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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her concerned son. He tells you that his mother had got lost when returning home from shopping yesterday, a trip that she had been carrying out without problems for over 20 years. He also notes that she has had a general decline in her memory function over the past year or so, frequently repeating stories, and not being able to remember if she had eaten a meal or not that day when questioned. The son would like to know if his mother could be tested for Alzheimer’s disease, a condition that also affected her maternal grandmother.

      Deposition of which of the following is associated with the development of Alzheimer’s disease?

      Your Answer: Amyloid precursor protein (APP)

      Explanation:

      Proteins Associated with Neurodegenerative Diseases

      Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain and spinal cord. Several proteins have been identified as being associated with these diseases. For example, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with both amyloid precursor protein (APP) and tau proteins. Lewy body disease and Parkinson’s disease are associated with alpha-synuclein, while fronto-temporal dementia and ALS are associated with TARDBP-43 and tau protein. Additionally, Huntington’s disease is associated with huntingtin. Other changes, such as bunina bodies and Pick bodies, are also seen in certain neurodegenerative diseases and can serve as markers of neuronal degeneration. Understanding the role of these proteins in disease pathology is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      56.9
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of declining physical performance at...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of declining physical performance at work, accompanied by dysarthria and clumsiness. During the examination, he appears anemic and has hepatomegaly and Kayser-Fleischer rings in his cornea. He has a detectable liver edge. He denies excessive alcohol consumption and has no history of foreign travel, intravenous drug use, or unprotected sexual intercourse. His weekly alcohol intake is 0-2 units. He reports that his father passed away from a psychiatric illness in his mid-forties. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Liver Failure and Neurological Symptoms

      Wilson’s Disease, Alcohol Abuse, Hepatitis C Infection, Herpes Encephalitis, and Motor Neurone Disease are all potential diagnoses for a patient presenting with liver failure and neurological symptoms. Wilson’s Disease is a genetic disorder that can present in childhood or early adulthood with hepatic or neurological/psychiatric manifestations. Alcohol abuse can cause acute liver failure and hepatitis, but Kayser-Fleischer rings are not associated with it. Hepatitis C infection is spread through blood-to-blood contact and is unlikely in this patient without risk factors. Herpes encephalitis is a viral encephalitis that presents acutely with confusion and altered consciousness, but the patient had a subacute presentation. Motor neurone disease can cause muscle atrophy and weight loss, but does not explain the liver failure. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the correct diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      49.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A lesion in which lobe can result in a change in personality of...

    Correct

    • A lesion in which lobe can result in a change in personality of the individual?

      Your Answer: Frontal

      Explanation:

      The Four Lobes of the Brain and Their Functions

      The brain is a complex organ that controls all bodily functions and processes. It is divided into four main lobes, each with its own unique functions and responsibilities. The frontal lobe is responsible for behavior, personality, reasoning, planning, movement, emotions, and problem-solving. The temporal lobe is responsible for hearing and memory, specifically the hippocampus. The parietal lobe is responsible for touch, pressure, temperature, and pain perception. Lastly, the occipital lobe is responsible for vision.

      In summary, the frontal lobe controls higher-level thinking and decision-making, the temporal lobe is responsible for auditory perception and memory, the parietal lobe is responsible for sensory perception, and the occipital lobe is responsible for vision. the functions of each lobe can help us better understand how the brain works and how it affects our daily lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      22.9
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  • Question 4 - What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure? ...

    Correct

    • What is the correct vertebral level and corresponding structure?

      Your Answer: C4 and bifurcation of the carotid artery

      Explanation:

      Anatomy Landmarks and Openings

      The human body has several anatomical landmarks and openings that are important to know for medical professionals. The carotid artery, which supplies blood to the brain, bifurcates at the level of C4. The manubriosternal joint, also known as the angle of Louis, is located at the T4/5 intervertebral disk level. The aortic opening, which allows the aorta to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T12. The caval opening, which allows the inferior vena cava to pass through the diaphragm, is located at T8. Finally, the oesophageal opening of the diaphragm is located at T10. To remember the order of these openings, medical professionals often use the mnemonic Voice Of America – Vena cava at T8, Oesophagus at T10, and Aorta at T12. these landmarks and openings is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.2
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  • Question 5 - A 54-year-old man with a history of acromegaly presents for a check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of acromegaly presents for a check-up. He reports experiencing pins and needles in his hands in the early morning hours, and a positive Tinel's sign. Which muscle is most likely to be weak?

      Your Answer: Abductor pollicis longus

      Correct Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis

      Explanation:

      Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Median Nerve Innervation

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that can cause weakness in the abductor pollicis brevis muscle, which is innervated by the median nerve. This muscle, along with the opponens pollicis, is controlled by the median nerve. The flexor pollicis brevis muscle may also be innervated by either the median or ulnar nerve. In this case, the symptoms suggest carpal tunnel syndrome, which is often associated with acromegaly. Early intervention is crucial in treating carpal tunnel syndrome, as permanent nerve damage can occur if decompression is delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      42.6
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of frequent falls and unsteadiness...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of frequent falls and unsteadiness on her feet for the past 2 days. During the examination, the GP observes weakness and loss of sensation in the muscles of her right lower limb, while her upper limbs and face show no sensory deficit or weakness. The GP refers her to the nearest stroke unit for further evaluation and treatment. A CT scan confirms a thromboembolic cerebrovascular accident.

      Which vessel is the most probable culprit?

      Your Answer: The left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Correct Artery in a Case of Peripheral Weakness

      In cases of peripheral weakness, identifying the correct artery involved is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment. In this case, the weakness is on the right side, with involvement of the lower limb but not the upper limb or face. This suggests a problem with the left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch, which supplies the medial aspect of the frontal and parietal lobes, including the primary motor and sensory cortices for the lower limb and distal trunk.

