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Question 1
Correct
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What is the location of the Billroth cords?
Your Answer: Splenic red pulp
Explanation:Anatomy and Function of the Spleen
The spleen is composed of two types of tissue: red pulp and white pulp. The red pulp consists of cords and sinusoids, while the white pulp contains B-zones and marginal zones similar to a lymph node. Blood enters the red pulp through branches of the splenic arterioles and flows into the cords. These cords are filled with blood and contain numerous macrophages, and they are lined by sinusoids. Red blood cells pass through the cords and enter the sinusoids by squeezing through gaps between endothelial cells. This process requires a stable red cell membrane.
If red blood cells are damaged, they will lyse and be phagocytosed by macrophages in the cords. Red cells that do pass into the sinusoids continue into the splenic venules and eventually exit the spleen through the splenic vein. The spleen plays an important role in filtering blood and removing damaged red blood cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man of South Asian descent is experiencing a productive cough with occasional pink-coloured sputum for the past two weeks. He has also been having a fever, night sweats, and unintentional weight loss during this period. Upon examination, a chest x-ray confirms the diagnosis, revealing cavitary patterns in the superior lobe of the right lung, with more radiopaque walls of the air-filled cavities. What serum electrolyte is most likely to be elevated in this patient?
Your Answer: Cl−
Correct Answer: Ca2+
Explanation:The Link Between Granulomatous Diseases and Hypercalcaemia
In diseases such as tuberculosis and sarcoidosis, where granuloma formation is the main pathological mechanism, activated macrophages increase serum levels of calcium. This is due to the production of calcitriol or the active form of vitamin D, which increases calcium absorption in the small intestine and reabsorption in the renal parenchyma.
Normally, hypercalcaemia inhibits the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH), which reduces osteoclastic activity and decreases the amount of calcitriol being released. However, in granulomatous diseases, sustained activation of macrophages produces increased amounts of calcitriol without regard to the negative feedback mechanism. As a result, the walls of air-filled cavities become calcified due to the sustained hypercalcaemia, making them more radiopaque.
In summary, granulomatous diseases can lead to hypercalcaemia due to sustained activation of macrophages and increased production of calcitriol. This can result in calcification of air-filled cavities and increased radiopacity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A neonatal hearing screening program screened 10,000 newborns using otoacoustic emissions (OAE), which has a sensitivity of 80%. Out of the screened subjects, 200 failed the test and were invited for a brainstem auditory evoked potential (BAEP) test, which is the gold standard for diagnosing hearing impairment in newborns. The BAEP test confirmed that 100 of the 200 subjects had hearing impairment. What is the correct statement regarding this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: If the prevalence of hearing impairment increases, the positive predictive value of OAE will increase
Explanation:The Impact of Disease Prevalence on Screening Test Results
Screening tests are commonly used to detect the presence of a disease in a population. The accuracy of a screening test is typically measured by its sensitivity and specificity, which are not significantly affected by the prevalence of the disease. However, the positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV) of a screening test can be influenced by disease prevalence.
When the prevalence of a disease increases, the PPV of a screening test will also increase. This means that a positive test result is more likely to be a true positive when the disease is more common in the population. On the other hand, the NPV of a screening test will decrease as disease prevalence increases. This means that a negative test result is less likely to be a true negative when the disease is more prevalent.
Therefore, it is important to consider disease prevalence when interpreting the results of a screening test. A high PPV indicates a greater likelihood of disease presence, while a low NPV suggests a higher risk of false negatives. Healthcare professionals should take into account the prevalence of the disease in the population being screened to accurately interpret the results of a screening test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Incorrect
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While taking a patient's medical history, you discover that there is a significant family history of a particular disease. Diseases that are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner typically manifest in early adulthood due to structural gene abnormalities, with both males and females being affected equally. Which of the following diseases does not follow an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis
Explanation:Abnormal Binding Proteins Resulting in Iron Deposition and Multiple Organ Dysfunction
Iron deposition due to an abnormality in binding proteins can lead to various health complications. This condition is characterized by the deposition of iron in different organs, including the heart, liver, pancreas, and skin. The abnormality in binding proteins results in the accumulation of iron in these organs, leading to cardiomyopathy, cirrhosis, pancreatic failure, and skin pigmentation.
