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  • Question 1 - You assess a patient in the clinical decision unit (CDU) who has a...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient in the clinical decision unit (CDU) who has a confirmed diagnosis of Pick's disease.
      Which ONE statement about this condition is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is a rapidly progressive disorder

      Correct Answer: Personality changes usually occur before memory loss

      Explanation:

      Pick’s disease is a rare neurodegenerative disorder that leads to a gradual decline in cognitive function known as frontotemporal dementia. One of the key features of this condition is the accumulation of tau proteins in neurons, forming silver-staining, spherical aggregations called Pick bodies.

      Typically, Pick’s disease manifests between the ages of 40 and 60. Initially, individuals may experience changes in their personality, such as disinhibition, tactlessness, and vulgarity. They may also exhibit alterations in their moral values and attempt to distance themselves from their family. Concentration problems, over-activity, pacing, and wandering are also common symptoms during this stage.

      What sets Pick’s disease apart from Alzheimer’s disease is that the personality changes occur before memory loss. As the disease progresses, patients will experience deficits in intellect, memory, and language.

      On the other hand, Lewy body dementia (LBD) is characterized by the presence of Lewy bodies, which are different from the Pick bodies seen in Pick’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      196.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 21-year-old man comes in with a suddenly painful and swollen right testis...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man comes in with a suddenly painful and swollen right testis and intense abdominal pain. The pain started while he was asleep, and he has experienced multiple episodes of vomiting. His cremasteric reflex is not present, and the testis is too sensitive to touch.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Testicular torsion

      Explanation:

      Testicular torsion is the correct diagnosis in this case. When a patient presents with sudden, severe, and acute testicular pain, testicular torsion should be assumed until proven otherwise. There are several historical factors that support this diagnosis. These include the pain occurring suddenly, being accompanied by vomiting, happening during sleep (as half of torsions occur during sleep), a previous history of torsion in the other testis, previous episodes that have resolved recently, and a history of undescended testis.

      On examination, there are certain findings that further suggest testicular torsion. The testis may be positioned high in the scrotum and too tender to touch. The opposite testis may lie horizontally (known as Angell’s sign). Pain is not relieved by elevating the testis (negative Prehn’s sign), and the cremasteric reflex may be absent.

      It is important to recognize that testicular torsion is a surgical emergency that requires immediate assessment and intervention to restore blood flow. Irreversible damage can occur within six hours of onset, so prompt treatment is crucial in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old woman presents with new onset difficulty breathing. During chest examination, you...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents with new onset difficulty breathing. During chest examination, you observe whispering pectoriloquy over her left lower lobe.
      What is the PRIMARY probable cause of this chest sign?

      Your Answer: Lung consolidation

      Explanation:

      Whispering pectoriloquy is a phenomenon that occurs when there is lung consolidation. It is characterized by an amplified and clearer sound of whispering that can be heard when using a stethoscope to listen to the affected areas of the lungs. To conduct the test, patients are usually instructed to whisper the phrase ninety-nine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      77
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58 year old female presents to the emergency department 2 hours after...

    Correct

    • A 58 year old female presents to the emergency department 2 hours after developing severe tearing chest pain that radiates to the back. The patient rates the severity as 10/10 on the visual analogue scale. You note the patient is prescribed medication for hypertension but the patient admits she rarely takes her tablets. The patient's observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 180/88 mmHg
      Pulse rate 92 bpm
      Respiration rate 22 rpm
      Oxygen sats 97% on air
      Temperature 37.2ºC

      Chest X-ray shows a widened mediastinum. You prescribe antihypertensive therapy. What is the target systolic blood pressure in this patient?

      Your Answer: 100-120 mmHg

      Explanation:

      To manage aortic dissection, it is important to lower the systolic blood pressure to a range of 100-120 mmHg. This helps decrease the strain on the damaged artery and minimizes the chances of the dissection spreading further. In this patient, symptoms such as tearing chest pain and a widened mediastinum on the chest X-ray are consistent with aortic dissection.

      Further Reading:

      Aortic dissection is a life-threatening condition in which blood flows through a tear in the innermost layer of the aorta, creating a false lumen. Prompt treatment is necessary as the mortality rate increases by 1-2% per hour. There are different classifications of aortic dissection, with the majority of cases being proximal. Risk factors for aortic dissection include hypertension, atherosclerosis, connective tissue disorders, family history, and certain medical procedures.

      The presentation of aortic dissection typically includes sudden onset sharp chest pain, often described as tearing or ripping. Back pain and abdominal pain are also common, and the pain may radiate to the neck and arms. The clinical picture can vary depending on which aortic branches are affected, and complications such as organ ischemia, limb ischemia, stroke, myocardial infarction, and cardiac tamponade may occur. Common signs and symptoms include a blood pressure differential between limbs, pulse deficit, and a diastolic murmur.

      Various investigations can be done to diagnose aortic dissection, including ECG, CXR, and CT with arterial contrast enhancement (CTA). CT is the investigation of choice due to its accuracy in diagnosis and classification. Other imaging techniques such as transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE), magnetic resonance imaging/angiography (MRI/MRA), and digital subtraction angiography (DSA) are less commonly used.

      Management of aortic dissection involves pain relief, resuscitation measures, blood pressure control, and referral to a vascular or cardiothoracic team. Opioid analgesia should be given for pain relief, and resuscitation measures such as high flow oxygen and large bore IV access should be performed. Blood pressure control is crucial, and medications such as labetalol may be used to reduce systolic blood pressure. Hypotension carries a poor prognosis and may require careful fluid resuscitation. Treatment options depend on the type of dissection, with type A dissections typically requiring urgent surgery and type B dissections managed by thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) and blood pressure control optimization.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman develops an irritating rash after a recent viral infection. The...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman develops an irritating rash after a recent viral infection. The rash is characterized by multiple wheals of varying sizes on her skin, surrounded by redness. It is extremely itchy and accompanied by a slight burning sensation. The rash lasts for a few hours but is now nearly gone. She has a history of mild asthma but no other significant medical conditions.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this individual?

      Your Answer: Urticaria

      Explanation:

      Urticaria is a condition characterized by a raised, itchy rash on the skin and mucous membranes. It can be localized or widespread and affects about 15% of people at some point in their lives. There are two forms of urticaria: acute and chronic, with the acute form being more common.