      Other potential arteries that could be involved include the left middle cerebral artery, which would present with right-sided upper limb and facial weakness, as well as speech and auditory comprehension difficulties. The right anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch is unlikely, as it would be associated with left-sided weakness and sensory loss in the lower limb. The right posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion would result in visual field defects and contralateral weakness in both upper and lower limbs, as well as contralateral loss of sensation, which does not match the current presentation. The left posterior cerebral artery is also unlikely, as the upper limb is spared and there are no visual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      154.9
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  • Question 7 - You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling unwell for a few days. She has been experiencing intermittent fevers and chills and complains of extreme fatigue. Suddenly, half an hour before her admission to the hospital, she lost all vision in her left eye.

      During the examination, the patient appears pale and unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5°C, pulse 120/minute, regular, blood pressure 100/55 mmHg, and respiratory rate 22/minute. A pansystolic murmur is audible at the apex and lower left sternal border. Both lungs are clear.

      The right pupil reacts normally to light, but there is no reaction from the left pupil, which remains fixed and dilated. The patient has complete loss of vision in the left eye, and the left fundus appears paler than the right, without papilloedema. The only additional finding on examination was a paronychia on her right thumb, and light pressure on the nail bed was very uncomfortable.

      Investigations reveal the following results: Hb 109 g/L (115-165), WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7), Lymphocytes 4.8 ×109/L (1.5-4), Monocytes 0.29 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.01 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), and Platelets 550 ×109/L (150-400).

      What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of her illness?

      Your Answer: Blood cultures

      Explanation:

      Complications of Chronic Paronychia

      Chronic paronychia can lead to serious complications such as osteomyelitis and endocarditis. The most common causative organism for these complications is Staphylococcus aureus. Endocarditis can cause emboli, which are fragments of vegetation that can block or damage blood vessels in any part of the body. This can result in severe consequences such as blindness, stroke, or paralysis.

      To properly assess and manage a patient with chronic paronychia and its complications, several investigations may be necessary. However, the most crucial immediate investigations are blood cultures and echocardiography. These tests can help identify the causative organism and determine the extent of damage to the heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      48.3
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of vision loss in his right eye that lasted for about half an hour. He experienced initial blurring of vision followed by cloudiness and inability to see out of the eye. The patient has a recent history of hypertension and takes atenolol, but is otherwise generally healthy. He drinks modest amounts of alcohol and smokes five cigarettes per day. On examination, his vision is now normal in both eyes with visual acuities of 6/12 in both eyes. His pulse is regular at 72 beats per minute, blood pressure is 162/88 mmHg, and BMI is 30. Cardiovascular examination, including auscultation over the neck, is otherwise unremarkable. What investigations would you order for this patient?

      Your Answer: Carotid Dopplers

      Explanation:

      Amaurosis Fugax

      Amaurosis fugax is a condition that occurs when an embolism blocks the right carotid distribution, resulting in temporary vision loss. To diagnose this condition, doctors should look for an embolic source and scan the carotids for atheromatous disease. It’s important to note that significant carotid disease may still be present even if there is no bruit. If stenosis greater than 70% of diameter are present, carotid endarterectomy is recommended. Additionally, echocardiography may be used to assess for cardiac embolic sources. To better understand this condition, resources such as a diagnostic flow chart and medical articles can be helpful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      84.7
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  • Question 9 - A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused,...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital three days after becoming confused, disoriented, and having an unsteady gait. During the past four months she has been depressed and has declined food. She has lost approximately 12 kg in weight.

      She appears thin and is disoriented in time and place. She reports having double vision. Neither eye abducts normally. Her gait is unsteady although the limbs are strong. The liver and spleen are not enlarged.

      What would be the most appropriate initial step in her treatment?

      Your Answer: Intravenous methylprednisolone

      Correct Answer: Intravenous thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a sudden neurological disorder caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vital nutrient. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms, including acute mental confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. The oculomotor findings associated with this condition include bilateral weakness of abduction, gaze evoked nystagmus, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and vertical nystagmus in the primary position.

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is commonly linked to chronic alcohol abuse, but it can also occur in individuals with poor nutritional states, such as those with dialysis, advanced malignancy, AIDS, and malnutrition. Urgent treatment is necessary and involves administering 100 mg of fresh thiamine intravenously, followed by 50-100 mg daily. It is crucial to give IV/IM thiamine before treating with IV glucose solutions, as glucose infusions may trigger Wernicke’s disease or acute cardiovascular beriberi in previously unaffected patients or worsen an early form of the disease.

      In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological disorder that requires prompt treatment. It is essential to recognize the symptoms and underlying causes of this condition to prevent further complications. Early intervention with thiamine supplementation can help improve outcomes and prevent the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      57.6
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old man presents to your GP Surgery with worry about an incident...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man presents to your GP Surgery with worry about an incident that occurred earlier in the day. He vaguely describes experiencing epigastric discomfort, followed by a tingling sensation down his arms and the scent of cooking bacon. Additionally, he reports feeling generally unwell. He did not lose consciousness during the episode. Upon further questioning, he mentions having experienced similar symptoms before. You observe that he has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease and had a stroke four months ago.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Focal aware seizure

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Focal Aware Seizures

      Focal aware seizures, also known as simple focal seizures or auras, are a type of seizure that do not result in loss of awareness. Patients may experience vague discomfort, unusual smells or tastes, tingling, or twitching in an arm or leg. It is important to note that these seizures can be a sign of another type of seizure to come. Risk factors include head trauma and previous stroke.

      Malingering, or feigning symptoms for secondary gain, should be considered but is a diagnosis of exclusion. It is important to thoroughly investigate the patient’s symptoms before making this diagnosis.

      Focal impaired awareness seizures, previously known as complex focal seizures, result in memory loss, loss of awareness, and automatic bodily movements. This is not the case for a patient with focal aware seizures.

      Gastritis may be a differential due to the patient’s epigastric pain, but it does not fit with the other neurological symptoms.

      Psychotic hallucinations should be considered but are less likely given the patient’s coherent description of events and lack of history or risk factors for mental illness.