This condition is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern, meaning that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent, to develop the condition. The recessive form of this condition is also known as infantile polycystic kidney disease, which predominantly affects children.
Overall, iron deposition due to an abnormality in binding proteins can cause multiple organ dysfunction and can be inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. Early diagnosis and management of this condition are crucial to prevent further complications and improve the quality of life of affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A study investigates a novel diagnostic test for myocardial infarction (MI) in elderly patients. What metric would indicate the proportion of elderly patients without MI who received a negative test result?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Specificity
Explanation:The Specificity, Negative Predictive Value, Sensitivity, and Positive Predictive Value of a Medical Test
Medical tests are designed to accurately identify the presence or absence of a particular condition. In evaluating the effectiveness of a medical test, several measures are used, including specificity, negative predictive value, sensitivity, and positive predictive value. Specificity refers to the number of individuals without the condition who are accurately identified as such by the test. On the other hand, sensitivity refers to the number of individuals with the condition who are correctly identified by the test.
The negative predictive value of a medical test refers to the proportion of true negatives who are correctly identified by the test. This means that the test accurately identifies individuals who do not have the condition. The positive predictive value, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of true positives who are correctly identified by the test. This means that the test accurately identifies individuals who have the condition.
In summary, the specificity, negative predictive value, sensitivity, and positive predictive value of a medical test is crucial in evaluating its effectiveness in accurately identifying the presence or absence of a particular condition. These measures help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about patient care and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with symptoms of altered bowel habit and weight loss for the past eight weeks. After undergoing screening for faecal occult blood, he is diagnosed with colorectal carcinoma. A biopsy reveals that the tumour has invaded the muscularis propria, but there is no evidence of metastases in the local lymph nodes. What is the likely stage of this cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duke's stage B
Explanation:Duke’s Staging and Prognostic Value
Duke’s staging system is a useful tool in predicting the prognosis of colorectal cancer patients. The system was developed by Cuthbert Duke, a pathologist from the United Kingdom, in the 1930s. The staging system is based on the extent of tumor invasion and lymph node involvement.
Stage A refers to tumors that are confined to the mucosa, with a five-year survival rate of 90%. Stage B includes tumors that have invaded through the muscularis propria but have no lymph node involvement, with a five-year survival rate of 60%. Stage C includes tumors that have spread to the lymph nodes, with a five-year survival rate of 30%. Finally, stage D describes patients with metastatic disease.
The Duke’s staging system is a valuable tool for clinicians in determining the prognosis of colorectal cancer patients. It provides a clear of the extent of the disease and helps in making treatment decisions. The system has been widely used for many years and has proven to be a reliable predictor of survival rates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the substrate utilized for gluconeogenesis in humans?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lactate
Explanation:Substrates for Gluconeogenesis
Gluconeogenesis is the process of creating glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. The main substrates used for gluconeogenesis include lactate, alanine, pyruvate, other amino acids, and glycerol. Lactate is produced in non-hepatic tissues, such as muscle during exercise, and can travel to the liver to be converted back into glucose. This process is known as the Cori cycle. Alanine can also be used as a substrate for gluconeogenesis, as it travels to the liver. Pyruvate, produced during anaerobic circumstances, can be converted into alanine by the enzyme alanine aminotransferase (ALT).
Almost all amino acids present in proteins, except for leucine and lysine, can be converted into intermediates of the Krebs cycle, allowing them to be used for gluconeogenesis. This is a crucial source of new glucose during prolonged fasting. Additionally, the glycerol backbone from dietary triglycerides can be used for gluconeogenesis. However, propionate has a minimal role in humans, despite being a major substrate for gluconeogenesis in animals. the substrates used for gluconeogenesis is important for how the body creates glucose from non-carbohydrate sources.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man recovering in hospital from a knee replacement experiences increasing difficulty breathing. He also has a fever and has started coughing. The medical team suspects he may have a lower respiratory tract infection.