      In about 50% of cases of acute urticaria, a specific trigger can be identified. Common triggers include allergies (such as foods, bites, stings, and drugs), skin contact with irritants (like chemicals, nettles, and latex), physical stimuli (such as firm rubbing, pressure, and extremes of temperature), and viral infections.

      The main skin lesion seen in urticaria is called a wheal or wheel. Wheals typically have three characteristics: a central swelling that can be red or white in color, surrounded by a red area (known as the flare), and they are usually very itchy, sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Wheals are temporary and usually disappear within 1 to 24 hours, returning the skin to its normal appearance.

      Wheals can vary in size, ranging from a few millimeters to lesions as large as 10 cm in diameter. They can appear as single lesions or multiple ones, and sometimes they merge together to form large patches. In some cases, urticaria can also cause swelling of the soft tissues in the eyelids, lips, and tongue, known as angioedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You assess a 45-year-old woman with profound hearing loss in her LEFT ear...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 45-year-old woman with profound hearing loss in her LEFT ear due to gentamicin use.
      What SINGLE combination of examination findings would you anticipate discovering?

      Your Answer: Weber’s test lateralising to the right and Rinne’s test true negative on left

      Correct Answer: Weber’s test lateralising to the left and Rinne’s test false negative on right

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin has the potential to cause a severe form of hearing loss known as sensorineural hearing loss. In cases of severe sensorineural hearing loss, the Weber’s test will show a lateralization towards the side of the unaffected ear. Additionally, the Rinne’s test may yield a false negative result, with the patient perceiving the sound in the unaffected ear.

      To perform the Rinne’s test, a 512 Hz tuning fork is vibrated and then placed on the mastoid process until the sound is no longer audible. The top of the tuning fork is then positioned 2 cm away from the external auditory meatus, and the patient is asked to indicate where they hear the sound loudest.

      In individuals with normal hearing, the tuning fork should still be audible outside the external auditory canal even after it can no longer be heard on the mastoid. This is because air conduction should be more effective than bone conduction.

      In cases of conductive hearing loss, the patient will no longer be able to hear the tuning fork once it is no longer audible on the mastoid. This indicates that their bone conduction is greater than their air conduction, suggesting an obstruction in the passage of sound waves through the ear canal and into the cochlea. This is considered a true negative result.

      However, a Rinne’s test may yield a false negative result if the patient has a severe unilateral sensorineural deficit and perceives the sound in the unaffected ear through the transmission of sound waves through the base of the skull.

      In sensorineural hearing loss, the ability to perceive the tuning fork both on the mastoid and outside the external auditory canal is equally diminished compared to the opposite ear. While they will still hear the tuning fork outside the external auditory canal, the sound will disappear earlier on the mastoid process and outside the external auditory canal compared to the other ear.

      To perform the Weber’s test, a 512 Hz tuning fork is vibrated and placed on the center of the patient’s forehead. The patient is then asked if they perceive the sound in the middle of the forehead or if it lateralizes to one side or the other.

      If the sound lateralizes to one side, it can indicate either ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or contralateral sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      69.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old individual with a knee injury sustained...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 42-year-old individual with a knee injury sustained from leaping off a tall wall and landing on a leg that was completely extended. It is suspected that the patient may have experienced a quadriceps tendon rupture. Which of the subsequent observations would indicate this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Superior displacement of patella

      Correct Answer: Loss of of active knee extension

      Explanation:

      When a complete quadriceps rupture occurs, it leads to the inability to actively extend the knee. Please refer to the following notes for more detailed information.

      Further Reading:

      A quadriceps tendon tear or rupture is a traumatic lower limb and joint injury that occurs when there is heavy loading on the leg, causing forced contraction of the quadriceps while the foot is planted and the knee is partially bent. These tears most commonly happen at the osteotendinous junction between the tendon and the superior pole of the patella. Quadriceps tendon ruptures are more common than patellar tendon ruptures.

      When a quadriceps tendon tear occurs, the patient usually experiences a tearing sensation and immediate pain. They will then typically complain of pain around the knee and over the tendon. Clinically, there will often be a knee effusion and weakness or inability to actively extend the knee.

      In cases of complete quadriceps tears, the patella will be displaced distally, resulting in a low lying patella or patella infera, also known as patella baja. Radiological measurements, such as the Insall-Salvati ratio, can be used to measure patella height. The Insall-Salvati ratio is calculated by dividing the patellar tendon length by the patellar length. A normal ratio is between 0.8 to 1.2, while a low lying patella (patella baja) is less than 0.8 and a high lying patella (patella alta) is greater than 1.2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and palpitations. She informs you that she was recently diagnosed with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. She is connected to an ECG monitor, and you observe the presence of an arrhythmia.
      What is the most frequently encountered type of arrhythmia in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome?

      Your Answer: Atrioventricular nodal re-entrant tachycardia

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical system of the heart. It occurs when there is an abnormal pathway, known as the bundle of Kent, between the atria and the ventricles. This pathway can cause premature contractions of the ventricles, leading to a type of rapid heartbeat called atrioventricular re-entrant tachycardia (AVRT).

      In a normal heart rhythm, the electrical signals travel through the bundle of Kent and stimulate the ventricles. However, in WPW syndrome, these signals can cause the ventricles to contract prematurely. This can be seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG) as a shortened PR interval, a slurring of the initial rise in the QRS complex (known as a delta wave), and a widening of the QRS complex.

      There are two distinct types of WPW syndrome that can be identified on an ECG. Type A is characterized by predominantly positive delta waves and QRS complexes in the praecordial leads, with a dominant R wave in V1. This can sometimes be mistaken for right bundle branch block (RBBB). Type B, on the other hand, shows predominantly negative delta waves and QRS complexes in leads V1 and V2, and positive in the other praecordial leads, resembling left bundle branch block (LBBB).

      Overall, WPW syndrome is a condition that affects the electrical conduction system of the heart, leading to abnormal heart rhythms. It can be identified on an ECG by specific features such as shortened PR interval, delta waves, and widened QRS complex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 38 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden...

