00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of occasional palpitations and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of occasional palpitations and feeling lightheaded. He reports no chest pain, shortness of breath, or swelling in his legs. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found. An ECG reveals a shortened PR interval and the presence of delta waves. What is the underlying pathophysiology of the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sodium channelopathy

      Correct Answer: Accessory pathway

      Explanation:

      The presence of intermittent palpitations and lightheadedness can be indicative of various conditions, but the detection of a shortened PR interval and delta wave on an ECG suggests the possibility of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. This syndrome arises from an additional pathway connecting the atrium and ventricle.

      Understanding Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome

      Wolff-Parkinson White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that occurs due to a congenital accessory conducting pathway between the atria and ventricles, leading to atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT). This condition can cause AF to degenerate rapidly into VF as the accessory pathway does not slow conduction. The ECG features of WPW include a short PR interval, wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke known as a delta wave, and left or right axis deviation depending on the location of the accessory pathway. WPW is associated with various conditions such as HOCM, mitral valve prolapse, Ebstein’s anomaly, thyrotoxicosis, and secundum ASD.

      The definitive treatment for WPW is radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway. Medical therapy options include sotalol, amiodarone, and flecainide. However, sotalol should be avoided if there is coexistent atrial fibrillation as it may increase the ventricular rate and potentially deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation. WPW can be differentiated into type A and type B based on the presence or absence of a dominant R wave in V1. It is important to understand WPW and its associations to provide appropriate management and prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which type of cell makes up the majority of yellow bone marrow? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of cell makes up the majority of yellow bone marrow?

      Your Answer: Chondrocytes

      Correct Answer: Adipocytes

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of Bones and Bone Marrow

      Bones are composed of two types of bone tissue: compact bone and cancellous bone. The medullary cavity is located within the cancellous bone and contains trabeculae. Blood vessels and bone marrow are also present within the cavity. The bone marrow is responsible for producing blood cells, with red marrow being the site of active haematopoiesis. Yellow marrow, on the other hand, is predominantly made up of adipocytes and fibroblasts.

      Chondrocytes are specialized cells found in cartilage that secrete the collagen matrix. Fibroblasts also contribute to the extracellular matrix by secreting collagen. Haematopoietic stem cells are found in bone marrow and are the common ancestor of all haematologic cells. Megakaryocytes, which are also found in bone marrow, are the precursor to platelets. the anatomy of bones and bone marrow is crucial in their functions and the processes that occur within them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with rectal cancer, is about to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with rectal cancer, is about to undergo an anterior resection surgery. During pre-operative discussions, she expresses her worries about experiencing pain after the surgery. You explain to her the different options available for pain relief after major bowel surgery.

      What is the recommended method of pain management after major bowel surgery?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Correct Answer: Epidural analgesia

      Explanation:

      For pain relief after major bowel surgery, epidural analgesia is the preferred method. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like diclofenac can hinder healing and increase the risk of anastomotic leak, so they are not commonly used. While paracetamol is the initial step in the WHO pain ladder, it may not be sufficient on its own after major bowel surgery. Local anesthesia can be effective for localized pain, but it is not the optimal form of pain relief.

      The management of pain can involve the use of various drugs and techniques. The World Health Organisation and World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists have developed guidelines for the use of analgesics, starting with peripherally acting drugs and progressing to weak and strong opioids. Local anaesthetics can also be used, either for anaesthesia during surgery or for postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anaesthesia are other options, but have potential side effects and limitations. Transversus Abdominis Plane blocks are a newer technique that can provide wide field blockade without the need for indwelling devices. Patient Controlled Analgesia allows patients to self-administer intravenous analgesia. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine can be effective but have potential side effects and limitations. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, but have their own contraindications and limitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 73-year-old male slips on ice and falls, resulting in a right intertrochanteric...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old male slips on ice and falls, resulting in a right intertrochanteric hip fracture. Due to his cardiac comorbidities, the anesthesiologist opts for a spinal anaesthetic over general anaesthesia. Can you list the anatomical order in which the needle passes to reach cerebrospinal fluid?

      Your Answer: Skin -> ligamentum flavum -> interspinous ligament -> supraspinous ligament -> epidural space -> subdural space -> subarachnoid space

      Correct Answer: Skin -> supraspinous ligament -> interspinous ligament -> ligamentum flavum -> epidural space -> subdural space -> subarachnoid space

      Explanation:

      To reach the cerebrospinal fluid in the subarachnoid space during a mid-line approach to a spinal anaesthetic, the needle must pass through three ligaments and two meningeal layers. These include the supraspinatus ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, epidural space, subdural space, and subarachnoid space. Local anaesthetics, such as bupivacaine with or without opioids, are injected into the CSF to block Na+ channels and inhibit the action potential. This can reduce surgical stress and sympathetic stimulation in high-risk patients, but may also lead to vasodilation and hypotension. Spinal anaesthesia may be contraindicated in patients with coagulopathy, severe hypovolemia, increased intracranial pressure, severe aortic or mitral stenosis, or infection over the overlying skin.

      Anatomy of the Vertebral Column

      The vertebral column is composed of 33 vertebrae, which are divided into four regions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral. The cervical region has seven vertebrae, the thoracic region has twelve, the lumbar region has five, and the sacral region has five. However, the spinal cord segmental levels do not always correspond to the vertebral segments. For example, the C8 cord is located at the C7 vertebrae, and the T12 cord is situated at the T8 vertebrae.

      The cervical vertebrae are located in the neck and are responsible for controlling the muscles of the upper extremities. The C3 cord contains the phrenic nucleus, which controls the diaphragm. The thoracic vertebrae are defined by those that have a rib and control the intercostal muscles and associated dermatomes. The lumbosacral vertebrae are located in the lower back and control the hip and leg muscles, as well as the buttocks and anal regions.

      The spinal cord ends at the L1-L2 vertebral level, and below this level is a spray of spinal roots called the cauda equina. Injuries below L2 represent injuries to spinal roots rather than the spinal cord proper. Understanding the anatomy of the vertebral column is essential for diagnosing and treating spinal cord injuries and other related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of severe abdominal pain, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Upon examination, she has a distended abdomen that is tender to the touch, and bowel sounds are infrequent. Her medical history includes a hysterectomy and cholecystectomy. A CT scan is ordered, which reveals a bowel obstruction at the L1 level. What is the most likely affected area?

      Your Answer: Ileum

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The 2nd segment of the duodenum is situated at the transpyloric plane, which corresponds to the level of L1 and is a significant anatomical reference point.

      The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.

      Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.

      In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.

      Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      42.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Sophie is a 5-year-old girl who has presented with a complicated urinary tract...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 5-year-old girl who has presented with a complicated urinary tract infection. She has been treated with the most appropriate antibiotic for 72-hours now and there is no improvement.

      What is the appropriate action to take regarding an ultrasound scan?

