an insect attached to the skin of her abdomen and removed it but is concerned it may have been a tick. She has now developed a circular erythematous rash that has begun to radiate out from the bite.
Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate management plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 21 days
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Lyme Disease: Early Manifestations and Treatment Options
Lyme disease is a tick-borne illness caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Its early manifestation is erythema chronicum migrans, which can progress to neurological, cardiovascular, or arthritic symptoms. Different strains of Borrelia spp. cause varying clinical manifestations, leading to differences in symptoms between countries. The disease is transmitted by Ixodes spp. or deer ticks. Early use of antibiotics can prevent persistent, recurrent, and refractory Lyme disease. Antibiotics shorten the clinical course and progression.
In patients with erythema migrans alone, oral drug therapies can be started in primary care. Doxycycline (100 mg twice daily or 200 mg once daily for 21 days) is the first choice for patients aged 12 years or older. Amoxicillin (1 g three times daily for 21 days) is the first alternative, while azithromycin (500 mg daily for 17 days) is the second alternative but should be avoided in patients with cardiac abnormalities caused by Lyme disease. If there is any suggestion of cellulitis, co-amoxiclav or amoxicillin and flucloxacillin alone would be more appropriate.
In the USA, a single dose of 200 mg of doxycycline within 72 hours of tick removal can prevent Lyme disease from developing. However, the risk in the UK is not high enough to warrant prophylactic antibiotics. Antibody testing in patients with erythema migrans is unhelpful as the rash develops before the antibodies. It is important to discuss management with a microbiologist, especially if there are further manifestations. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.
Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.
Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You see a 35-year-old man with psoriasis. As part of his treatment plan, you prescribe topical Betnovate (Betamethasone valerate 0.1%) cream for a psoriasis flare-up on his leg. He inquires about the duration for which he can use this cream on his leg.
According to NICE guidelines, what is the maximum duration for which this type of corticosteroid can be used?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks
Explanation:NICE Guidelines on the Use of Potent Corticosteroids
Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids. Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.
Spacing:
Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.
It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids.
Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about strawberry birthmarks is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Only 50% resolve before 10 years of age
Explanation:Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.
Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face. She reports having a facial rash with flushing for a few weeks. Upon examination, there is a papulopustular rash with telangiectasia on both cheeks and nose. What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the potential complication associated with it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blepharitis
Explanation:Acne rosacea is a skin condition that results in long-term facial flushing, erythema, telangiectasia, pustules, papules, and rhinophyma. It can also impact the eyes, leading to blepharitis, keratitis, and conjunctivitis. Treatment options include topical antibiotics such as metronidazole gel or oral tetracycline, particularly if there are ocular symptoms.
Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.
Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with acne vulgaris has tried several topical treatments and oral antibiotics in primary care without improvement. She is referred to secondary care and started on isotretinoin.
What is the most appropriate advice she should be given regarding isotretinoin treatment? Choose ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pregnancy should be avoided during treatment and for one month after treatment
Explanation:Understanding Isotretinoin: Important Information to Know
Isotretinoin is a medication used to treat severe inflammatory acne. However, there are important considerations to keep in mind before starting treatment. Here are some key points to be aware of:
Pregnancy should be avoided: Isotretinoin is known to be teratogenic, meaning it can cause birth defects. Women of childbearing age should use at least one form of contraception during treatment and for one month after treatment.
Serum lipids may decrease: While taking isotretinoin, minor changes in serum lipids and liver function may occur. These are monitored during treatment and the medication may be stopped if the tests worsen.
Emollients should not be used: Isotretinoin can cause dryness of the skin and mucous membranes, especially the lips. While patients may need to apply emollients, they should be cautious as they can interfere with the medication’s effectiveness.
Depression is a rare side effect: While depression is listed as a rare side effect of isotretinoin, there is no clear link between the medication and depression. Patients should be asked about mood and any changes should be reported to their healthcare provider.