Which of the following anatomical features is not susceptible to a lower respiratory tract infection?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pharynx
Explanation:The Respiratory Tract and its Infections
The respiratory tract can be divided into two parts: the upper and lower respiratory tract. The upper respiratory tract consists of the nose, nasal passages, paranasal sinuses, pharynx, and larynx. On the other hand, the lower respiratory tract includes the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli, which are all located distal to the trachea.
Acute upper respiratory tract infections are usually caused by viruses and can affect the nose, sinuses, pharynx, and larynx. These infections include rhinosinusitis, pharyngitis, and laryngitis. Symptoms of these infections may include coughing, sneezing, sore throat, and nasal congestion.
Lower respiratory tract infections, on the other hand, are more severe and can affect the bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli. These infections include pneumonia, bronchitis, and lung abscesses. Symptoms of lower respiratory tract infections may include coughing, chest pain, shortness of breath, and fever.
It is important to understand the different parts of the respiratory tract and the infections that can affect them. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and promote recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man who had mitral valve surgery three months ago comes in with worsening dyspnea. An echocardiogram reveals vegetations on the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve. What is the probable causative agent?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Explanation:Endocarditis and Common Causative Organisms
Endocarditis is a condition where the inner lining of the heart, particularly the valves, becomes infected. Staphylococcus aureus is the most frequent cause of endocarditis within six months of cardiac surgery. A woman who presents with cardiac failure due to acute endocarditis can be diagnosed through echocardiography, which shows vegetation, and other clinical parameters. However, blood cultures are also necessary to identify the organism responsible for the infection. Given the recent history of valvular surgery, Staphylococcus aureus contamination during the operation is the most likely cause. Coagulase negative Staphylococcus should also be considered. Streptococcus pyogenes is the second most common cause of infective endocarditis, but it tends to cause subacute disease with symptoms such as fever, weight loss, general malaise, and anemia. Although all other organisms can cause infective endocarditis, they are less common causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate description of the histological composition of tendons?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dense regularly arranged connective tissue
Explanation:Types of Connective Tissue and Their Locations
Connective tissue is a type of tissue that provides support and structure to the body. There are different types of connective tissue, each with its own unique characteristics and functions. Dense regular connective tissue is found in ligaments, tendons, and aponeuroses. This type of tissue is composed of tightly packed collagen fibers that are arranged in parallel bundles. It provides strength and stability to the structures it supports.
Dense irregular connective tissue, on the other hand, is found in the dermis and periosteum. This type of tissue is composed of collagen fibers that are arranged in a random pattern. It provides strength and support to the skin and bones.
Elastic fibers are another type of connective tissue that is found in elastic ligaments such as ligamenta flava. These fibers are composed of elastin, a protein that allows the tissue to stretch and recoil.
Finally, large collagenous fibers are seen in cartilage. This type of connective tissue is found in the joints and provides cushioning and support to the bones. Overall, connective tissue plays an important role in maintaining the structure and function of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old obese male patient complains of a painful and swollen big toe accompanied by a mild fever. Given his history of gout, it is suspected to be the underlying cause of his current symptoms. Which blood test is the most useful in confirming a diagnosis of gout?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum urate
Explanation:Diagnosing Gout: the Tests and Procedures
Gout is a condition that occurs when urate crystals accumulate in the joints, leading to an intense inflammatory response. While several blood tests can help rule out other conditions, the most specific test for gout is the measurement of serum urate levels. However, it’s important to note that gout can still be present even without hyperuricemia, especially during an acute attack. Chondrocalcinosis, a condition characterized by calcium pyrophosphate deposition, can also be mistaken for gout.