      In summary, when presented with a patient experiencing focal aware seizures, it is important to consider other neurological conditions before making a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old married shop assistant presents to the Emergency Department with a presumed...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old married shop assistant presents to the Emergency Department with a presumed seizure, where her hands and feet shook and she bit her tongue. This is the second such event in the past 6 months and she was due to see a neurologist in a month’s time. Computed tomography (CT) brain was normal. Electroencephalogram (EEG) was normal, albeit not performed during the ‘seizure’ activity. Her doctor believes she has epilepsy and is keen to commence anticonvulsive therapy. She is sexually active and uses only condoms for protection.
      Which one of the following drugs would be most suitable for this particular patient?

      Your Answer: Levetiracetam

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Antiepileptic Medications and Pregnancy: Considerations for Women of Childbearing Age

      When it comes to treating epilepsy in women of childbearing age, there are important considerations to keep in mind. Lamotrigine is a good choice for monotherapy, but it can worsen myoclonic seizures. Levetiracetam is preferred for myoclonic seizures, while carbamazepine has an increased risk of birth defects. Sodium valproate is the first-line agent for adults with generalized epilepsy, but it has been linked to neural tube defects in babies. Phenytoin is no longer used as a first-line treatment, but may be used in emergency situations. Clinicians should be aware of these risks and consult resources like the UK Epilepsy and Pregnancy Registry to make informed decisions about treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      48.8
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  • Question 12 - What is the result of a lesion in the occipital lobe? ...

    Correct

    • What is the result of a lesion in the occipital lobe?

      Your Answer: Cortical blindness

      Explanation:

      The Effects of Brain Lesions on Different Lobes

      Brain lesions can have varying effects depending on which lobe of the brain is affected. Lesions in the frontal lobe can result in difficulties with task sequencing and executive skills, as well as expressive aphasia, primitive reflexes, perseveration, anosmia, and changes in personality. On the other hand, lesions in the parietal lobe can cause apraxias, neglect, astereognosis, visual field defects, and acalculia.

      Temporal lobe lesions, on the other hand, can lead to visual field defects, Wernicke’s aphasia, auditory agnosia, and memory impairment. Lastly, occipital lobe lesions can result in cortical blindness, homonymous hemianopia, and visual agnosia.

      It is important to note that some of these effects may overlap or be present in multiple lobes. However, the specific effects of brain lesions on different lobes can aid in diagnosis and treatment planning for individuals with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      11.5
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  • Question 13 - What is the name of the neuron that sends signals from the peripheral...

    Correct

    • What is the name of the neuron that sends signals from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Afferent

      Explanation:

      Afferent Neurones

      Afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery, such as receptors, organs, and other neurones, to the central nervous system, which includes the brain and spinal cord. These neurones are often referred to as sensory neurones. It is important to note that afferent neurones are not the same as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, or multipolar neurones.

      Bipolar neurones are simply neurones that have only two extensions, such as those found in the retina or the ganglia of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Efferent neurones, on the other hand, transmit impulses from the central nervous system to the periphery, which is the opposite action of afferent neurones. Interneurones are neurones that connect afferent and efferent neurones in neural pathways. Finally, multipolar neurones are neurones that have a large number of dendrites, usually one long axon, and are found mostly in the brain and spinal cord for the integration of multiple incoming signals.

      In summary, afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery to the central nervous system. They are distinct from other types of neurones, such as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, and multipolar neurones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old male patient is admitted with a seizure and reduced conscious level....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male patient is admitted with a seizure and reduced conscious level. He had been generally unwell with a fever and headaches over the previous 48 h. Computed tomography (CT) brain scan was normal. Lumbar puncture reveals: protein 0.8 g/l, glucose 3.5 mmol/l (serum glucose 5 mmol/l), WCC (white cell count) 80/mm3, 90% lymphocytes.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral meningitis

      Correct Answer: Viral encephalitis

      Explanation:

      Lumbar Puncture Findings for Various Neurological Conditions

      Lumbar puncture is a diagnostic procedure used to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. The results of the CSF analysis can help diagnose various neurological conditions. Here are some lumbar puncture findings for different neurological conditions:

      Viral Encephalitis: This condition is suspected based on clinical features and is initially treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics and antivirals. CSF analysis shows clear and colorless appearance, all lymphocytes (no neutrophils), 10 × 106/l red blood cells, 0.2–0.4 g/l protein, 3.3–4.4 mmol/l glucose, pH of 7.31, and an opening pressure of 70–180 mmH2O.

      Acute Bacterial Meningitis: This condition causes neutrophilic CSF.

      Viral Meningitis: This condition typically presents with headaches and flu-like symptoms, but seizures and reduced conscious level are not a feature.

      Tuberculosis (TB) Meningitis: This condition causes a more protracted illness with headaches, fever, visual symptoms, and focal neurological signs. Investigations reveal raised intracranial pressure.

      Stroke: This condition does not have any characteristic lumbar puncture findings, and routine use of lumbar puncture is not recommended.

      It is important to note that often no cause is found, and the condition is considered idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of headaches, shoulder pain...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of headaches, shoulder pain and weight loss. Over this time she has lost approximately 6 kg in weight.

      She describes early morning stiffness of the shoulders. Also, she has become aware of frontal headaches and has noticed tenderness of the scalp particularly when she combs her hair. She has little in her past medical history, she is a lifelong non-smoker and takes no medication.

      During examination, she appears to be in good health with a blood pressure of 126/88 mmHg and a BMI of 23.4. Neurological examination is normal though she is tender over the shoulders and scalp.

      Which of the following investigations would you select for this patient?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Temporal arthritis/Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Unknown Aetiology

      This condition, which is of unknown aetiology, typically affects the elderly and is associated with inflammation of the extracranial arteries. It is characterized by weight loss, proximal muscle stiffness and tenderness, headaches, and scalp tenderness. Elevated inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein, are usually associated with it. Temporal arthritis may also be diagnosed through biopsy of the inflamed temporal artery, although false negatives may occur as the disease may patchily affect the artery.

      It is important to recognize and treat the disease early to reduce morbidity and prevent blindness due to involvement of the optic arteries with retinal ischemia. The condition usually rapidly improves with steroid therapy, and the disease may be monitored through reduction of ESR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      121.8
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  • Question 16 - A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department in an unresponsive state....