      Your Answer: He will not need an ultrasound scan. He should have a urine sample taking for microscopy

      Correct Answer: He will need an ultrasound scan during the course of the infection

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, an ultrasound scan should be performed on all children who present with a UTI and abnormal features during the acute phase of the infection. This is particularly important in cases of complicated UTIs, where there is no improvement in symptoms after 72 hours of appropriate treatment. It is crucial to perform the ultrasound scan during the infection rather than waiting for six weeks, as there could be underlying issues that need to be addressed. It is important to note that the need for an ultrasound scan should not compromise the need for further urine sampling or a change in antibiotics. Additionally, an ultrasound scan is a non-invasive procedure that poses no direct risk of infection and will not exacerbate the UTI.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children require investigation to identify any underlying causes and potential kidney damage. Unlike in adults, the development of a UTI in childhood may indicate renal scarring. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging the urinary tract for infants under six months who present with their first UTI and respond to treatment, within six weeks. Children over six months who respond to treatment do not require imaging unless there are features suggestive of an atypical infection, such as being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.

      Further investigations may include a urine microscopy and culture, as only 50% of children with a UTI have pyuria, making microscopy or dipstick of the urine inadequate for diagnosis. A static radioisotope scan, such as DMSA, can identify renal scars and should be done 4-6 months after the initial infection. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) can identify vesicoureteral reflux and is only recommended for infants under six months who present with atypical or recurrent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      25.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage III lung cancer and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with stage III lung cancer and is concerned about potential complications. What are the risks he may face?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's disease

      Correct Answer: Pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Pneumothorax is more likely to occur in individuals with lung cancer.

      Pneumothorax: Characteristics and Risk Factors

      Pneumothorax is a medical condition characterized by the presence of air in the pleural cavity, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This condition can occur spontaneously or as a result of trauma or medical procedures. There are several risk factors associated with pneumothorax, including pre-existing lung diseases such as COPD, asthma, cystic fibrosis, lung cancer, and Pneumocystis pneumonia. Connective tissue diseases like Marfan’s syndrome and rheumatoid arthritis can also increase the risk of pneumothorax. Ventilation, including non-invasive ventilation, can also be a risk factor.

      Symptoms of pneumothorax tend to come on suddenly and can include dyspnoea, chest pain (often pleuritic), sweating, tachypnoea, and tachycardia. In some cases, catamenial pneumothorax can be the cause of spontaneous pneumothoraces occurring in menstruating women. This type of pneumothorax is thought to be caused by endometriosis within the thorax. Early diagnosis and treatment of pneumothorax are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with confused speech and weakness...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with confused speech and weakness on the right side. During the examination, you observe weakness in the right upper limb, but no sensory loss. The patient appears perplexed when answering questions, and her speech is incoherent and nonsensical. What region of the brain is responsible for receptive dysphasia?

      Your Answer: Wernicke's area

      Explanation:

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old male comes to his doctor concerned about the color of his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old male comes to his doctor concerned about the color of his skin. He works as a fashion model and has noticed a slight yellowing of his skin. Upon further inquiry, he confesses to experiencing occasional right-sided abdominal pain that resolves on its own. Additionally, he has been experiencing itchy palms for the past three days. The patient has no significant medical history except for a recent chest infection. He remains healthy and active.

      What is the cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      The use of macrolides, specifically erythromycin, can lead to drug-induced cholestasis. The patient in this scenario is exhibiting symptoms of cholestasis, which is likely caused by erythromycin. While erythromycin is an antibiotic used to treat pneumonia, newer macrolides like azithromycin and clarithromycin are now preferred. While other medications can also cause cholestasis, there is no indication in this scenario that the patient is taking any of them, making erythromycin the most likely culprit.

      Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.

      However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.

      Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old individual is currently undergoing tuberculosis treatment and is being administered vitamin...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old individual is currently undergoing tuberculosis treatment and is being administered vitamin B6 (pyridoxine). What is the primary function of vitamin B6 in the human body?

      Vitamin B6, also known as pyridoxine, plays a crucial role in various bodily functions. It is essential for the metabolism of amino acids, which are the building blocks of proteins. Vitamin B6 also aids in the production of neurotransmitters, such as serotonin and dopamine, which are responsible for regulating mood and behavior. Additionally, it is involved in the synthesis of hemoglobin, which is the protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body. Therefore, the administration of vitamin B6 as part of tuberculosis treatment may help support the body's immune system and aid in the recovery process.

      Your Answer: Production of serotonin

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin B6 in the Human Body

      Vitamin B6, also known as pyridoxine, plays a crucial role in various functions of the human body. One of its primary functions is the production of neurotransmitters such as serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine, which are essential for regulating mood, behavior, and cognitive processes. Additionally, vitamin B6 acts as a cofactor in cellular reactions required for collagen synthesis, lipid metabolism, and red blood cell function.

      The body’s requirement for vitamin B6 increases during periods of growth, pregnancy, and lactation. Consumption of coffee and alcohol, smoking, and certain chronic diseases can also increase the body’s need for this vitamin. Moreover, a high protein diet and administration of certain medications, including azathioprine, corticosteroids, chloramphenicol, oestrogens, levo dopa, isoniazid, penicillamine, and phenytoin, can also increase the body’s demand for vitamin B6.

      In some cases, pyridoxine supplementation is necessary, especially for individuals taking isoniazid for tuberculosis. The long treatment regimen required to eliminate tuberculosis increases the risk of vitamin B6 deficiency. Therefore, it is essential to ensure adequate intake of vitamin B6 through a balanced diet or supplementation to maintain optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      34.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old man is being evaluated at the liver clinic of his local...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is being evaluated at the liver clinic of his local hospital. The physician in charge observes that he has developed ascites due to secondary hyperaldosteronism, which is common in patients with liver cirrhosis. To counteract the elevated aldosterone levels by blocking its action in the nephron, she intends to initiate a diuretic.

      Which part of the nephron is the diuretic most likely to target in this patient?

      Your Answer: Thick ascending limb of the Loop of Henle

      Correct Answer: Cortical collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist on the cortical collecting ducts. It is the first-line treatment for controlling ascites in this gentleman as it blocks the secondary hyperaldosteronism underlying the condition. The main site of action for spironolactone’s diuretic effects is the cortical collecting duct.

      Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.

      However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor,...

    Correct

    • When two medical conditions are related through the presence of a confounding factor, the association is said to be:

      Your Answer: Indirect

      Explanation:

      Association and Causation: Understanding the Difference

      Association refers to the relationship between two variables where one is more commonly found in the presence of the other. However, not all associations are causal. There are three types of association: spurious, indirect, and direct. Spurious associations are those that arise by chance and are not real, while indirect associations are due to the presence of another factor, also known as a confounding variable. Direct associations, on the other hand, are true associations not linked by a third variable.

      To establish causation, the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria are used. These criteria include strength, temporality, specificity, coherence, and consistency. The strength of the association is an important factor in determining causation, as a stronger association is more likely to be truly causal. Temporality refers to whether the exposure precedes the outcome, while specificity asks whether the suspected cause is associated with a specific outcome or disease. Coherence considers whether the association fits with other biological knowledge, and consistency looks at whether the same association is found in many studies.