    Correct

    • A 38 year old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden tremors, excessive sweating, and a rapid heartbeat. Upon triage, the patient's blood pressure is found to be extremely high at 230/124 mmHg. Phaeochromocytoma is suspected. What would be the most suitable initial treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Phenoxybenzamine 10 mg by slow intravenous injection

      Explanation:

      The first step in managing hypertension in patients with phaeochromocytoma is to use alpha blockade, usually with a medication called phenoxybenzamine. This is followed by beta blockade. Before undergoing surgery to remove the phaeochromocytoma, patients need to be on both alpha and beta blockers. Alpha blockade is typically achieved by giving phenoxybenzamine intravenously at a dose of 10-40 mg over one hour, and then switching to an oral form (10-60 mg/day in divided doses). It is important to start alpha blockade at least 7 to 10 days before surgery to allow for an increase in blood volume. Beta blockade is only considered once alpha blockade has been achieved, as starting beta blockers too soon can lead to a dangerous increase in blood pressure.

      Further Reading:

      Phaeochromocytoma is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes catecholamines. It typically arises from chromaffin tissue in the adrenal medulla, but can also occur in extra-adrenal chromaffin tissue. The majority of cases are spontaneous and occur in individuals aged 40-50 years. However, up to 30% of cases are hereditary and associated with genetic mutations. About 10% of phaeochromocytomas are metastatic, with extra-adrenal tumors more likely to be metastatic.

      The clinical features of phaeochromocytoma are a result of excessive catecholamine production. Symptoms are typically paroxysmal and include hypertension, headaches, palpitations, sweating, anxiety, tremor, abdominal and flank pain, and nausea. Catecholamines have various metabolic effects, including glycogenolysis, mobilization of free fatty acids, increased serum lactate, increased metabolic rate, increased myocardial force and rate of contraction, and decreased systemic vascular resistance.

      Diagnosis of phaeochromocytoma involves measuring plasma and urine levels of metanephrines, catecholamines, and urine vanillylmandelic acid. Imaging studies such as abdominal CT or MRI are used to determine the location of the tumor. If these fail to find the site, a scan with metaiodobenzylguanidine (MIBG) labeled with radioactive iodine is performed. The highest sensitivity and specificity for diagnosis is achieved with plasma metanephrine assay.

      The definitive treatment for phaeochromocytoma is surgery. However, before surgery, the patient must be stabilized with medical management. This typically involves alpha-blockade with medications such as phenoxybenzamine or phentolamine, followed by beta-blockade with medications like propranolol. Alpha blockade is started before beta blockade to allow for expansion of blood volume and to prevent a hypertensive crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What age group is commonly affected by epiglottitis in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What age group is commonly affected by epiglottitis in children?

      Your Answer: 6-24 months

      Correct Answer: 2-6 years

      Explanation:

      Epiglottitis commonly occurs in children aged 2-6 years, while adults in their 40’s and 50’s are more prone to experiencing this condition.

      Further Reading:

      Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.

      The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.

      Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.

      Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.

      Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased vision and floaters in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes in with decreased vision and floaters in his right eye. Upon fundoscopy, you observe a section of sensory retina protruding towards the center of the eye. A diagnosis of retinal detachment is confirmed.
      Which of the following statements about retinal detachment is correct?

      Your Answer: Hypermetropia is a significant risk factor

      Correct Answer: A retina which remains fixed at six months post-surgical repair is unlikely to become detached again

      Explanation:

      Retinal detachment is a condition where the retina separates from the retinal pigment epithelium, resulting in a fluid-filled space between them. This case presents a classic description of retinal detachment. Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing this condition, including myopia, being male, having a family history of retinal detachment, previous episodes of retinal detachment, blunt ocular trauma, previous cataract surgery, diabetes mellitus (especially if proliferative retinopathy is present), glaucoma, and cataracts.

      The clinical features commonly associated with retinal detachment include flashes of light, particularly at the edges of vision (known as photopsia), a dense shadow in the peripheral vision that spreads towards the center, a sensation of a curtain drawing across the eye, and central visual loss. Fundoscopy, a procedure to examine the back of the eye, reveals a sheet of sensory retina billowing towards the center of the eye. Additionally, a positive Amsler grid test, where straight lines appear curved or wavy, may indicate retinal detachment.

      Other possible causes of floaters include posterior vitreous detachment, retinal tears, vitreous hemorrhage, and migraine with aura. However, in this case, the retinal appearance described is consistent with retinal detachment.

      It is crucial to arrange an urgent same-day ophthalmology referral for this patient. Fortunately, approximately 90% of retinal detachments can be successfully repaired with one operation, and an additional 6% can be salvaged with subsequent procedures. If the retina remains fixed six months after surgery, the likelihood of it becoming detached again is low.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial trauma. Imaging tests show that she has a Le Fort III fracture.
      What is the most accurate description of the injury pattern seen in a Le Fort III fracture?

      Your Answer: Transverse fracture of the midface

      Explanation:

      Le Fort fractures are complex fractures of the midface that involve the maxillary bone and surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the traumatic separation of the pterygomaxillary region. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening injuries and disfigurement.

      The Le Fort classification system categorizes midface fractures into three groups based on the plane of injury. As the classification level increases, the location of the maxillary fracture moves from inferior to superior within the maxilla.

      Le Fort I fractures are horizontal fractures that occur across the lower aspect of the maxilla. These fractures cause the teeth to separate from the upper face and extend through the lower nasal septum, the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus, and into the palatine bones and pterygoid plates. They are sometimes referred to as a floating palate because they often result in the mobility of the hard palate from the midface. Common accompanying symptoms include facial swelling, loose teeth, dental fractures, and misalignment of the teeth.

      Le Fort II fractures are pyramidal-shaped fractures, with the base of the pyramid located at the level of the teeth and the apex at the nasofrontal suture. The fracture line extends from the nasal bridge and passes through the superior wall of the maxilla, the lacrimal bones, the inferior orbital floor and rim, and the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus. These fractures are sometimes called a floating maxilla because they typically result in the mobility of the maxilla from the midface. Common symptoms include facial swelling, nosebleeds, subconjunctival hemorrhage, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the nose, and widening and flattening of the nasal bridge.