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department in an unresponsive state. He was found lying in the street by a passer-by who called the ambulance. Upon initial assessment, he is not communicating with you meaningfully, only muttering swear words occasionally. He is not responding to commands but reaches up to push your hand away when you squeeze his trapezius muscle. When you do this, he does not open his eyes.
      What is this patient’s Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)?

      Your Answer: 12

      Correct Answer: 9

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a widely used tool for assessing a patient’s level of consciousness, particularly in cases of head injury. It consists of three components: eye response, verbal response, and motor response. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to a maximum value (4 for eye response, 5 for verbal response, and 6 for motor response), with a total possible score of 15.

      To remember the components and their values, use the acronym EVM (eyes, verbal, motor) and the fact that eyes has 4 letters, V represents 5 in Roman numerals, and M6 is a famous motorway in the UK.

      A patient’s GCS score can help determine the severity of their condition and guide treatment decisions. A score of less than 8 indicates the need for intubation to maintain the patient’s airway. It’s important to note that the minimum possible score is 3, not zero.

      When assessing a patient’s GCS, evaluate their eye response (spontaneous, to verbal command, to painful stimulus, or none), verbal response (oriented speech, confused speech, inappropriate words, incomprehensible sounds, or none), and motor response (obeys commands, localizes to pain, withdraws from pain, flexes in response to pain, extends in response to pain, or none). By understanding the GCS and its components, healthcare providers can better assess and manage patients with altered levels of consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female underwent an appendicectomy and was administered an antiemetic for her nausea and vomiting. However, she is now experiencing an oculogyric crisis and has a protruding tongue. Which antiemetic is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Extrapyramidal Effects of Antiemetic Drugs

      Anti-nausea medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, and cyclizine can have extrapyramidal effects, which involve involuntary muscle movements. Metoclopramide is known to cause acute dystonic reactions, which can result in facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crisis. These effects are more common in young girls and women, as well as the elderly. However, they typically subside within 24 hours of stopping treatment with metoclopramide.

      On the other hand, domperidone is less likely to cause extrapyramidal effects because it does not easily cross the blood-brain barrier. Cyclizine is also less likely to cause these effects, making it a safer option for those who are susceptible to extrapyramidal reactions. It is important to discuss any concerns about potential side effects with a healthcare provider before starting any new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor notices evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.

      What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; all cases are familial

      Correct Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old male complains of weakness in his right hand. He was diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male complains of weakness in his right hand. He was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes 5 years ago and has been in good health otherwise. He has noticed over the past week that he is unable to raise his right hand at the wrist without any pain. Upon examination, a right-sided wrist drop is observed. Which nerve is being affected?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and Their Effects

      Wrist drop is a condition that occurs when the radial nerve is injured, resulting in the inability to extend the wrist. In addition to this, there is also a loss of sensation over the dorsum of the hand. Another nerve injury that affects the shoulder muscles is axillary nerve palsy. This condition can cause weakness in the shoulder and difficulty lifting the arm.

      Long thoracic nerve injury is another common nerve injury that causes winging of the scapula. This condition occurs when the nerve that controls the muscles of the scapula is damaged, resulting in the shoulder blade protruding from the back. Median nerve palsy affects the sensation to the lateral palmar three and a half fingers and involves the muscles of the thenar eminence. This condition can cause weakness in the hand and difficulty with fine motor skills.

      Finally, ulnar nerve palsy causes a claw hand, which is characterized by the inability to extend the fingers and a claw-like appearance of the hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - An 85-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking presents to...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man with a history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and smoking presents to the Emergency Department with left-sided weakness and numbness. On examination, he has a drooping left face, decreased strength in his left arm and leg (4/5), and reduced sensation on the left side of his body. His pulse is regular at 70 bpm, and his blood pressure is 180/100 mmHg. The initial diagnosis is a possible ischemic stroke.
      What proportion of strokes are ischemic rather than hemorrhagic?

      Your Answer: 80-85%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Prevalence and Causes of Ischaemic and Haemorrhagic Strokes

      Ischaemic strokes are the most common type of stroke, accounting for 80-85% of all cases. They are characterized by a sudden onset of neurological deficits, such as hemiplegia, and are usually caused by thromboembolic disease secondary to atherosclerosis. Risk factors for ischaemic stroke include smoking, diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, heart disease, and previous medical history of myocardial infarction, stroke or embolism.

      Haemorrhagic strokes, on the other hand, account for only 10-20% of all strokes and usually result from the rupture of a blood vessel within the brain. While they are less common than ischaemic strokes, they can be more severe and have a higher mortality rate.

      It is important to understand the prevalence and causes of both types of strokes in order to prevent and treat them effectively. By addressing risk factors such as smoking and heart disease, we can reduce the incidence of ischaemic strokes. And by recognizing the symptoms of haemorrhagic strokes and seeking immediate medical attention, we can improve outcomes for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. During the examination, a purpuric rash is observed on the trunk and limbs.

      What condition is this patient at risk for?

      Your Answer: Waterhouse–Friderichsen syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medical Syndromes and Their Characteristics

      Waterhouse–Friderichsen Syndrome: This syndrome is caused by acute meningococcal sepsis due to Neisseria meningitidis. It can lead to sepsis, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), endotoxic shock, and acute primary adrenal failure.

      Zollinger–Ellison Syndrome: This syndrome results from a gastrinoma, which leads to recurrent peptic ulcers.

      Osler–Weber–Rendu Disease: Also known as hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, this disease results in multiple telangiectasias and arteriovenous shunting of blood.

      Fitz–Hugh–Curtis Syndrome: This is a rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease, resulting in liver capsule inflammation.

      Cushing Syndrome: This syndrome is due to excess cortisol, which causes hypertension, central obesity, striae, a moon face, and muscle weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 42-year-old teacher comes to the general practitioner (GP) worried about her risk...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old teacher comes to the general practitioner (GP) worried about her risk of developing Alzheimer's disease. Her father has been diagnosed with an advanced form of the condition, and although she has no symptoms, the patient is anxious, as she has heard recently that the condition can be inherited.
      Which one of the following statements regarding Alzheimer's disease is true?