      Understanding the difference between association and causation is important in research and decision-making. While an association may suggest a relationship between two variables, it does not necessarily mean that one causes the other. By using the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria, researchers can determine whether an association is truly causal and make informed decisions based on their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 57-year-old man is diagnosed with angina and prescribed medications for symptom control...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is diagnosed with angina and prescribed medications for symptom control and secondary prevention. The doctor advises him to make dietary changes to address excess fat in the blood that can lead to angina. During the explanation, the doctor asks which apolipoprotein macrophages recognize to uptake lipids under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer: ApoA-I

      Correct Answer: ApoB100

      Explanation:

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Samantha, a 23-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after falling on her...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 23-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after falling on her outstretched hand during a volleyball game. She reports experiencing pain in her left shoulder.

      After assessing her neurovascular status, the attending physician orders an x-ray which reveals a surgical neck fracture of the left humerus.

      Which muscles are expected to have decreased movement based on the nerve most likely affected by this fracture?

      Your Answer: Teres major, trapezius and deltoid

      Correct Answer: Teres minor and deltoid

      Explanation:

      The axillary nerve is responsible for supplying the teres minor and deltoid muscles. It is composed of nerve fibers from C5 and C6 of the brachial plexus and originates in the axilla. The nerve exits the axilla through the quadrangular space, located at the lower border of the subscapularis muscle. It then travels medially to the surgical neck of the humerus, making it vulnerable to injury in cases of surgical neck fractures. Other muscles innervated by the axillary nerve include the teres major and trapezius, which are supplied by the lower subscapular and accessory nerves, respectively.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 9-year-old girl is taken to her doctor by her father with intense...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl is taken to her doctor by her father with intense throat discomfort and is diagnosed with a probable bacterial throat infection. The doctor prescribes an antibiotic that specifically targets bacterial protein synthesis.

      What is the name of the prescribed antibiotic?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Bacterial protein synthesis is the target of erythromycin.

      Bacterial division is inhibited by ciprofloxacin through targeting DNA gyrase.

      The production of bacterial cell wall is inhibited by penicillin through targeting the beta-lactam ring.

      The activation of folic acid in susceptible organisms is inhibited by trimethoprim.

      The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A newlywed couple attend a foetal ultrasound scan to monitor the growth of...

    Incorrect

    • A newlywed couple attend a foetal ultrasound scan to monitor the growth of their unborn child. During the scan, which embryonic structure arises from the endodermal surface of the neck region between the pharyngeal arches?

      Your Answer: External auditory meatus

      Correct Answer: Pharyngeal pouches

      Explanation:

      Embryology of Branchial (Pharyngeal) Pouches

      During embryonic development, the branchial (pharyngeal) pouches give rise to various structures in the head and neck region. The first pharyngeal pouch forms the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum. The second pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils. The third pharyngeal pouch divides into dorsal and ventral wings, with the dorsal wings forming the inferior parathyroid glands and the ventral wings forming the thymus. Finally, the fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands.

      Understanding the embryology of the branchial pouches is important in the diagnosis and treatment of certain congenital abnormalities and diseases affecting these structures. By knowing which structures arise from which pouches, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying pathophysiology and develop appropriate management strategies. Additionally, knowledge of the embryology of these structures can aid in the development of new treatments and therapies for related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Which muscle is responsible for causing flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is responsible for causing flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the index finger?

      Your Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus

      Correct Answer: Flexor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      There are a total of 8 muscles that are involved in the movement of the thumb. These include two flexors, namely flexor pollicis brevis and flexor pollicis longus, two extensors, namely extensor pollicis brevis and longus, two abductors, namely abductor pollicis brevis and longus, one adductor, namely adductor pollicis, and one muscle that opposes the thumb by rotating the CMC joint, known as opponens pollicis. The flexor and extensor longus muscles are responsible for moving both the MCP and IP joints and insert on the distal phalanx.

      Anatomy of the Hand: Fascia, Compartments, and Tendons

      The hand is composed of bones, muscles, and tendons that work together to perform various functions. The bones of the hand include eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges. The intrinsic muscles of the hand include the interossei, which are supplied by the ulnar nerve, and the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint. The thenar eminence contains the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis, while the hypothenar eminence contains the opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and abductor digiti minimi.

      The fascia of the palm is thin over the thenar and hypothenar eminences but relatively thick elsewhere. The palmar aponeurosis covers the soft tissues and overlies the flexor tendons. The palmar fascia is continuous with the antebrachial fascia and the fascia of the dorsum of the hand. The hand is divided into compartments by fibrous septa, with the thenar compartment lying lateral to the lateral septum, the hypothenar compartment lying medial to the medial septum, and the central compartment containing the flexor tendons and their sheaths, the lumbricals, the superficial palmar arterial arch, and the digital vessels and nerves. The deepest muscular plane is the adductor compartment, which contains adductor pollicis.

      The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) enter the common flexor sheath deep to the flexor retinaculum. The tendons enter the central compartment of the hand and fan out to their respective digital synovial sheaths. The fibrous digital sheaths contain the flexor tendons and their synovial sheaths, extending from the heads of the metacarpals to the base of the distal phalanges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      10
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the term used to describe a drug that binds to the...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe a drug that binds to the same receptor as an agonist but is unable to produce a comparable effect even with increasing doses?

      Your Answer: Partial agonist

      Explanation:

      Agonists, Antagonists, and Partial Agonists

      Agonists, antagonists, and partial agonists are terms used to describe drugs that interact with receptors in the body. Competitive antagonists work by binding to the same receptor site as the agonist, preventing it from binding and producing its effect. However, increasing the concentration of the agonist can overcome this effect.

      Allosteric drugs, on the other hand, act at a site separate from the receptor site of the agonist. This can either enhance or inhibit the effect of the agonist. Partial agonists, like buprenorphine, produce a weaker effect than a full agonist. When combined with a full agonist, like morphine, the overall effect is decreased, leading to poor pain control.

      the differences between agonists, antagonists, and partial agonists is important in the development and use of drugs for various medical conditions. By targeting specific receptors in the body, these drugs can produce a desired effect or block unwanted effects. Proper dosing and combination of these drugs can lead to effective treatment and management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 10-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department after experiencing an urticarial rash...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department after experiencing an urticarial rash and itching due to peanut exposure at a school event. Upon admission, blood is drawn. What would be the most elevated level you would anticipate?

      Your Answer: IgE

      Explanation:

      Type 1 hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE, an antibody that triggers an inflammatory response when it cross-links with the high-affinity IgE receptor. This reaction is typically triggered by antigens found in certain foods, drugs, or venoms. While anaphylaxis does not cause an increase in IgE levels, individuals who experience anaphylaxis often have higher levels of serum IgE. On the other hand, IgM is an antibody that is not associated with anaphylaxis and is commonly present during the early stages of infection.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 55-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of abdominal pain, occasional vomiting of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of abdominal pain, occasional vomiting of blood, and significant weight loss over the past two months. After undergoing a gastroscopy, which reveals multiple gastric ulcers and thickened gastric folds, the doctor suspects the presence of a gastrinoma and orders a secretin stimulation test (which involves administering exogenous secretin) to confirm the diagnosis.