      Le Fort III fractures are transverse fractures of the midface. The fracture line passes through the nasofrontal suture, the maxillo frontal suture, the orbital wall, and the zygomatic arch and zygomaticofrontal suture. These fractures cause separation of all facial bones from the cranial base, earning them the nickname craniofacial disjunction or floating face fractures. They are the rarest and most severe type of Le Fort fracture. Common symptoms include significant facial swelling, bruising around the eyes, facial flattening, and the entire face can be shifted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 3 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Correct

    • A 3 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. They inform you that the patient started experiencing diarrhea two days ago and has had 3-4 instances of watery loose stools in the past 24 hours. They mention that the patient vomited a few times yesterday but has not vomited again today. After conducting a thorough assessment, you inform the parents that you suspect the patient has viral gastroenteritis and that supportive treatment is usually recommended. They inquire about the duration of the diarrhea. What is the most appropriate response?

      Your Answer: In most cases diarrhoea usually lasts for 5–7 days

      Explanation:

      Typically, children with viral gastroenteritis experience diarrhoea for a duration of 5-7 days. Vomiting, on the other hand, usually subsides within 1-2 days.

      Further Reading:

      Gastroenteritis is a common condition in children, particularly those under the age of 5. It is characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. The most common cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children is rotavirus, although other viruses, bacteria, and parasites can also be responsible. Prior to the introduction of the rotavirus vaccine in 2013, rotavirus was the leading cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 in the UK. However, the vaccine has led to a significant decrease in cases, with a drop of over 70% in subsequent years.

      Norovirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in adults, but it also accounts for a significant number of cases in children. In England & Wales, there are approximately 8,000 cases of norovirus each year, with 15-20% of these cases occurring in children under 9.

      When assessing a child with gastroenteritis, it is important to consider whether there may be another more serious underlying cause for their symptoms. Dehydration assessment is also crucial, as some children may require intravenous fluids. The NICE traffic light system can be used to identify the risk of serious illness in children under 5.

      In terms of investigations, stool microbiological testing may be indicated in certain cases, such as when the patient has been abroad, if diarrhea lasts for more than 7 days, or if there is uncertainty over the diagnosis. U&Es may be necessary if intravenous fluid therapy is required or if there are symptoms and/or signs suggestive of hypernatremia. Blood cultures may be indicated if sepsis is suspected or if antibiotic therapy is planned.

      Fluid management is a key aspect of treating children with gastroenteritis. In children without clinical dehydration, normal oral fluid intake should be encouraged, and oral rehydration solution (ORS) supplements may be considered. For children with dehydration, ORS solution is the preferred method of rehydration, unless intravenous fluid therapy is necessary. Intravenous fluids may be required for children with shock or those who are unable to tolerate ORS solution.

      Antibiotics are generally not required for gastroenteritis in children, as most cases are viral or self-limiting. However, there are some exceptions, such as suspected or confirmed sepsis, Extraintestinal spread of bacterial infection, or specific infections like Clostridium difficile-associated pseudomembranous enterocolitis or giardiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with a foul-smelling vaginal discharge and itching in...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with a foul-smelling vaginal discharge and itching in the vulva area. She also experiences pain during urination but does not have an increased need to urinate. She has a 4-week-old baby whom she is currently nursing.

      What is the most suitable treatment for her condition?

      Your Answer: Topical clotrimazole

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is vaginal thrush. Vaginal thrush is characterized by symptoms such as vulval irritation and itching, vulval redness, and a discharge that is often described as cheesy. Some women may also experience dysuria, which is pain or discomfort during urination, but without an increase in frequency or urgency. The recommended treatment for vaginal thrush is the use of antifungal agents, with topical azoles like clotrimazole or miconazole being commonly prescribed. It is important to note that breastfeeding patients should avoid taking oral terbinafine as it can pass into breast milk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 42 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department due...

    Correct

    • A 42 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department due to a recent onset of high fever and feeling unwell that has worsened over the past day, with the patient becoming increasingly drowsy. Despite initial resuscitation efforts, there is minimal response and it is decided to intubate the patient before transferring to the intensive care unit for ventilatory and inotropic support. Your consultant requests that you apply pressure over the cricoid during the procedure. What is the reason for this?

      Your Answer: Prevent aspiration of gastric contents

      Explanation:

      Cricoid pressure is applied during intubation to compress the oesophagus and prevent the backflow of stomach contents, reducing the risk of aspiration.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his wife after overdosing on one of his prescribed medications. He is restless, disoriented, and experiencing visual hallucinations. His heart rate is currently 110 bpm, and his pupils are dilated. It is challenging to gather information from him as he is speaking incoherently. Upon further inquiry, you learn that he has ingested an anticholinergic medication.
      What is the antidote for this type of poisoning?

      Your Answer: Physostigmine

      Explanation:

      Patients who present with an anticholinergic toxidrome can be difficult to manage due to the agitation and disruptive behavior that is typically present. It is important to provide meticulous supportive care to address the behavioral effects of delirium and prevent complications such as dehydration, injury, and pulmonary aspiration. Often, one-to-one nursing is necessary.

      The management approach for these patients is as follows:

      1. Resuscitate using a standard ABC approach.
      2. Administer sedation for behavioral control. Benzodiazepines, such as IV diazepam in 5 mg-10 mg increments, are the first-line therapy. The goal is to achieve a patient who is sleepy but easily roused. It is important to avoid over-sedating the patient as this can increase the risk of aspiration.
      3. Prescribe intravenous fluids as patients are typically unable to eat and drink, and may be dehydrated upon presentation.
      4. Insert a urinary catheter as urinary retention is often present and needs to be managed.
      5. Consider physostigmine as the specific antidote for anticholinergic delirium in carefully selected cases. Physostigmine acts as a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, temporarily blocking the breakdown of acetylcholine. This enhances its effects at muscarinic and nicotinic receptors, thereby reversing the effects of the anticholinergic agents.

      Physostigmine is indicated in the following situations:

      1. Severe anticholinergic delirium that does not respond to benzodiazepine sedation.
      2. Poisoning with a pure anticholinergic agent, such as atropine.