To definitively diagnose gout, a joint aspiration procedure is necessary. This involves extracting fluid from the affected joint and examining it under polarized microscopy. Urate crystals are needle-shaped and exhibit negative birefringence, which is a key characteristic of gout.
In summary, diagnosing gout requires a combination of blood tests and joint aspiration procedures. While serum urate levels are the most specific blood test for gout, joint aspiration is necessary to confirm the presence of urate crystals. By these tests and procedures, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat gout, improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What type of cell is responsible for the production of gastric acid in the stomach?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parietal cell
Explanation:Types of Cells and Their Functions in the Body
There are different types of cells in the body that perform specific functions. One of these is the Amine Precursor Uptake and Decarboxylation (APUD) cells, which are endocrine cells that secrete hormones such as gastrin and cholecystokinin. These hormones aid in the digestion process. Another type of cell is the Chief cells, which produce pepsinogen to help break down food in the stomach. Kupffer cells, on the other hand, are a specialized form of macrophage found in the liver. They play a crucial role in removing bacteria and other harmful substances from the blood. Lastly, mucous cells produce mucous, which helps protect and lubricate the body’s internal organs. the functions of these different types of cells is important in maintaining overall health and wellness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which Korotkoff sound indicates that the diastolic pressure has been reached during blood pressure measurement?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fifth
Explanation:Korotkoff Sounds
Korotkoff sounds are the sounds heard when taking blood pressure readings. There are five phases of Korotkoff sounds, each indicating different stages of blood pressure. The first phase is a tapping sound, which indicates the systolic pressure. The second phase is a swooshing sound or murmurs. The third phase is a crisp tapping sound, while the fourth phase is a muffled, blowing sound. The fifth and final phase is silence.
Older textbooks used to state that the fourth Korotkoff sound indicate diastolic pressure, but now the fifth sound is used preferentially. To take a blood pressure reading, the cuff is inflated and then slowly reduced. The first tapping sound heard is the systolic pressure. The cuff is then further deflated until silence is heard, which indicates the diastolic pressure. Korotkoff sounds is important for accurate blood pressure readings and proper diagnosis and treatment of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which nerve provides the motor supply to the brachialis muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Radial and musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation:The Brachialis Muscle: Anatomy and Innervation
The brachialis muscle is responsible for flexing the forearm and is located in the anterior half of the humerus and intermuscular septa. It attaches to the coronoid process and tuberosity of the ulna at the elbow joint. The main nerve supply for the brachialis muscle is the musculocutaneous nerve, with C6 and radial nerve also playing a role. Additionally, the lateral part of the brachialis muscle is supplied by branches from the C7 root. Overall, the brachialis muscle is an important muscle for forearm flexion and is innervated by multiple nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What muscles are responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle joint?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibialis anterior
Explanation:Muscles Involved in Ankle and Toe Movements
The tibialis anterior muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion of the ankle joint, which means it helps lift the foot upwards towards the shin. On the other hand, the tibialis posterior, soleus, and gastrocnemius muscles are involved in plantar flexion, which is the movement of pointing the foot downwards. These muscles work together to push the foot off the ground during walking or running.
Another muscle involved in foot movement is the flexor digitorum longus, which is responsible for flexion of the second to fifth toes. This muscle helps curl the toes downwards towards the sole of the foot. All of these muscles play important roles in the complex movements of the foot and ankle, allowing us to walk, run, jump, and perform other activities that require precise control of our lower limbs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Psoas
Explanation:Muscles and their Functions in Joint Movement
The hip joint has three main flexors, namely the iliacus, psoas, and rectus femoris muscles. These muscles are responsible for flexing the hip joint, which is the movement of bringing the thigh towards the abdomen. On the other hand, the gluteus maximus and medius muscles are involved in hip extension, which is the movement of bringing the thigh backward.
Moving on to the elbow joint, the bicep femoris muscle is one of the primary flexors. This muscle is responsible for bending the elbow, which is the movement of bringing the forearm towards the upper arm. Lastly, the adductor brevis muscle is responsible for adducting the leg at the hip joint, which is the movement of bringing the leg towards the midline of the body.