      What is the mechanism by which this administered hormone works?

      Your Answer: Stimulates pancreatic enzyme secretion

      Correct Answer: Decreases gastric acid secretion

      Explanation:

      Secretin is a hormone that is released by the duodenum in response to acidity. Its primary function is to decrease gastric acid secretion. It should be noted that the secretin stimulation test involves administering exogenous secretin, which paradoxically causes an increase in gastrin secretion. Secretin does not play a role in carbohydrate digestion, stimulation of gallbladder contraction, stimulation of gastric acid secretion (which is the function of gastrin), or stimulation of pancreatic enzyme secretion (which is another function of CCK).

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old man contacts his primary care physician with concerns about his skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man contacts his primary care physician with concerns about his skin turning yellow. He reports that this change has been occurring gradually over the past few days and is not accompanied by any pain or other symptoms. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he was recently discharged from the hospital after receiving treatment for pyelonephritis. He denies any recent travel outside of his local area.

      The patient's liver function tests reveal the following results:
      - Bilirubin: 32 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
      - ALP: 41 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
      - ALT: 19 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
      - γGT: 26 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 43 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mirizzi syndrome

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation is consistent with Gilbert’s syndrome, which is characterized by an increase in serum bilirubin during times of physiological stress due to a deficiency in the liver’s ability to process bilirubin. This can be triggered by illness, exercise, or fasting.

      Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, typically results in severely abnormal liver function tests with significantly elevated liver enzymes, which is not the case for this patient.

      Hepatitis A is often associated with recent foreign travel and is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea.

      Mirizzi syndrome is a rare condition in which a gallstone becomes lodged in the biliary tree, causing a blockage of the bile duct. It typically presents with upper right quadrant pain and signs of obstructive jaundice.

      While painless jaundice can be a symptom of pancreatic cancer, it is highly unlikely in a 27-year-old patient and is therefore an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A pregnant woman in her mid-thirties complains of chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysuria,...

    Correct

    • A pregnant woman in her mid-thirties complains of chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, dysuria, and foul-smelling green vaginal discharge. Additionally, she experiences pain in the upper right quadrant. What could be the probable reason for this upper right quadrant pain?

      Your Answer: Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

      Explanation:

      Upper right quadrant pain can be caused by various conditions, but in this case, the woman is suffering from pelvic inflammatory disease, which is often associated with Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome (adhesions of liver to peritoneum).

      It is important to note that cholecystitis, pulmonary embolisms, pleurisy, and viral hepatitis do not typically present with symptoms such as dyspareunia, dysuria, or vaginal discharge.

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition where the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. It is typically caused by an infection that spreads from the endocervix. The most common causative organism is Chlamydia trachomatis, followed by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.

      To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests may often be negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but the evidence is limited, and removal of the IUD may be associated with better short-term clinical outcomes according to recent guidelines.

      Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis, infertility (with a risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode), chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old woman comes to see her doctor with complaints of muscle cramps...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to see her doctor with complaints of muscle cramps and facial twitching that have been going on for two weeks. During the examination, the doctor notes that she has paraesthesia in her upper limbs and a positive Trousseau's sign. Her blood tests show that she has low levels of calcium, phosphorus, and vitamin D, so the doctor prescribes calcium supplements and calcitriol.

      What is the mechanism of action of the new medication?

      Your Answer: Increased renal reabsorption of phosphate

      Explanation:

      The renal reabsorption of phosphate is increased by calcitriol.

      Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism

      Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      27
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP with his son after experiencing a fall...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP with his son after experiencing a fall at home. He has a history of alcoholism and is currently being treated by the gastroenterology team.

      In the past few days, he has been feeling increasingly unsteady on his feet and has fallen once, but denies any head injury. His son made the appointment as he has noticed his father becoming more forgetful over the past week.

      During the examination, the patient exhibits reduced sensation in his lower legs and nystagmus when looking to the side.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis responsible for his recent symptoms?

      Your Answer: Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body

      Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.

      Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.

      The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of insomnia, sweating, tachycardia, and unintentional...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of insomnia, sweating, tachycardia, and unintentional weight loss. During the examination, the doctor notices some exophthalmos. Her blood test results reveal a TSH level of 0.05 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 36 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). After further evaluation, she is diagnosed with Graves' disease, an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism by targeting self-antigens with autoantibodies.

      What part of the antibody monomers is involved in this condition?

      Your Answer: Fab region

      Explanation:

      The antigen binding sites of immunoglobulins are located within the Fab region, which is composed of a constant and variable domain from both heavy and light chains. The variable domain within the Fab region is responsible for determining antigen specificity and binding. The Fc region, which is consistent across each class of immunoglobulins, interacts with cell surface receptors and determines the class effect. The epitope, or the region of the antigen that binds the antibody, is specifically located within the Fab region. While both heavy and light chains contribute to antigen binding through their variable regions, neither is solely responsible.

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old male complains of a sudden onset of severe headache that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male complains of a sudden onset of severe headache that has been ongoing for an hour. He has no significant medical history. Upon examination, he appears to be in pain, with a pulse rate of 106 bpm, blood pressure of 138/70 mmHg, and a temperature of 37°C. He also exhibits neck stiffness and mild photophobia, but no specific neurological deficit is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral meningitis

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Sudden and Severe Headache with Meningism: Possible Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      This young male is experiencing a sudden and severe headache with meningism, which may indicate subarachnoid haemorrhage. To confirm the diagnosis, the presence of red cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or xanthochromia in the CSF may be demonstrated. Meningitis is unlikely due to the acute onset of headache and apyrexia, while subdural haematomas are not common unless there is associated trauma. On the other hand, HSV meningitis typically affects the temporal lobe and may cause symptoms of memory or personality changes.

      Overall, a sudden and severe headache with meningism should be taken seriously as it may indicate a potentially life-threatening condition such as subarachnoid haemorrhage. Prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      44.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Which one of the following is a content of the adductor canal? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a content of the adductor canal?

      Your Answer: Sural nerve

      Correct Answer: Saphenous nerve

      Explanation:

      The saphenous nerve and the superficial branch of the femoral artery are both present in this area.

      The Adductor Canal: Anatomy and Contents

      The adductor canal, also known as Hunter’s or the subsartorial canal, is a structure located in the middle third of the thigh, immediately distal to the apex of the femoral triangle. It is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis muscle and posteriorly by the adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles. The roof of the canal is formed by the sartorius muscle. The canal terminates at the adductor hiatus.