      The dosage and administration of physostigmine are as follows:

      1. Administer in a monitored setting with appropriate staff and resources to manage adverse effects.
      2. Perform a 12-lead ECG before administration to rule out bradycardia, AV block, or broadening of the QRS.
      3. Administer IV physostigmine 0.5-1 mg as a slow push over 5 minutes. Repeat every 10 minutes up to a maximum of 4 mg.
      4. The clinical end-point of therapy is the resolution of delirium.
      5. Delirium may reoccur in 1-4 hours as the effects of physostigmine wear off. In such cases, the dose may be cautiously repeated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 75-year-old man with a history of heart failure and atrial fibrillation comes...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of heart failure and atrial fibrillation comes in with severe vomiting and diarrhea. Blood tests are done, and an electrolyte imbalance is observed.
      Which electrolyte imbalance poses the greatest risk for a patient who is on digoxin?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation and flutter as well as congestive cardiac failure. It belongs to a class of drugs called cardiac glycosides. Digoxin works by inhibiting the Na/K ATPase pump in the cardiac myocytes, which are the cells of the heart. This inhibition leads to an increase in the concentration of sodium inside the cells and indirectly increases the availability of calcium through the Na/Ca exchange mechanism. The rise in intracellular calcium levels results in a positive inotropic effect, meaning it strengthens the force of the heart’s contractions, and a negative chronotropic effect, meaning it slows down the heart rate.

      However, it’s important to note that digoxin can cause toxicity, which is characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood, known as hyperkalemia. Normally, the Na/K ATPase pump helps maintain the balance of sodium and potassium by allowing sodium to leave the cells and potassium to enter. When digoxin blocks this pump, it disrupts this balance and leads to higher levels of potassium in the bloodstream.

      Interestingly, the risk of developing digoxin toxicity is higher in individuals with low levels of potassium, known as hypokalemia. This is because digoxin binds to the ATPase pump at the same site as potassium. When potassium levels are low, digoxin can more easily bind to the ATPase pump and exert its inhibitory effects.

      In summary, digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that is used to treat certain heart conditions. It works by inhibiting the Na/K ATPase pump, leading to increased intracellular calcium levels and resulting in a positive inotropic effect and negative chronotropic effect. However, digoxin can also cause toxicity, leading to high levels of potassium in the blood. The risk of toxicity is higher in individuals with low potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 7 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned...

    Correct

    • A 7 year old male is brought into the emergency department by concerned parents. The child has been feeling unwell for the past 2-3 days, complaining of stomach pain and feeling nauseous. The parents have also noticed that the child has been drinking more than usual and constantly feels thirsty. Tests confirm a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and appropriate treatment is initiated. About 4 hours after starting treatment, one of the nursing staff asks you to assess the patient as he has been experiencing headaches and has started vomiting. The following repeat observations are recorded:

      Pulse: 58 bpm
      Respiration rate: 28 bpm
      Temperature: 37.2ºC

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Administer mannitol (20%) 0.5-1 g/kg over 10-15 minutes

      Explanation:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45 year old female visits the emergency department complaining of abdominal cramps...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old female visits the emergency department complaining of abdominal cramps and bloating that are alleviated by defecation. Blood tests and an abdominal X-ray are conducted, all of which come back normal. It is observed that the patient has visited the hospital twice in the past 4 months with similar symptoms and has also consulted her primary care physician regarding these recurring issues. The suspicion is that the patient may be suffering from irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). What diagnostic criteria would be most suitable for diagnosing IBS?

      Your Answer: Modified Marsh

      Correct Answer: ROME IV

      Explanation:

      The ROME IV criteria are utilized in secondary care to diagnose IBS, as recommended by NICE. The DSM-5 criteria are employed in diagnosing various mental health disorders. Coeliac disease diagnosis involves the use of modified marsh typing. Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease diagnosis relies on the Lyon Consensus.

      Further Reading:

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a chronic disorder that affects the interaction between the gut and the brain. The exact cause of IBS is not fully understood, but factors such as genetics, drug use, enteric infections, diet, and psychosocial factors are believed to play a role. The main symptoms of IBS include abdominal pain, changes in stool form and/or frequency, and bloating. IBS can be classified into subtypes based on the predominant stool type, including diarrhea-predominant, constipation-predominant, mixed, and unclassified.

      Diagnosing IBS involves using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain associated with changes in stool frequency and form. It is important to rule out other more serious conditions that may mimic IBS through a thorough history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations. Treatment for IBS primarily involves diet and lifestyle modifications. Patients are advised to eat regular meals with a healthy, balanced diet and adjust their fiber intake based on symptoms. A low FODMAP diet may be trialed, and a dietician may be consulted for guidance. Regular physical activity and weight management are also recommended.

      Psychosocial factors, such as stress, anxiety, and depression, should be addressed and managed appropriately. If constipation is a predominant symptom, soluble fiber supplements or foods high in soluble fiber may be recommended. Laxatives can be considered if constipation persists, and linaclotide may be tried if optimal doses of previous laxatives have not been effective. Antimotility drugs like loperamide can be used for diarrhea, and antispasmodic drugs or low-dose tricyclic antidepressants may be prescribed for abdominal pain. If symptoms persist or are refractory to treatment, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and referral to a specialist may be necessary.

      Overall, the management of IBS should be individualized based on the patient’s symptoms and psychosocial situation. Clear explanation of the condition and providing resources for patient education, such as the NHS patient information leaflet and support from organizations like The IBS Network, can also be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You are caring for a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury. The...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury. The FAST scan shows cardiac tamponade. If left untreated, expanding cardiac tamponade can lead to which of the following arrhythmias?

      Your Answer: Ventricular fibrillation

      Correct Answer: Pulseless electrical activity

      Explanation:

      If a polytrauma patient with a penetrating chest injury has an expanding cardiac tamponade that is left untreated, it can potentially lead to pulseless electrical activity.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      13.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recently developed back...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recently developed back pain. After conducting a thorough examination, your findings raise significant alarm. You begin to consider the likelihood of a metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) diagnosis.
      Among the following types of cancer, which one is most frequently associated with MSCC?

      Your Answer: Prostate cancer

      Explanation:

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) occurs when a tumor mass compresses the thecal sac and its components, leading to a spinal emergency. If the pressure on the spinal cord is not relieved promptly, it can result in irreversible loss of neurological function. The most crucial factor for predicting functional outcome is the patient’s neurological function before treatment. Therefore, delayed treatment can lead to permanent disability and a decrease in quality of life.