      Your Answer: It is more common in women than men

      Explanation:

      Myth Busting: Common Misconceptions About Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease is a complex and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about the disease that need to be addressed:

      1. It is more common in women than men: While it is true that women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s disease, it is not entirely clear why. It is thought that this may be due to the fact that women generally live longer than men.

      2. The familial variant is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder: This is incorrect. The familial variant of Alzheimer’s disease is typically inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder.

      3. It accounts for 30-40% of all cases of dementia: Alzheimer’s disease is actually responsible for approximately 60% of all cases of dementia.

      4. The onset is rare after the age of 75: Onset of Alzheimer’s disease typically increases with age, and it is not uncommon for people to develop the disease after the age of 75.

      5. It cannot be inherited: This is a myth. While not all cases of Alzheimer’s disease are inherited, there are certain genetic mutations that can increase a person’s risk of developing the disease.

      It is important to dispel these myths and educate ourselves about the true nature of Alzheimer’s disease. By understanding the facts, we can better support those affected by the disease and work towards finding a cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair loss. He has a medical history of high blood pressure and asthma and takes salbutamol, amlodipine, and simvastatin. He appears to be in good health, and his neurological examination is unremarkable. The auto-antibody screen is negative, and his creatine kinase (CK) level is 1,000 U/l (normal range: 22-198 U/l). What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Correct Answer: Statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of Elevated CK Levels

      Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels can indicate a variety of underlying conditions. When considering an elevated CK, it is important to take a detailed medication history as statin therapy, which is a common medication, can cause CK levels to rise in up to 5% of patients. Other common causes of mildly elevated CK include hypothyroidism, steroid use, and alcohol excess.

      Polymyositis is a potential differential diagnosis for a patient with elevated CK and fatigue, but it typically presents with objective proximal muscle weakness. The CK levels are often considerably higher than in the scenario described. Dermatomyositis, which features dermatological features alongside myositis, may present with papules on the hands, periorbital edema, flagellate erythema, or nailfold hemorrhages, none of which are present in this history.

      Extensive exercise can cause elevated CK levels, but it does not usually raise levels to the extent seen in this scenario. Rhabdomyolysis, which is a common cause of elevated CK, often occurs in elderly patients who have experienced a fall and long lie. However, there is no such history in this case, and CK levels in these patients are usually significantly higher.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of elevated CK levels requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, medication use, and presenting symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 48-year-old man presents with slurred speech. Upon examination, he displays bilateral partial...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents with slurred speech. Upon examination, he displays bilateral partial ptosis and frontal balding. Additionally, he experiences difficulty releasing his grip after shaking hands. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Correct Answer: Myotonia dystrophica

      Explanation:

      Myotonic Dystrophy: A Progressive Multi-System Disorder

      Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is caused by a mutation in the DMPK gene on chromosome 19, which leads to a CTG repeat. The length of this repeat determines the age of onset and severity of symptoms. Myotonic dystrophy can affect skeletal muscles, the heart, gastrointestinal and uterine smooth muscles, the eyes, and the endocrine and central nervous systems.

      Symptoms of myotonic dystrophy include ptosis, frontal balding, cataracts, cardiomyopathy, impaired intellect, testicular atrophy, diabetes mellitus, and dysarthria. The age of onset can range from birth to old age, with some patients presenting with symptoms in late adulthood. There is no cure for the weakness that is the main cause of disability, but medications such as phenytoin, quinine, or procainamide may be helpful for myotonia.

      It is important to differentiate myotonic dystrophy from other conditions that present with similar symptoms. Myotonia congenita, for example, presents in childhood with myotonia but does not have the other features associated with myotonic dystrophy. Duchenne muscular dystrophy also presents in childhood and has a much shorter life expectancy. Eaton-Lambert syndrome and myasthenia gravis are other conditions that can cause weakness but do not have the characteristic features of myotonic dystrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A senior citizen visits her physician with a complaint of painful sensation on...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen visits her physician with a complaint of painful sensation on the outer part of her thigh. The doctor diagnoses her with meralgia paraesthetica.
      Which nerve provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the thigh?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Branch of the lumbar plexus

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Lower Limb: Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica and Other Neuropathies

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a type of entrapment neuropathy that affects the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. This nerve arises directly from the lumbar plexus, which is a network of nerves located in the lower back. Compression of the nerve can cause numbness, tingling, and pain in the upper lateral thigh. Treatment options include pain relief and surgical decompression.

      While meralgia paraesthetica affects the lateral cutaneous nerve, other nerves in the lower limb have different functions. The pudendal nerve, for example, supplies sensation to the external genitalia, anus, and perineum, while the obturator nerve innervates the skin of the medial thigh. The sciatic nerve, on the other hand, innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh and can cause burning sensations and shooting pains if compressed. Finally, the femoral nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the thigh and gives sensation to the front of the thigh.

      Understanding the different nerves of the lower limb and the types of neuropathies that can affect them is important for diagnosing and treating conditions like meralgia paraesthetica. By working with healthcare professionals, individuals can find relief from symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - During a Neurology rotation, a Foundation Year 1 (FY1) witnessed a physical examination...

    Incorrect

    • During a Neurology rotation, a Foundation Year 1 (FY1) witnessed a physical examination where the neurologist conducted palpation on the pterion of the skull to check for a pulse. What is the name of the blood vessel that the neurologist was palpating for?

      Your Answer: Middle meningeal vein

      Correct Answer: Superficial temporal artery

      Explanation:

      Palpable and Non-Palpable Blood Vessels in the Head and Neck Region

      The head and neck region contains several blood vessels that can be palpated or felt through the skin, while others are located intracranially and cannot be palpated. Here are some of the blood vessels in the head and neck region and their characteristics:

      Superficial Temporal Artery
      The superficial temporal artery is located superficially to the pterion, which is the bony area of the skull where the frontal, parietal, temporal, and sphenoid bones meet. Loss of pulsation in this area may indicate giant cell arthritis, an inflammatory condition of large arteries that can cause temple pain, jaw claudication, and sudden-onset blindness. Diagnosis is done through a biopsy of the temporal artery, and treatment involves high-dose steroids and biologics.