The skin becomes greasier: Isotretinoin reduces sebum secretion, which can cause dryness of the skin and mucous membranes. However, some patients may experience an initial increase in oil production before seeing improvement in their acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following antibiotics is most commonly linked to the onset of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Explanation:Understanding Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe reaction that affects the skin and mucosa, and is usually caused by a drug reaction. It was previously thought to be a severe form of erythema multiforme, but is now considered a separate entity. The condition can be caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulphonamides, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, allopurinol, NSAIDs, and oral contraceptive pills.
The rash associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome is typically maculopapular, with target lesions being characteristic. It may develop into vesicles or bullae, and the Nikolsky sign is positive in erythematous areas, meaning that blisters and erosions appear when the skin is rubbed gently. Mucosal involvement and systemic symptoms such as fever and arthralgia may also occur.
Hospital admission is required for supportive treatment of Stevens-Johnson syndrome. It is important to identify and discontinue the causative drug, and to manage the symptoms of the condition. With prompt and appropriate treatment, the prognosis for Stevens-Johnson syndrome can be good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are visited by a 35-year-old man who is concerned about the number of moles on his body. He mentions that his cousin was recently diagnosed with melanoma and he is worried about his own risk.
Upon examination, you note that he has around 70 pigmented naevi, each measuring over 2 mm in diameter.
What factor would increase this patient's risk of developing melanoma the most?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size
Explanation:Risk Factors for Melanoma
When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider the risk factors for melanoma. While skin that doesn’t tan easily is a risk factor, having between 51 and 100 common moles greater than 2 mm in size confers the greatest risk. Other established risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative, light-colored eyes, and unusually high sun exposure.
It is important to have knowledge of the extent of risk associated with these factors, as this can help identify high-risk patients and provide appropriate advice. Patients who are at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, organ transplant recipients, and giant congenital pigmented nevi.
In conclusion, understanding the risk factors for melanoma is crucial in identifying high-risk patients and providing appropriate advice and follow-up care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy patch on her back that has been present for six months. She also experiences pins and needles in the same area. The patch is located over the border of her left scapula. Upon examination, the skin sensation seems normal, and there is a clearly defined hyperpigmented patch without any scaling.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Notalgia paraesthetica
Explanation:Notalgia paraesthetica is a condition that causes chronic itching or tingling on the medial border of the scapula. This can lead to the development of post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation due to repeated rubbing and scratching of the affected area. The exact cause of this sensory neuropathy is not fully understood.
Causes of Pruritus
Pruritus, commonly known as itching, can be caused by various underlying conditions. Liver disease, often associated with a history of alcohol excess, can present with stigmata of chronic liver disease such as spider naevi, bruising, palmar erythema, and gynaecomastia. Evidence of decompensation such as ascites, jaundice, and encephalopathy may also be present. Iron deficiency anaemia can cause pallor and other signs such as koilonychia, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. Pruritus after a warm bath and a ruddy complexion may indicate polycythaemia. Gout and peptic ulcer disease can also cause itching. Chronic kidney disease may present with lethargy, pallor, oedema, weight gain, hypertension, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and fatigue. Other causes of pruritus include hyper- and hypothyroidism, diabetes, pregnancy, senile pruritus, urticaria, and skin disorders such as eczema, scabies, psoriasis, and pityriasis rosea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of pruritus in order to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these have led to little improvement. Other than aching in his legs, he is otherwise well. An ABPI was measured at 0.7.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class 2 compression stockings
Explanation:Understanding ABPI and Compression Stockings
When a patient is found to have an ABPI of 0.7, it is likely that they have other symptoms of arterial insufficiency. An ABPI less than 0.8 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, while an ABPI greater than 1.3 may be due to calcified and incompressible arteries. It is important to note that compression stockings are contraindicated in patients with ABPIs less than 0.8 or greater than 1.3.
The class of stocking used is not based on the ABPI, but rather the condition being treated. Closed toe stockings are generally used, but open toe stockings may be necessary if the patient has arthritic or clawed toes, has a fungal infection, prefers to wear a sock over the compression stocking, or has a long foot size compared with their calf size. Understanding ABPI and the appropriate use of compression stockings can help improve patient outcomes and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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