      The most common cancers that cause MSCC are prostate, lung, breast, and myeloma. In approximately 10 to 20% of cancer patients, MSCC is the first noticeable symptom. It is important to consider MSCC in any patient with a history of cancer if they experience any of the following symptoms: severe or progressive lumbar back pain, nocturnal pain that disrupts sleep, localized spinal tenderness, radicular pain, or neurological symptoms.

      Thoracic pain can also be an indicator of MSCC, but it can also be caused by an aortic aneurysm. In patients aged 60 or older with persistent back pain, myeloma should be considered. Similarly, in patients aged 60 or older with accompanying weight loss, pancreatic cancer should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department after being bitten...

    Correct

    • A 68 year old is brought into the emergency department after being bitten on the leg by a patient with Alzheimer's disease at a nearby nursing home. The bite wound seems to have only punctured the skin without any ongoing bleeding or signs of infection such as redness, swelling, or discharge. Despite the absence of current infection, you decide to administer prophylactic antibiotics. What is the recommended length of time for prophylactic antibiotics in a non-infected human bite wound?

      Your Answer: 3 days

      Explanation:

      In cases of human bite wounds where the skin is broken but no blood is drawn, it is recommended to consider antibiotic prophylaxis, especially if the bite occurs in a high-risk area like the hands. According to NICE guidelines, a 3-day course of antibiotics is usually sufficient for prophylaxis in bite wounds. However, if the bite wound becomes infected, a 5-day course of antibiotics is advised for treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Bite wounds from animals and humans can cause significant injury and infection. It is important to properly assess and manage these wounds to prevent complications. In human bites, both the biter and the injured person are at risk of infection transmission, although the risk is generally low.

      Bite wounds can take various forms, including lacerations, abrasions, puncture wounds, avulsions, and crush or degloving injuries. The most common mammalian bites are associated with dogs, cats, and humans.

      When assessing a human bite, it is important to gather information about how and when the bite occurred, who was involved, whether the skin was broken or blood was involved, and the nature of the bite. The examination should include vital sign monitoring if the bite is particularly traumatic or sepsis is suspected. The location, size, and depth of the wound should be documented, along with any functional loss or signs of infection. It is also important to check for the presence of foreign bodies in the wound.

      Factors that increase the risk of infection in bite wounds include the nature of the bite, high-risk sites of injury (such as the hands, feet, face, genitals, or areas of poor perfusion), wounds penetrating bone or joints, delayed presentation, immunocompromised patients, and extremes of age.

      The management of bite wounds involves wound care, assessment and administration of prophylactic antibiotics if indicated, assessment and administration of tetanus prophylaxis if indicated, and assessment and administration of antiviral prophylaxis if indicated. For initial wound management, any foreign bodies should be removed, the wound should be encouraged to bleed if fresh, and thorough irrigation with warm, running water or normal saline should be performed. Debridement of necrotic tissue may be necessary. Bite wounds are usually not appropriate for primary closure.

      Prophylactic antibiotics should be considered for human bites that have broken the skin and drawn blood, especially if they involve high-risk areas or the patient is immunocompromised. Co-amoxiclav is the first-line choice for prophylaxis, but alternative antibiotics may be used in penicillin-allergic patients. Antibiotics for wound infection should be based on wound swab culture and sensitivities.

      Tetanus prophylaxis should be administered based on the cleanliness and risk level of the wound, as well as the patient’s vaccination status. Blood-borne virus risk should also be assessed, and testing for hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and HIV should be done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Your hospital’s cardiology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker...

    Incorrect

    • Your hospital’s cardiology department is currently evaluating the utility of a triple marker test for use risk stratification of patients with a suspected acute coronary syndrome. The test will use troponin I, myoglobin and heart-type fatty acid-binding protein (HFABP).

      How long after heart attack do troponin I levels return to normal?

      Your Answer: 10-14 days

      Correct Answer: 3-10 days

      Explanation:

      The timing of the initial rise, peak, and return to normality of various cardiac enzymes can serve as a helpful guide. Creatine kinase, the main cardiac isoenzyme, typically experiences an initial rise within 4-8 hours, reaches its peak at 18 hours, and returns to normal within 2-3 days. Myoglobin, which lacks specificity due to its association with skeletal muscle damage, shows an initial rise within 1-4 hours, peaks at 6-7 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Troponin I, known for its sensitivity and specificity, exhibits an initial rise within 3-12 hours, reaches its peak at 24 hours, and returns to normal within 3-10 days. HFABP, or heart fatty acid binding protein, experiences an initial rise within 1.5 hours, peaks at 5-10 hours, and returns to normal within 24 hours. Lastly, LDH, predominantly found in cardiac muscle, shows an initial rise at 10 hours, peaks at 24-48 hours, and returns to normal within 14 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You review a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 65-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and is currently taking warfarin. She has developed an infection that needs to be treated with an antibiotic.
      Which antibiotic would be the most suitable and safe option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Co-trimoxazole

      Correct Answer: Cefalexin

      Explanation:

      The use of antibiotics can impact the effectiveness of warfarin and other coumarin anticoagulants. This can lead to changes in the International Normalized Ratio (INR) and, in severe cases, increase the risk of bleeding. Some antibiotics, such as chloramphenicol, ciprofloxacin, co-trimoxazole, doxycycline, erythromycin, macrolides (e.g., clarithromycin), metronidazole, ofloxacin, and sulphonamide, are known to enhance the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. However, cefalexin is considered relatively safe and is the most suitable option in this situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) event has resulted in a...

    Incorrect

    • A suspected CBRN (chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear) event has resulted in a significant number of casualties. The primary clinical manifestations observed include restlessness, nausea and diarrhea, constricted airways, excessive production of saliva, profuse sweating, loss of muscle control, and seizures. Which of the following agents is the most probable cause for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mustard gas

      Correct Answer: VX gas

      Explanation:

      The symptoms observed in the casualties of this CBRN event strongly indicate exposure to a nerve agent. Among the options provided, VX gas is the only nerve agent listed, making it the most likely culprit.