      Facial Artery
      The facial artery can be felt as it crosses the inferior border of the mandible near the anterior margin of the masseter muscle.

      Middle Meningeal Artery
      The anterior division of the middle meningeal artery is located under the pterion, but it cannot be palpated because of its intracranial position.

      Common Carotid Artery
      The common carotid artery is located in the neck and can be felt in the anterior triangle of the neck, along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle.

      Middle Meningeal Vein
      The middle meningeal vein accompanies the middle meningeal artery, but it cannot be palpated because it is located intracranially.

      In summary, some blood vessels in the head and neck region can be palpated, while others are located intracranially and cannot be felt through the skin. Understanding the location and characteristics of these blood vessels is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 49-year-old man with a long history of sarcoidosis presents for review. He...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old man with a long history of sarcoidosis presents for review. He has been intermittently treated with varying doses of oral prednisolone and chloroquine. On this occasion, he complains of drooping and weakness affecting the left-hand side of his face, blurred vision, thirst and polyuria. On examination, he has a left facial nerve palsy.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 119 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 4.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 195 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 149 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 15.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Ca2+ corrected 2.21 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Random glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 36 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
      Which of the following diagnoses fit best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Neurosarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Neurological Symptoms: Neurosarcoidosis, Bacterial Meningitis, Bell’s Palsy, Viral Meningitis, and Intracerebral Abscess

      A man with a history of sarcoidosis presents with neurological symptoms, including polyuria, polydipsia, and blurred vision. These symptoms suggest the possibility of cranial diabetes insipidus, a consequence of neurosarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia and hyperglycemia are ruled out as potential causes based on normal glucose and calcium levels. Treatment for neurosarcoidosis typically involves oral corticosteroids and immunosuppressant agents.

      Bacterial meningitis, which presents with headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia, is ruled out as there is no evidence of infection. Bell’s palsy, an isolated facial nerve palsy, does not explain the patient’s other symptoms. Viral meningitis, which also presents with photophobia, neck stiffness, and headache, is unlikely as the patient’s white blood cell count is normal. An intracerebral abscess, which typically presents with headache and fever, is unlikely to produce the other symptoms experienced by the patient.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis for this patient’s neurological symptoms includes neurosarcoidosis, bacterial meningitis, Bell’s palsy, viral meningitis, and intracerebral abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old accountant presents to the GP with concerns about progressive difficulty in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old accountant presents to the GP with concerns about progressive difficulty in walking. He first noticed the onset of symptoms around eight months ago and has been finding it increasingly difficult to walk, although he has no problems in standing still. He has also noticed that he often loses his balance and feels rather unsteady of late. He has been researching his symptoms online and is worried that he may have Parkinson's disease.
      With regard to Parkinson's disease, which of the following statements is correct?

      Your Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) occurs as a result of degeneration of the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex

      Explanation:

      Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)

      Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) is a type of motor neurone disease (MND) that affects the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord and upper motor neurones in the motor cortex. MND is a progressive disorder that leads to only motor deficits and affects middle-aged individuals, with a slight predominance in males. Neuronal loss occurs at all levels of the motor system, from the cortex to the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. The prognosis for MND is poor, with a mean survival of 3-5 years from disease onset. Management is mainly symptomatic and requires a multidisciplinary approach, with early involvement of palliative care. The only licensed pharmacological agent in the UK is riluzole, which can increase survival by 3 months. Physical signs include both upper and lower motor neurone signs, with patients often developing prominent fasciculations. Sensation remains entirely intact, as this disease only affects motor neurones.

      Understanding Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) and Motor Neurone Disease (MND)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 21-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic, six weeks pregnant with an unplanned...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic, six weeks pregnant with an unplanned pregnancy. She has a history of grand mal epilepsy for two years and is currently taking carbamazepine. She has not had any seizures for the past six months and wishes to continue with the pregnancy if it is safe for her and the baby. She is concerned about the effects of her anticonvulsant therapy on the fetus and seeks advice on how to proceed. What is the most suitable management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Continue with carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Managing Epilepsy in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, it is important to manage epilepsy carefully to ensure the safety of both the mother and the fetus. Uncontrolled seizures pose a greater risk than any potential teratogenic effect of the therapy. However, total plasma concentrations of anticonvulsants tend to fall during pregnancy, so the dose may need to be increased. It is important to explain the potential teratogenic effects of carbamazepine, particularly neural tube defects, and provide the patient with folate supplements to reduce this risk. Screening with alpha fetoprotein (AFP) and second trimester ultrasound are also required. Vitamin K should be given to the mother prior to delivery. Switching therapies is not recommended as it could precipitate seizures in an otherwise stable patient. It is important to note that both phenytoin and valproate are also associated with teratogenic effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching and crawling sensation affecting his legs with an overwhelming urge to move them. His wife reports that he tosses and turns all night, often pacing the room, and constantly rubs his legs. Things only improve with the break of dawn. He seems tired all day as a consequence of the disturbed sleep at night. The only past medical history of note is diverticular disease, from which he has been troubled by periodic iron deficiency anaemia. Neurological examination is unremarkable.

      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l (microcytic) 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 124 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Secondary restless legs syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Restless Legs Syndrome

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a neurological disorder characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by unpleasant sensations. Here, we discuss the differential diagnosis for RLS in a patient with iron deficiency anaemia.

      Secondary Restless Legs Syndrome:
      In this case, the patient’s RLS is secondary to iron deficiency anaemia. Iron deficiency can cause RLS, and correcting the anaemia with iron supplementation may improve symptoms. Other causes of secondary RLS include peripheral neuropathy.

      Primary Restless Legs Syndrome:
      Primary RLS is a central nervous system disorder without known underlying cause. However, since this patient has a known precipitant for his RLS, it is more likely to be secondary.