      The adductor canal contains three important structures: the saphenous nerve, the superficial femoral artery, and the superficial femoral vein. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that supplies the skin of the medial leg and foot. The superficial femoral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the lower limb. The superficial femoral vein is a large vein that drains blood from the lower limb.

      In order to expose the contents of the adductor canal, the sartorius muscle must be removed. Understanding the anatomy and contents of the adductor canal is important for medical professionals who perform procedures in this area, such as nerve blocks or vascular surgeries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 30-year-old female visits her GP complaining of ankle swelling. During the examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female visits her GP complaining of ankle swelling. During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be 180/110 mmHg and a urine dipstick reveals protein +++ levels. She is referred to a nephrologist who performs a renal biopsy. The biopsy results show basement membrane thickening on light microscopy and subepithelial spikes on silver staining. Immunohistochemistry confirms the presence of PLA2. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type 2 membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.

      Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.

      The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      18
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which muscle is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve? ...

    Correct

    • Which muscle is innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve?

      Your Answer: Brachialis

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the following muscles: Biceps brachii, Brachialis, and Coracobrachialis.

      The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway

      The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.

      The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a painless, enlarged lymph node....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of a painless, enlarged lymph node. After conducting blood tests, the doctor discovers an elevated white cell count and refers the patient to an oncologist. Subsequent testing reveals that the patient has follicular lymphoma. Which gene is commonly mutated in this type of cancer?

      Your Answer: BCL-2

      Explanation:

      Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.

      In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension, diabetes and high cholesterol arrives...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of hypertension, diabetes and high cholesterol arrives at the hospital complaining of severe chest pain that spreads to his jaw. He has vomited twice and feels lightheaded.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals widespread ST elevation with reciprocal ST-segment depression. A troponin T serum level is obtained and confirms an elevated reading.

      What is the target of this cardiac biomarker?

      Your Answer: Tropomyosin

      Explanation:

      The troponin-tropomyosin complex is formed when troponin T binds to tropomyosin. In cases of ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), elevated levels of troponin T in the bloodstream can confirm the presence of cardiac tissue damage. This biomarker plays a role in regulating muscle contraction by binding to tropomyosin. However, troponin I, not troponin T, binds to actin to hold the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place. While troponin T is released in cases of cardiac cell damage, it is considered less sensitive and specific than troponin I in diagnosing myocardial infarction.

      Understanding Troponin: The Proteins Involved in Muscle Contraction

      Troponin is a group of three proteins that play a crucial role in the contraction of skeletal and cardiac muscles. These proteins work together to regulate the interaction between actin and myosin, which is essential for muscle contraction. The three subunits of troponin are troponin C, troponin T, and troponin I.

      Troponin C is responsible for binding to calcium ions, which triggers the contraction of muscle fibers. Troponin T binds to tropomyosin, forming a complex that helps regulate the interaction between actin and myosin. Finally, troponin I binds to actin, holding the troponin-tropomyosin complex in place and preventing muscle contraction when it is not needed.

      Understanding the role of troponin is essential for understanding how muscles work and how they can be affected by various diseases and conditions. By regulating the interaction between actin and myosin, troponin plays a critical role in muscle contraction and is a key target for drugs used to treat conditions such as heart failure and skeletal muscle disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 25-year-old man gets into a brawl and receives a cut on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man gets into a brawl and receives a cut on the back of his right arm, about 2 cm above the olecranon process. Upon examination at the ER, he is unable to straighten his elbow. Which tendon is the most probable one to have been severed?

      Your Answer: Brachioradialis

      Correct Answer: Triceps

      Explanation:

      The elbow joint is extended by the triceps muscle, while the remaining muscles listed are responsible for flexion of the elbow joint.

      Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle

      The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.

      All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.

      The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      10.2
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - You are shadowing a cardiologist during a clinic session and the first patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are shadowing a cardiologist during a clinic session and the first patient is an 80-year-old man who has come for his annual check-up. He reports experiencing swollen ankles, increased shortness of breath, and difficulty sleeping flat. He has a history of heart failure but has been stable for the past 10 years. He believes that his condition has worsened since starting a new medication, but he cannot recall the name of the drug. Unfortunately, the electronic medical records are down, and you cannot access his medication history. Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Losartan

      Correct Answer: Hydralazine

      Explanation:

      Hydralazine is unique among these drugs as it has been known to cause fluid retention by elevating the plasma concentration of renin. Conversely, the other drugs listed are recognized for their ability to reduce fluid overload and promote fluid elimination.

      Hydralazine: An Antihypertensive with Limited Use

      Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication that is not commonly used nowadays. It is still prescribed for severe hypertension and hypertension in pregnancy. The drug works by increasing cGMP, which leads to smooth muscle relaxation. However, there are certain contraindications to its use, such as systemic lupus erythematosus and ischaemic heart disease/cerebrovascular disease.

      Despite its potential benefits, hydralazine can cause adverse effects such as tachycardia, palpitations, flushing, fluid retention, headache, and drug-induced lupus. Therefore, it is not the first choice for treating hypertension in most cases. Overall, hydralazine is an older medication that has limited use due to its potential side effects and newer, more effective antihypertensive options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 36-year-old woman is undergoing treatment for metastatic breast cancer. The consultant is...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is undergoing treatment for metastatic breast cancer. The consultant is exploring hormonal therapies to restrict the spread of cancer in her body. Ultimately, she decides to prescribe an aromatase inhibitor.

      What is the mechanism of action of these medications?

      Your Answer: Reduces peripheral oestrogen synthesis

      Explanation:

      Anastrozole and letrozole are medications that belong to the class of drugs known as aromatase inhibitors. These drugs are commonly used in the treatment of breast cancer as they work by reducing the production of oestrogen in the body. Aromatase is an enzyme that converts androgens into oestrogens, and these drugs inhibit this process, which typically occurs in adipose tissue.

      Tamoxifen is another medication used in the treatment of breast cancer. It works by blocking oestrogen receptors in breast tissue, which reduces the growth of breast cancer cells. However, tamoxifen can activate oestrogen receptors in other parts of the body, which increases the risk of endometrial cancer.

      GnRH analogues, such as goserelin, are used in the treatment of various types of cancer, including breast and prostate cancer. These drugs work by inhibiting the secretion of gonadotropins from the pituitary gland, which reduces the stimulation of the ovaries.

      Trastuzumab, also known as Herceptin, is a monoclonal antibody that is used to treat HER2-positive breast cancer. This drug works by binding to HER2 receptors, which are overexpressed in some breast cancer cells, and inhibiting their growth.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen may cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors may cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - At what level is the hilum of the right kidney located? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what level is the hilum of the right kidney located?

      Your Answer: T12

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      Renal Anatomy: Understanding the Structure and Relations of the Kidneys

      The kidneys are two bean-shaped organs located in a deep gutter alongside the vertebral bodies. They measure about 11cm long, 5cm wide, and 3 cm thick, with the left kidney usually positioned slightly higher than the right. The upper pole of both kidneys approximates with the 11th rib, while the lower border is usually alongside L3. The kidneys are surrounded by an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which contains pyramidal structures that terminate at the renal pelvis into the ureter. The renal sinus lies within the kidney and contains branches of the renal artery, tributaries of the renal vein, major and minor calyces, and fat.