      Nerve agents, also known as nerve gases, are a highly toxic group of chemical warfare agents that were developed just before and during World War II. The initial compounds in this category, known as the G agents, were discovered and synthesized by German scientists. They include Tabun (GA), Sarin (GB), and Soman (GD). In the 1950s, the V agents, which are approximately 10 times more poisonous than Sarin, were synthesized. These include Venomous agent X (VX), Venomous agent E (VE), Venomous agent G (VG), and Venomous agent M (VM).

      One of the most well-known incidents involving a nerve agent was the Tokyo subway sarin attack in March 1995. During this attack, Sarin was released into the Tokyo subway system during rush hour, resulting in over 5,000 people seeking medical attention. Among them, 984 were moderately poisoned, 54 were severely poisoned, and 12 lost their lives.

      Nerve agents are organophosphorus esters that are chemically related to organophosphorus insecticides. They work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase (AChE), an enzyme responsible for breaking down the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh). This inhibition leads to an accumulation of ACh at both muscarinic and nicotinic cholinergic receptors.

      Nerve agents can be absorbed through any body surface. When dispersed as a spray or aerosol, they can enter the body through the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract. In vapor form, they are primarily absorbed through the respiratory tract and eyes. If a sufficient amount of the agent is absorbed, it can cause local effects followed by systemic effects throughout the body.

      The clinical symptoms observed after exposure to nerve agents are a result of the combined effects on the muscarinic, nicotinic, and central nervous systems. Muscarinic effects, often remembered using the acronym DUMBBELS, include diarrhea, urination, miosis (constriction of the pupils), bronchorrhea (excessive mucus production in the airways), bronchospasm (narrowing of the airways), emesis (vomiting), lacrimation (excessive tearing), and salivation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Major Incident Management & PHEM
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department with a...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old female is brought into the emergency department with a one week history of worsening nausea, muscle cramps, fatigue, and weakness. You send urine and blood samples for analysis. The patient's observations and investigation results are shown below:

      Na+ 120 mmol/l
      K+ 5.3 mmol/l
      Urea 6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 87 µmol/l
      Glucose 5.5 mmol/l
      Urine osmolality 365 mosmol/kg
      Blood pressure 138/78 mmHg
      Pulse 82 bpm
      Respiration rate 18 bpm
      Oxygen saturations 97% on air

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: SIADH

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of nausea, muscle cramps, fatigue, and weakness are consistent with hyponatremia, which is a low sodium level in the blood. The blood test results show a low sodium level (Na+ 120 mmol/l) and normal potassium level (K+ 5.3 mmol/l), which is commonly seen in SIADH.

      Additionally, the urine osmolality of 365 mosmol/kg indicates concentrated urine, which is contrary to what would be expected in diabetes insipidus. In diabetes insipidus, the urine would be dilute due to the inability to concentrate urine properly.

      The patient’s blood pressure, pulse, respiration rate, and oxygen saturations are within normal range, which does not suggest a diagnosis of Addison’s disease or Conn’s syndrome.

      Therefore, based on the symptoms, laboratory results, and urine osmolality, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is SIADH.

      Further Reading:

      Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low sodium levels in the blood due to excessive secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH, also known as arginine vasopressin (AVP), is responsible for promoting water and sodium reabsorption in the body. SIADH occurs when there is impaired free water excretion, leading to euvolemic (normal fluid volume) hypotonic hyponatremia.

      There are various causes of SIADH, including malignancies such as small cell lung cancer, stomach cancer, and prostate cancer, as well as neurological conditions like stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and meningitis. Infections such as tuberculosis and pneumonia, as well as certain medications like thiazide diuretics and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can also contribute to SIADH.

      The diagnostic features of SIADH include low plasma osmolality, inappropriately elevated urine osmolality, urinary sodium levels above 30 mmol/L, and euvolemic. Symptoms of hyponatremia, which is a common consequence of SIADH, include nausea, vomiting, headache, confusion, lethargy, muscle weakness, seizures, and coma.

      Management of SIADH involves correcting hyponatremia slowly to avoid complications such as central pontine myelinolysis. The underlying cause of SIADH should be treated if possible, such as discontinuing causative medications. Fluid restriction is typically recommended, with a daily limit of around 1000 ml for adults. In severe cases with neurological symptoms, intravenous hypertonic saline may be used. Medications like demeclocycline, which blocks ADH receptors, or ADH receptor antagonists like tolvaptan may also be considered.

      It is important to monitor serum sodium levels closely during treatment, especially if using hypertonic saline, to prevent rapid correction that can lead to central pontine myelinolysis. Osmolality abnormalities can help determine the underlying cause of hyponatremia, with increased urine osmolality indicating dehydration or renal disease, and decreased urine osmolality suggesting SIADH or overhydration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 40-year-old woman undergoes a blood transfusion after giving birth. Soon after starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman undergoes a blood transfusion after giving birth. Soon after starting the transfusion, she experiences hives and itching all over her body. She is in good health otherwise and shows no signs of any problems with her airway or breathing.

      What is the most probable cause of this reaction to the blood transfusion?

      Your Answer: Rhesus incompatibility

      Correct Answer: Presence of foreign plasma proteins

      Explanation:

      Blood transfusion is a crucial treatment that can save lives, but it also comes with various risks and potential problems. These include immunological complications, administration errors, infections, and immune dilution. While there has been an improvement in safety procedures and a reduction in transfusion use, errors and serious adverse reactions still occur and often go unreported.

      Mild allergic reactions during blood transfusion are relatively common and typically occur within a few minutes of starting the transfusion. These reactions happen when patients have antibodies that react with foreign plasma proteins in the transfused blood components. Symptoms of mild allergic reactions include urticaria, Pruritus, and hives.

      Anaphylaxis, on the other hand, is much rarer and occurs when an individual has previously been sensitized to an allergen present in the blood. When re-exposed to the allergen, the body releases IgE or IgG antibodies, leading to severe symptoms such as bronchospasm, laryngospasm, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, hypotension, shock, and loss of consciousness. Anaphylaxis can be fatal.