      Alcohol Related Neuropathy:
      Alcohol-related neuropathy typically causes pain and motor loss, which is not seen in this patient.

      Nocturnal Cramps:
      Nocturnal cramps are unlikely to cause problems for the whole night and are typically short-lived.

      Diabetic Neuropathy:
      Diabetic neuropathy can cause burning or stinging sensations, but this patient’s fasting glucose level makes a diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy unlikely.

      In conclusion, RLS can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying etiology. Treatment options include medications such as sedatives, anti-epileptic agents, and dopaminergic agents, as well as addressing any underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 31 - A 36-year-old man came to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache,...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man came to the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache, neck stiffness, and photophobia. He had not experienced any recent foreign travel or trauma. Upon examination, he had a fever but no rash or focal neurology. The medical team suspected bacterial meningitis and began treatment. They also requested a lumbar puncture. What is the appropriate spinal level and dural space for the needle to be advanced to during a lumbar puncture?

      Your Answer: Between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space

      Explanation:

      Proper Placement for Lumbar Puncture

      The ideal location for a lumbar puncture is between L3 and L4, as this avoids the risk of piercing the spinal cord. To locate this area, a line is drawn across the superior aspect of the posterior iliac crests. The purpose of a lumbar puncture is to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid from the subarachnoid space between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater. However, there are contraindications to this procedure, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, which can lead to coning and respiratory arrest.

      It is important to note that advancing the needle too high, such as between L1 and L2, can pose a risk to the spinal cord. Additionally, the epidural space is too superficial to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid. Therefore, proper placement between L3 and L4, advanced to the subarachnoid space, is crucial for a safe and successful lumbar puncture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 32 - A 78-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with his daughter. His daughter...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man comes to his doctor's office with his daughter. His daughter reports that he has been increasingly forgetful, frequently forgetting appointments and sometimes leaving the stove on. He has also experienced a few instances of urinary incontinence. The patient's neurological examination is unremarkable except for a slow gait, reduced step height, and decreased foot clearance. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease

      Correct Answer: Normal pressure hydrocephalus

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus from Other Conditions: A Guide for Medical Professionals

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) is a condition characterized by ventricular dilation without raised cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) levels. Its classic triad of symptoms includes urinary incontinence, gait disturbance, and dementia. While 50% of cases are idiopathic, it is crucial to diagnose NPH as it is a potentially reversible cause of dementia. MRI or CT scans can reveal ventricular enlargement, and treatment typically involves surgical insertion of a CSF shunt.

      When evaluating patients with symptoms similar to NPH, it is important to consider other conditions. Parkinson’s disease, for example, may cause gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, and dementia, but the presence of bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity would make a Parkinson’s diagnosis unlikely. Multiple sclerosis (MS) may also cause urinary incontinence and gait disturbance, but memory problems are less likely, and additional sensory or motor problems are expected. Guillain-Barré syndrome involves ascending muscle weakness, which is not present in NPH. Cauda equina affects spinal nerves and may cause urinary incontinence and gait disturbance, but memory problems are not a symptom.

      In summary, while NPH shares some symptoms with other conditions, its unique combination of ventricular dilation, absence of raised CSF levels, and classic triad of symptoms make it a distinct diagnosis that requires prompt attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 33 - A 38-year-old woman attends the Neurological Outpatient Clinic as an urgent referral, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman attends the Neurological Outpatient Clinic as an urgent referral, with a short, but progressive, history of double vision. It is noted by her husband that her speech is worse last thing in the evening. She is a non-smoker and drinks 18 units a week of alcohol.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test?

      Your Answer: Visually evoked responses

      Correct Answer: Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Myasthenia Gravis

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disease characterized by weakness and fatigability due to antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. Nerve conduction studies with repetitive nerve stimulation can objectively document the fatigability, showing a decrement in the evoked muscle action after repeat stimulation. A CT brain scan is not useful for MG diagnosis, but CT chest imaging is indicated as thymic hyperplasia or tumors are associated with MG. Autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels are associated with Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, which is rare. Visually evoked potentials are useful for assessing optic nerve function but not for MG diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 34 - What are the reasons for having dilated pupils? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the reasons for having dilated pupils?

      Your Answer: Pontine haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Ethylene glycol poisoning

      Explanation:

      Causes of Dilated and Small Pupils

      Dilated pupils can be caused by various factors such as Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, and drugs or poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. On the other hand, small pupils can be caused by Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, and drugs or poisons like opiates and organophosphates.

      Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil and third nerve palsy are conditions that affect the muscles that control the size of the pupil. Meanwhile, drugs and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol can cause dilation of the pupils as a side effect. On the other hand, Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, and drugs or poisons like opiates and organophosphates can cause the pupils to become smaller.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 35 - In what way does an ion affect the overall membrane potential of a...

    Incorrect

    • In what way does an ion affect the overall membrane potential of a neuron?

      Your Answer: By its proximity to relevant ionic transmembrane channels

      Correct Answer: By its valence, concentration gradient and membrane permeability

      Explanation:

      The causes of clubbing are varied and complex. Clubbing is a medical condition that affects the fingers and toes, causing them to become enlarged and rounded. Although the exact cause of clubbing is not fully understood, it is commonly associated with respiratory, gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular disorders.

      Among the cardiovascular causes of clubbing, two main conditions stand out: infective endocarditis and tetralogy of Fallot. Tetralogy of Fallot is a congenital heart disorder that is characterized by four malformations in the heart. These include ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, over-riding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy.

      As a result of these malformations, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix in the patient’s body, leading to low blood oxygen saturation. This can cause a range of symptoms, including sudden cyanosis followed by syncope, which is commonly referred to as tet spells in children. In older children, squatting can help relieve these symptoms by reducing circulation to the legs and relieving syncope.

      Understanding the causes of clubbing is important, particularly for medical examinations, as it can help identify underlying conditions that may require further investigation and treatment. By recognizing the signs and symptoms of clubbing, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 36 - A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the...

    Correct

    • A man in his early 50s presents with a painless lump in the right posterior triangle of his neck. He undergoes an excision biopsy under general anaesthetic. After the procedure, he experiences difficulty shrugging his right shoulder.
      Which nerve is most likely to have been affected during the surgery?

      Your Answer: Accessory

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Neck: Functions and Effects of Damage

      The neck is home to several important nerves that control various muscles and sensory functions. Understanding the functions of these nerves and the effects of damage can help diagnose and treat neurological conditions.

      Accessory Nerve: This nerve supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles. Damage to this nerve can result in the inability to shrug the shoulder due to loss of innervation to the trapezius.

      Cervical Plexus: Arising deep to the sternocleidomastoid, the cervical plexus innervates the skin to the back of the head, neck, and collarbones, as well as some anterior neck muscles such as the omohyoid. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Hypoglossal Nerve: The hypoglossal nerve innervates all intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue. Damage to this nerve would not cause issues with shoulder movement.

      Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve is the longest autonomic nerve in the body and interfaces with the parasympathetic control of the heart, lungs, and gastrointestinal tract.

      Long Thoracic Nerve of Bell: This nerve innervates the serratus anterior muscle. Damage to this nerve leads to winging of the scapula but no issues with shoulder movement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 37 - A 24-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a hand injury sustained...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a hand injury sustained during a bar brawl. He has a wound with glass fragments embedded in it. On examination, he is unable to make a fist, and there is no sensation in his thumb, index, and middle fingers. There are no other neurological deficits in his arms or other limbs.
      Which nerve is the most likely culprit in this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      Overview of Major Nerves in the Arm and Their Functions

      The arm is innervated by several major nerves, each with its own specific functions. The median nerve supplies the flexors of the forearm and provides cutaneous sensation to the palmar surface of the lateral three fingers. The ulnar nerve provides sensory innervation to the fifth and medial half of the fourth digit and corresponding palm, and motor innervation to several muscles. The radial nerve supplies sensory innervation to the posterior lateral regions of the arm and forearm, as well as over the lateral dorsal surface of the hand up to the fingers. The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the biceps and flexor muscles of the elbow, while the axillary nerve supplies the deltoid, teres minor, and long head of the triceps brachii. Injuries to these nerves can result in various symptoms, including weakness and loss of sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 38 - A 20-year-old man complained of a sudden frontal headache accompanied by photophobia. He...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man complained of a sudden frontal headache accompanied by photophobia. He also experienced neck stiffness and had a temperature of 38°C. What distinguishing feature would indicate a diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage instead of bacterial meningitis?

      Your Answer: A family history of polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Comparing Risk Factors and Symptoms of Meningitis, SAH, and Cerebral Aneurysms

      Fluctuating levels of consciousness are common symptoms of both meningitis and subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). While hypertension is a known risk factor for SAH, diabetes does not increase the risk. On the other hand, opiate abuse is not associated with an increased risk of SAH. Cerebral aneurysms, which are a type of SAH, are often linked to polycystic kidney disease. It is important to understand the different risk factors and symptoms associated with these conditions to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment. By recognizing these factors, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 39 - A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty swallowing, and unsteadiness of gait. Upon neurological assessment, he is found to have nystagmus with the quick phase towards the right side and ataxia of the right upper and lower limbs. He reports no hearing loss. There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the face, and the left side of the limbs and trunk. The patient exhibits drooping of the right side of the palate upon eliciting the gag reflex, as well as right-sided ptosis and miosis.

      Which vessel is most likely to be affected by thromboembolism given these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: The right anterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Correct Answer: The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Arterial Territories and Associated Syndromes

      The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery is commonly associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which presents with symptoms such as palatal drooping, dysphagia, and dysphonia. The right anterior choroidal artery, which supplies various parts of the brain, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, loss of sensation, and homonymous hemianopia when occluded. Similarly, occlusion of the left anterior choroidal artery can result in similar symptoms. The right labyrinthine artery, a branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, can cause unilateral deafness and vertigo when ischemia occurs. Finally, the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery can lead to ipsilateral facial paresis, vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss, as well as facial hemianaesthesia due to trigeminal nerve nucleus involvement. Understanding these arterial territories and associated syndromes can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Neurology
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  • Question 40 - An 81-year-old man comes to your clinic with his wife. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man comes to your clinic with his wife. He has been experiencing memory loss for recent events and has gotten lost while out shopping. His cognitive abilities seem to fluctuate frequently, but overall, they appear to be declining. Additionally, he reports seeing small, fairy-like creatures running around, although he knows they are not real. He has also had several unexplained falls. Apart from increased muscle tone in all limbs, there are no other neurological symptoms. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Multi-infarct dementia

      Correct Answer: Dementia with Lewy bodies

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Dementia: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Dementia is a progressive cognitive impairment that affects millions of people worldwide. There are several types of dementia, each with its own set of symptoms and diagnostic criteria. Here are some of the most common types of dementia:

      Dementia with Lewy bodies
      This type of dementia is characterized by a progressive decline in cognitive function, with a particular emphasis on memory loss and disorientation. It is caused by the presence of Lewy bodies in the brain, which are distributed more widely than in Parkinson’s disease. Diagnosis requires the presence of dementia, as well as two out of three core features: fluctuating attention and concentration, recurrent visual hallucinations, and spontaneous parkinsonism.

      Huntington’s disease
      Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that typically presents in middle age. It causes a deterioration in mental ability and mood, as well as uncoordinated movements and jerky, random motions. Diagnosis is made through genetic testing.

      Multi-infarct dementia
      This type of dementia is caused by a history of interrupted blood supply to the brain, such as multiple strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.

      Pick’s disease
      Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, Pick’s disease is characterized by a loss of inhibitions and other behavioral changes.

      Alzheimer’s disease
      The most common type of dementia, Alzheimer’s is characterized by a gradual decline in cognitive function, including memory loss and disorientation. However, the presence of visual hallucinations, parkinsonism, and a fluctuating course may indicate dementia with Lewy bodies instead.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of dementia and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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      • Neurology
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