      The anatomical relations of the kidneys vary depending on the side. The right kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, and transversus abdominis, while the left kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, transversus abdominis, stomach, pancreas, spleen, and distal part of the small intestine. Each kidney and suprarenal gland is enclosed within a common layer of investing fascia, derived from the transversalis fascia, which is divided into anterior and posterior layers (Gerotas fascia).

      At the renal hilum, the renal vein lies most anteriorly, followed by the renal artery (an end artery), and the ureter lies most posteriorly. Understanding the structure and relations of the kidneys is crucial in diagnosing and treating renal diseases and disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 50-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is brought to your clinic by his wife due to concerns of his 'skin and eyes looking yellow' and has worsened since it started 3 months ago. On systematic examination, you noticed jaundice and cachexia but it is otherwise unremarkable. On further questioning the man himself reports that his urine has been getting darker as well as stools becoming paler. You order an urgent CT scan which showed a mass lesion at the head of the pancreas. What is the direct explanation for the change in color of his stools?

      Your Answer: Increase in unconjugated bilirubin in the systemic circulation

      Correct Answer: Decrease in stercobilin

      Explanation:

      The presentation of symptoms related to the conjugation of bilirubin varies depending on where the process is disrupted, such as pre-hepatic, hepatic, or post-hepatic. In this case, a mass in the pancreatic head has caused an obstruction of the common bile duct, which is post-hepatic. This obstruction results in less conjugated bilirubin reaching the intestinal tract and more being absorbed into the systemic circulation. As a result, there is a decrease in stercobilin production, leading to paler stools.

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. The majority of pancreatic tumors are adenocarcinomas and are typically found in the head of the pancreas. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and mutations in the BRCA2 and KRAS genes.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, and pruritus. Courvoisier’s law states that a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones in the presence of painless obstructive jaundice. However, patients often present with non-specific symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and epigastric pain. Loss of exocrine and endocrine function can also occur, leading to steatorrhea and diabetes mellitus. Atypical back pain and migratory thrombophlebitis (Trousseau sign) are also common.

      Ultrasound has a sensitivity of around 60-90% for detecting pancreatic cancer, but high-resolution CT scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool. The ‘double duct’ sign, which is the simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts, may be seen on imaging.

      Less than 20% of patients with pancreatic cancer are suitable for surgery at the time of diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection (pancreaticoduodenectomy) may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas, but side-effects such as dumping syndrome and peptic ulcer disease can occur. Adjuvant chemotherapy is typically given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 79-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of chest pain that occurs during...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of chest pain that occurs during physical activity and subsides after rest for the past three months. The doctor diagnoses him with angina and prescribes medications. Due to contraindications, beta blockers and calcium channel blockers are not suitable for this patient, so the doctor starts him on ranolazine. What is the main mechanism of action of ranolazine?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of fatty acid metabolism via 3-KAT inhibition

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of persistent or late inward sodium current

      Explanation:

      Ranolazine is a medication that works by inhibiting persistent or late sodium current in various voltage-gated sodium channels in heart muscle. This results in a decrease in intracellular calcium levels, which in turn reduces tension in the heart muscle and lowers its oxygen demand.

      Other medications used to treat angina include ivabradine, which inhibits funny channels, trimetazidine, which inhibits fatty acid metabolism, nitrates, which increase nitric oxide, and several drugs that reduce heart rate, such as beta blockers and calcium channel blockers.

      It is important to note that ranolazine is not typically the first medication prescribed for angina. The drug management of angina may vary depending on the individual patient’s needs and medical history.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 87-year-old male with chronic untreated hypertension arrives at the emergency department complaining...

    Correct

    • A 87-year-old male with chronic untreated hypertension arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain. Upon examination of his ECG, it is observed that there are tall QRS complexes throughout the entire ECG with elevated R-waves in the left-sided leads. What condition does this suggest?

      Your Answer: Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVF)

      Explanation:

      ST elevation is expected in the leads corresponding to the affected part of the heart in an STEMI, while ST depression, T wave inversion, or no change is expected in an NSTEMI or angina. Dilated cardiomyopathy does not have any classical ECG changes, and it is not commonly associated with hypertension as LVF. LVF, on the other hand, causes left ventricular hypertrophy due to prolonged hypertension, resulting in an increase in R-wave amplitude in leads 1, aVL, and V4-6, as well as an increase in S wave depth in leads III, aVR, and V1-3 on the right side.

      ECG Indicators of Atrial and Ventricular Hypertrophy

      Left ventricular hypertrophy is indicated on an ECG when the sum of the S wave in V1 and the R wave in V5 or V6 exceeds 40 mm. Meanwhile, right ventricular hypertrophy is characterized by a dominant R wave in V1 and a deep S wave in V6. In terms of atrial hypertrophy, left atrial enlargement is indicated by a bifid P wave in lead II with a duration of more than 120 ms, as well as a negative terminal portion in the P wave in V1. On the other hand, right atrial enlargement is characterized by tall P waves in both II and V1 that exceed 0.25 mV. These ECG indicators can help diagnose and monitor patients with atrial and ventricular hypertrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      13
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 56-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with concerns about recent weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with concerns about recent weight gain. She reports maintaining her usual diet and exercise routine, but has noticed her face appearing rounder and the development of purplish stretch marks on her abdomen. During the exam, her heart rate is 89 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 157/84 mmHg. Her waist circumference measures 41 inches and her body mass index is 28 kg/m2. What is one effect of the primary hormone involved in this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Decrease gluconeogenesis

      Correct Answer: Upregulation of alpha-1-adrenoceptors on arterioles

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms consistent with a state of elevated cortisol levels, known as Cushing syndrome. These symptoms include recent weight gain, a round face (moon face), abdominal striae, high blood pressure, and truncal obesity. Cushing syndrome can have various causes, including the use of glucocorticoids or an ectopic ACTH secretion.

      Elevated cortisol levels can lead to an increase in blood glucose levels, putting individuals at risk for hyperglycemia and diabetes. Cortisol can also suppress the immune system, inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and interleukin-2, and decreasing the adhesion of white blood cells. Additionally, cortisol can up-regulate alpha-1-adrenoceptors on arterioles, resulting in high blood pressure. High cortisol levels can also decrease osteoblast activity, leading to weakened bones, and reduce fibroblast activity and collagen synthesis, resulting in delayed wound healing. The abdominal striae seen in patients with high cortisol levels are typically due to decreased collagen synthesis.

      Causes of Cushing’s Syndrome

      Cushing’s syndrome is a condition that can be caused by both endogenous and exogenous factors. However, it is important to note that exogenous causes, such as the use of glucocorticoid therapy, are more common than endogenous ones. The condition can be classified into two categories: ACTH dependent and ACTH independent causes.