      Mild allergic reactions can be managed by slowing down the transfusion rate and administering antihistamines. If there is no progression after 30 minutes, the transfusion may continue. Patients who have experienced repeated allergic reactions to transfusion should be given pre-treatment with chlorpheniramine. In cases of anaphylaxis, the transfusion should be stopped immediately, and the patient should receive oxygen, adrenaline, corticosteroids, and antihistamines following the ALS protocol.

      The table below summarizes the main transfusion reactions and complications, along with their features and management:

      Complication | Features | Management
      Febrile transfusion reaction | 1 degree rise in temperature, chills, malaise | Supportive care, paracetamol
      Acute haemolytic reaction | Fever, chills, pain at transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, dark urine | STOP THE TRANSFUSION, administer IV fluids, diuretics if necessary
      Delayed haemolytic reaction | Fever, anaemia, jaundice, haemoglobinuria | Monitor anaemia and renal function, treat as required
      Allergic reaction | Urticaria, Pruritus, hives | Symptomatic treatment with ant

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 57-year-old man comes in with a fever, difficulty breathing, and a cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes in with a fever, difficulty breathing, and a cough with phlegm. During the examination, you notice crackling sounds in his lower left lung. You diagnose him with community-acquired pneumonia.
      Which of the following statements is accurate about the CURB-65 scoring system?

      Your Answer: A heart rate of 114 bpm scores 1 point

      Correct Answer: A serum urea of 7.5 mmol/l scores 1 point

      Explanation:

      The CURB criteria, also referred to as the CURB-65 criteria, is a clinical prediction rule that has been scientifically proven to predict mortality in cases of community-acquired pneumonia. These criteria consist of five factors: confusion of new onset (AMTS <8), urea level greater than 7 mmol/l, respiratory rate exceeding 30 per minute, blood pressure below 90 mmHg systolic or 60 mmHg diastolic, and age over 65 years. Based on the score obtained from these criteria, the risk level can be determined. A score of 0-1 indicates a low-risk situation, where outpatient treatment is recommended. A score of 2-3 suggests a moderate risk, and either inpatient treatment or an ambulatory care pathway is recommended. A score of 4-5 indicates a high risk, requiring hospitalization and potentially critical care involvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old woman comes in with a history of urgency, bloody diarrhea, and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman comes in with a history of urgency, bloody diarrhea, and crampy abdominal pain for the past 8 weeks. She occasionally experiences pain before having a bowel movement, but it is relieved once the stool is passed. A sigmoidoscopy is conducted, and a rectal biopsy reveals the presence of inflammatory cell infiltrate and crypt abscesses.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      In a young patient who has been experiencing bloody diarrhea for more than 6 weeks, it is important to consider inflammatory bowel disease as a possible diagnosis. The challenge lies in distinguishing between ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease. In this case, a biopsy was performed and the results showed the presence of inflammatory cell infiltrate and crypt abscesses, which strongly suggests a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis.

      Ulcerative colitis:
      – Typically affects only the rectum and colon
      – The terminal ileum may be affected if backwash ileitis occurs
      – Does not have skip lesions (areas of normal mucosa between affected areas)
      – Decreased incidence in smokers
      – Common associations include liver conditions such as primary biliary cirrhosis, chronic active hepatitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis
      – Other systemic manifestations are less common compared to Crohn’s disease
      – Pathological features include primarily affecting the mucosa and submucosa, presence of mucosal ulcers, inflammatory cell infiltrate, and crypt abscesses
      – Clinical features include less prominent abdominal pain, bloody diarrhea in 90% of cases, passage of mucus, and possible fever
      – Barium studies may show a granular appearance, button-shaped ulcers, and loss of normal haustral markings
      – Complications include a 20-fold increase in the 20-year risk of colonic carcinoma, iron deficiency anemia, and rare occurrence of fistulae

      Crohn’s disease:
      – Can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract from the mouth to the anus
      – May have skip lesions of normal mucosa between affected areas
      – Increased incidence in smokers
      – Systemic manifestations are more common compared to ulcerative colitis, including erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum, iritis/uveitis, cholelithiasis, and joint pain/arthropathy
      – Pathological features include transmural inflammation, presence of lymphoid aggregates and neutrophil infiltrates, and non-caseating granulomas seen in 30% of cases
      – Clinical features include more prominent abdominal pain, common occurrence of diarrhea (which can also be bloody), frequent and oral lesions, and possible fever
      – Barium studies may show severe mucosal ulcers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old man presents with brief episodes of vertigo that are worse in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with brief episodes of vertigo that are worse in the evening and is triggered by head movement and turning in bed. Each episode lasts only a couple of minutes. He experiences nausea during the attacks but has not vomited. He has no previous history of hearing loss or tinnitus.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

      Explanation:

      Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) occurs when there is dysfunction in the inner ear. This dysfunction causes the otoliths, which are located in the utricle, to become dislodged from their normal position and migrate into one of the semicircular canals over time. As a result, these detached otoliths continue to move even after head movement has stopped, leading to vertigo due to the conflicting sensation of ongoing movement with other sensory inputs.

      While the majority of BPPV cases have no identifiable cause (idiopathic), approximately 40% of cases can be attributed to factors such as head injury, spontaneous labyrinthine degeneration, post-viral illness, middle ear surgery, or chronic middle ear disease.

      The main clinical features of BPPV include symptoms that are provoked by head movement, rolling over, and upward gaze. These episodes are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are often worse in the mornings. Unlike other inner ear disorders, BPPV does not cause hearing loss or tinnitus. Nausea is a common symptom, while vomiting is rare. The Dix-Hallpike test can be used to confirm the diagnosis of BPPV.

      It is important to note that vestibular suppressant medications have not been proven to be beneficial in managing BPPV. These medications do not improve symptoms or reduce the duration of the disease.

      The treatment of choice for BPPV is the Epley manoeuvre. This maneuver aims to reposition the dislodged otoliths back into the utricles from the semicircular canals. A 2014 Cochrane review concluded that the Epley manoeuvre is a safe and effective treatment for BPPV, with a number needed to treat of 2-4.

      Referral to an ENT specialist is recommended for patients with BPPV in the following situations: if the treating clinician is unable to perform or access the Epley manoeuvre, if the Epley manoeuvre has not been beneficial after repeated attempts (minimum two), if the patient has been symptomatic for more than 4 weeks, or if the patient has experienced more than 3 episodes of BPPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
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