In summary, muscles play a crucial role in joint movement. the functions of these muscles can help in identifying and addressing issues related to joint movement and mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A clinical research group is conducting a study on diabetes epidemiology. As part of the study, researchers are collecting data on the age profile of a sample population in India.
Among the various data collected, one of the variables was the age of a person. This was divided into four categories: under 18, 18-30, 30-50, and over 50. Respondents were asked to select one of these four options.
What is this type of variable called?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ordinal categorical variable
Explanation:Different Types of Data
When analyzing data, it is important to understand the different types of variables that can be encountered. One such variable is socio-economic status, which is not a numerical value but can be categorized into four ordinal categories. Ordinal categorical data has a logical order to its categorization, but mathematical functions cannot be performed with the numbers assigned to each category.
Continuous metric data, on the other hand, can take any value and allows for mathematical functions to be performed. Examples of continuous data include height and weight. Discrete metric data is numerical but only takes certain values, such as the number of children in a family. Nominal categorical data has no hierarchy or gradation, such as blood group or yes/no questions.
Normal parametric data assumes that variables are normally distributed, but this may not be the case for small sample populations. It is important to note that data can often fall into multiple categories. For example, systolic blood pressure can be considered continuous metric data, but in practice, it is often recorded as integers, making it somewhat like a discrete variable. Additionally, if a cut-off point is used, such as 140 mmHg, the data may become dichotomous and fall into the nominal category. the different types of data is crucial for accurate analysis and interpretation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old male with a BMI of 31 kg/m2 presents with bilateral lower limb cellulitis. A urine dipstick shows glycosuria ++. What test would be most effective in diagnosing type 2 diabetes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fasting blood glucose and HbA1c
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes
An infection can often lead to the diagnosis of diabetes. To determine if a patient has diabetes, a standard 75 gram glucose load is given and an oral glucose tolerance test is carried out after random and fasting blood glucose tests. It is important to note that a random blood glucose sample may not provide accurate results, and the best way to diagnose type 2 diabetes in a patient is through a fasting glucose test. However, an HbA1c test is now widely accepted as a standard test for diagnosing diabetes and is used in place of fasting blood glucose by some healthcare professionals. It is important to accurately diagnose diabetes in patients to ensure proper treatment and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which statement about the internal jugular vein and its relations is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lies lateral to the common carotid artery
Explanation:The Path of the Internal Jugular Vein
The internal jugular vein begins at the jugular foramen and is initially located behind the carotid artery. As it descends in the carotid sheath, it moves to the side of the internal and common carotid arteries. Eventually, it passes in front of the subclavian artery and joins with the subclavian vein to form the brachiocephalic vein. The left and right brachiocephalic veins then come together to create the superior vena cava. At the point where the internal jugular vein meets the subclavian vein, it receives a lymphatic trunk. The external jugular vein, on the other hand, drains into the subclavian vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is diagnosed with a vitamin B1 deficiency. What food is known to be a rich source of thiamine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wheat germ
Explanation:Thiamine Deficiency and Dietary Sources
Thiamine, also known as vitamin B1, is an essential nutrient that the body cannot store in large amounts and must be obtained through the diet. Wholegrain cereals, oatmeal, yeast, pork, sunflower seeds, and certain vegetables such as potatoes, asparagus, and cauliflower are good dietary sources of thiamine. However, refined cereals and white flour typically contain low levels of thiamine, and processing, boiling, and overcooking vegetables can remove a significant amount of the vitamin.
Thiamine plays a crucial role in energy production, nervous transmission, and collagen synthesis. A deficiency in thiamine can lead to impairment of these processes, resulting in various signs and symptoms such as muscle tenderness, weakness, and reduced reflexes, confusion, memory impairment, impaired wound healing, poor balance, falls, constipation, and reduced appetite. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of thiamine through a balanced diet to prevent deficiency and maintain optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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