      ACTH dependent causes of Cushing’s syndrome include Cushing’s disease, which is caused by a pituitary tumor secreting ACTH and producing adrenal hyperplasia. Ectopic ACTH production, which is caused by small cell lung cancer, is another ACTH dependent cause. On the other hand, ACTH independent causes include iatrogenic factors such as steroid use, adrenal adenoma, adrenal carcinoma, Carney complex, and micronodular adrenal dysplasia.

      In some cases, a condition called Pseudo-Cushing’s can mimic Cushing’s syndrome. This is often caused by alcohol excess or severe depression and can cause false positive results in dexamethasone suppression tests or 24-hour urinary free cortisol tests. To differentiate between Cushing’s syndrome and Pseudo-Cushing’s, an insulin stress test may be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 65-year-old man is admitted to the surgical ward following an open surgical...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is admitted to the surgical ward following an open surgical repair of a ruptured aortic aneurysm. During examination, he presents with a positive Grey Turner's sign, indicating retroperitoneal haemorrhage and resulting in blue discolouration of the flanks. Retroperitoneal haemorrhage can occur due to trauma to retroperitoneal structures. Can you identify which of the following structures is not retroperitoneal?

      Your Answer: Ascending colon

      Correct Answer: Tail of the pancreas

      Explanation:

      The tail of the pancreas is the only intraperitoneal structure mentioned, while all the others are retroperitoneal. Retroperitoneal haemorrhage can be caused by various factors, including ruptured aneurysms and acute pancreatitis. A helpful mnemonic to remember retroperitoneal structures is SAD PUCKER.

      Anatomy of the Pancreas

      The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.

      The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - An 80-year-old man who frequently drinks alcohol presents to his doctor with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who frequently drinks alcohol presents to his doctor with symptoms of productive cough, fever, and chills. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals a distinct cavity in the right lower lobe with an air-fluid level. The patient's sputum is sent for culture and sensitivity, and he is prescribed clindamycin.

      After ten days, the patient reports experiencing watery diarrhea 3-4 times a day and abdominal pain. He has not experienced any fever or weight loss, and his vital signs are normal. What is the initial medication recommended for his condition?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      The preferred antibiotic for treating C. difficile infection is oral vancomycin. However, in the case of a patient with clinical features and radiological findings indicative of a lung abscess, who also has a history of alcohol consumption that increases the risk of aspiration and lung abscesses, clindamycin was used as a treatment. Unfortunately, this led to the development of a C. difficile infection, which can be confusing when considering the antibiotics involved in causing and treating the infection.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 48-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with facial drooping and slurred...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with facial drooping and slurred speech. You perform a cranial nerves examination and find that his glossopharyngeal nerve has been affected. What sign would you anticipate observing in this patient?

      Your Answer: Loss of gag reflex

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is loss of gag reflex, which is caused by a lesion in the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). This nerve is responsible for taste in the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, salivation, and swallowing. Lesions in this nerve may also result in a hypersensitive carotid sinus reflex.

      Loss of taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is incorrect, as this is controlled by the facial nerve (CN VII), which also controls facial movements, lacrimation, and salivation. Lesions in this nerve may result in flaccid paralysis of the upper and lower face, loss of corneal reflex, loss of taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, and hyperacusis.

      Paralysis of the facial muscles or mastication muscles is also incorrect. The facial nerve controls facial movements, while the trigeminal nerve (CN V) controls the muscles of mastication and facial sensation via its ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular branches.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 50-year-old individual is referred to an ENT specialist after reporting a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old individual is referred to an ENT specialist after reporting a sudden loss of hearing in one ear, along with tinnitus and vertigo. An urgent gadolinium-enhanced MRI is scheduled, which confirms the presence of a vestibular schwannoma. Which group of cranial nerves is most likely to be impacted by this condition?

      Your Answer: CN III, V and VII

      Correct Answer: CN V, VII, VIII

      Explanation:

      Vestibular schwannomas typically impact cranial nerves V, VII, and VIII, which are located in the cerebellopontine angle and can be displaced as the tumor grows out of the internal auditory canal. The most effective diagnostic tool for detecting these tumors is an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle. Other combinations of nerves are not commonly affected by vestibular schwannomas.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 32-year-old patient with schizophrenia visits the clinic. He has observed discharge on...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient with schizophrenia visits the clinic. He has observed discharge on his shirt twice and upon inspection, he noticed a milky fluid coming from his nipples. He recalls his psychiatrist mentioning that this could happen with his medication. What is the most probable reason for his discharge?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Risperidone

      Explanation:

      Hyperprolactinaemia, which is characterized by high levels of prolactin, is a common side effect of certain atypical antipsychotics like risperidone. This medication can cause galactorrhoea, which is the abnormal secretion of milk due to the development of breast tissue and mammary glands.

      Different antipsychotics have their own unique side effect profiles, and the most likely culprits of hyperprolactinaemia are haloperidol (a conventional antipsychotic) and risperidone (an atypical antipsychotic). While it is uncommon for most atypical antipsychotics to cause galactorrhoea, risperidone is an exception.

      Other antipsychotics like clozapine are associated with agranulocytosis and myocarditis, while olanzapine is linked to dyslipidaemia, diabetes mellitus, and weight gain.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.

      Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - In Froment's test, what muscle function is being evaluated? ...

    Correct

    • In Froment's test, what muscle function is being evaluated?

      Your Answer: Adductor pollicis

      Explanation:

      Nerve signs are used to assess the function of specific nerves in the body. One such sign is Froment’s sign, which is used to assess for ulnar nerve palsy. During this test, the adductor pollicis muscle function is tested by having the patient hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger. The object is then pulled away, and if the patient is unable to hold the paper and flexes the flexor pollicis longus to compensate, it may indicate ulnar nerve palsy.

      Another nerve sign used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome is Phalen’s test. This test is more sensitive than Tinel’s sign and involves holding the wrist in maximum flexion. If there is numbness in the median nerve distribution, the test is considered positive.

      Tinel’s sign is also used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. During this test, the median nerve at the wrist is tapped, and if the patient experiences tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve, the test is considered positive. These nerve signs are important tools in diagnosing and assessing nerve function in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - What is the definition of a pathogenic microbe? ...

    Correct

    • What is the definition of a pathogenic microbe?

      Your Answer: Has the ability to cause disease

      Explanation:

      Pathogenic Organisms

      A pathogenic organism has the potential to cause disease, but it does not necessarily mean that it will cause harm. The ability to cause illness depends on the environment in which the organism is present. For instance, Staphylococcus epidermidis is a harmless organism that lives on the skin without causing any harm. However, if it enters a sterile site, it can cause infections such as bone prosthesis infection.

      The environment plays a crucial role in determining whether an organism is pathogenic or not. Modifying the environment can cause a previously harmless organism to become pathogenic. For example, Cryptococcus is not a pathogenic organism in a patient with a healthy immune system. However, in an immunocompromised patient, it can cause meningitis.

      In conclusion, describing an organism as pathogenic refers to its potential to cause illness. The environment plays a significant role in determining whether an organism is pathogenic or not. Therefore, it is essential to understand the environment in which an organism is present to determine its pathogenicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 2-year-old toddler presents to the emergency department with a low-grade fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old toddler presents to the emergency department with a low-grade fever and difficulty breathing. The mother reports that the toddler has had some nasal discharge for the past two days and started coughing a few hours ago. The toddler has no significant medical history, being born full term at 39 weeks via normal vaginal delivery. The toddler is developmentally normal and received all vaccinations according to the immunisation schedule. During examination, the toddler appears lethargic and has a barking cough. Auscultation reveals an inspiratory stridor bilaterally, with no crepitations or wheezes heard. Air entry is equal bilaterally. The toddler's temperature is 38.3ºC, oxygen saturation is 93% based on pulse oximetry, blood pressure is 98/55 mmHg (normal range: SBP 72-140 mmHg; DBP 37-56 mmHg), and the heart rate is 120 beats per minute (normal range: 100-190 beats per minute).

      What is the most likely association with this toddler's condition?

      Your Answer: Tram-track sign

      Correct Answer: Steeple sign

      Explanation:

      The infant is displaying symptoms of croup, including a barking cough and inspiratory stridor, which is typical for their age. While chest radiographs are not typically used to diagnose croup, if a neck radiograph is taken, the steeple sign may be present, indicating subglottic narrowing due to inflammation of the larynx and trachea.

      The thumb sign, which is indicative of an oedematous epiglottis, is not present in this case, and the infant does not display symptoms of epiglottitis, such as drooling or dysphagia. Additionally, the infant is not in the typical age range for epiglottitis.

      The sail sign, which suggests left lower lobe collapse, is not present as the infant has equal bilateral air entry. The coffee bean sign, which is suggestive of sigmoid volvulus, is also not relevant as it typically presents with abdominal pain and distension, rather than respiratory symptoms, and is uncommon in children.

      Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a worsening cough and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a worsening cough and haemoptysis. He also reports dark urine, reduced urine output and generally feels tired.

      On examination, he has crackles on auscultation of the chest and bipedal oedema. His heart rate is 120 beats/min, blood pressure 148/78 mmHg, respiratory rate 28 breaths/min. He is apyrexial.

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 14 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 250 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Which antibodies characteristic of this condition are targeted, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myeloperoxidase

      Correct Answer: Collagen type IV

      Explanation:

      Goodpasture’s syndrome is caused by autoantibodies targeting collagen type IV, specifically anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies (anti-GBM). This condition is characterized by symptoms such as cough, haemoptysis, crackles on auscultation, oedema, and impaired renal function.

      In contrast, anti-dsDNA antibodies target double-stranded DNA and are commonly found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which presents with rash, photosensitivity, hair loss, and other systemic signs.

      p-ANCA antibodies typically target myeloperoxidase and are associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), which presents with a history of asthma and/or allergic rhinitis.

      c-ANCA antibodies target proteinase 3 and are associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA), which presents with sinusitis and other upper airway signs.

      Antibodies against streptolysin O are involved in the immune response against streptococcal infection and are associated with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which is preceded by streptococcal infection and presents with renal impairment but not the other symptoms seen in Goodpasture’s syndrome.

      Understanding Collagen and its Associated Disorders

      Collagen is a vital protein found in connective tissue and is the most abundant protein in the human body. Although there are over 20 types of collagen, the most important ones are types I, II, III, IV, and V. Collagen is composed of three polypeptide strands that are woven into a helix, with numerous hydrogen bonds providing additional strength. Vitamin C plays a crucial role in establishing cross-links, and fibroblasts synthesize collagen.

      Disorders of collagen can range from acquired defects due to aging to rare congenital disorders. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disorder that has eight subtypes and is caused by a defect in type I collagen. Patients with this disorder have bones that fracture easily, loose joints, and other defects depending on the subtype. Ehlers Danlos syndrome is another congenital disorder that has multiple subtypes and is caused by an abnormality in types 1 and 3 collagen. Patients with this disorder have features of hypermobility and are prone to joint dislocations and pelvic organ prolapse, among other connective tissue defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 15-year-old boy presents to the ED with severe left flank pain that...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to the ED with severe left flank pain that extends to his groin. He describes his symptoms as 'passing stones,' which he has been experiencing 'since he was a child.' His father also reports having similar issues since childhood. Upon urinalysis, hexagonal crystals are detected, and the urinary cyanide nitroprusside test is positive.

      What is the most probable reason for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Amino acid transport abnormality

      Explanation:

      Recurrent kidney stones from childhood and positive family history for nephrolithiasis suggest cystinuria, which is characterized by impaired transport of cystine and dibasic amino acids. The urinary cyanide-nitroprusside test can confirm the diagnosis. Other causes of kidney stones include excess uric acid excretion (gout), excessive intestinal reabsorption of oxalate (Crohn’s disease), infection with urease-producing microorganisms (struvite stones), and primary hyperparathyroidism (calcium oxalate stones).

      Understanding Cystinuria: A Genetic Disorder Causing Recurrent Renal Stones

      Cystinuria is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent renal stones due to a defect in the membrane transport of cystine, ornithine, lysine, and arginine. This autosomal recessive disorder is caused by mutations in two genes, SLC3A1 on chromosome 2 and SLC7A9 on chromosome 19.

      The hallmark feature of cystinuria is the formation of yellow and crystalline renal stones that appear semi-opaque on x-ray. To diagnose cystinuria, a cyanide-nitroprusside test is performed.

      Management of cystinuria involves hydration, D-penicillamine, and urinary alkalinization. These treatments help to prevent the formation of renal stones and reduce the risk of complications.

      In summary, cystinuria is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent renal stones. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 50-year-old man comes to the cardiac clinic for a follow-up exercise stress...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the cardiac clinic for a follow-up exercise stress test. The physician discusses the cardiac adaptations during physical activity.

      What statement best describes this patient's pulse pressure?

      Your Answer: Their increased stroke volume will not change the pulse pressure

      Correct Answer: Their increased stroke volume will increase pulse pressure

      Explanation:

      Increasing stroke volume leads to an increase in pulse pressure, while decreasing stroke volume results in a decrease in pulse pressure. This is because pulse pressure is determined by the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure, and an increase in stroke volume raises systolic pressure. During exercise, stroke volume increases to meet the body’s demands, leading to an increase in pulse pressure. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that a decrease in pulse pressure will increase stroke volume, or that a decrease in stroke volume will not affect pulse pressure.

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      12.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular System (2/7) 29%
Clinical Sciences (1/2) 50%
General Principles (7/13) 54%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (1/6) 17%
Respiratory System (0/2) 0%
Neurological System (3/5) 60%
Renal System (1/4) 25%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Gastrointestinal System (0/5) 0%
Reproductive System (2/2) 100%
Endocrine System (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed