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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of generalised swelling that has affected...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of generalised swelling that has affected his legs, arm and face, worsening over the last three weeks. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained: Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l), Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l), Creatinine (Cr) 190 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l), Urea 14.8 mmol/l (normal range: 7–20 mmol/l), Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 20 IU/l (normal range: 29–33 IU/l), Bilirubin 16 μmol/l (normal range: < 20.5 μmol/l), Albumin 19 g/l (normal range: 35–50 g/l), Total Cholesterol 9.2 mmol/l (normal range: < 5.2 mmol/l), Prothrombin time (PT) 10 s. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nephrotic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Generalized Edema, Low Albumin, Renal Impairment, and Elevated Cholesterol

      The patient presents with generalized edema, low albumin, renal impairment, and elevated cholesterol. The most likely diagnosis is nephrotic syndrome. Anorexia nervosa is unlikely to cause such a low albumin level. Cirrhosis of the liver is less likely due to normal liver function tests and PT. Cystic fibrosis typically presents with bronchiectasis, pancreatic insufficiency, malabsorption, or diabetes. Nephritic syndrome causes hypertension, haematuria, and oliguria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      86.1
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  • Question 2 - A 63-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for bladder cancer presents to the...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for bladder cancer presents to the Emergency Department because she has noticed that the urine in her catheter is blood-stained.
      On examination, the urine is pink in colour. Her observations are normal.
      What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?
      Select the SINGLE most likely option.

      Your Answer: Arrange a full blood count

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with Suspected Bladder Tumour and Bleeding

      When managing a patient with suspected bladder tumour and bleeding, it is important to consider the appropriate steps to take. Here are some options and their potential outcomes:

      1. Arrange a full blood count: This test can help assess the degree of blood loss and guide the urgency of treatment.

      2. Transfuse two units of O-negative blood: While patients with bladder tumours can bleed extensively, it is important to first assess the need for transfusion through a full blood count.

      3. Flush the urinary catheter using normal saline: This step is appropriate for a blocked catheter, but not for a patient with active bleeding.

      4. Remove the urinary catheter: This step can cause blood clots and urinary retention, and is not indicated for this patient.

      5. Transfer to theatre for resection of tumour: While this may be necessary in cases of catastrophic bleeding, it is important to first assess the patient’s stability and obtain blood tests before planning definitive management.

      In summary, careful consideration of the appropriate steps is crucial in managing a patient with suspected bladder tumour and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      29.7
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old man presents with haematuria and severe left flank pain. He is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with haematuria and severe left flank pain. He is agitated and unable to find a position that relieves the pain. On examination, his abdomen is soft with tenderness over the left lumbar region. He has no fever.
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal calculi

      Explanation:

      Common Renal Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Renal tract calculi, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD), acute pyelonephritis, renal cell carcinoma (RCC), and acute glomerulonephritis (GN) are common renal conditions that can cause various symptoms and have distinct characteristics.

      Renal Calculi: Sudden onset of severe pain in the flank, nausea, vomiting, and costovertebral angle tenderness.

      ADPKD: Pain in the abdomen, flank or back, hypertension, and palpable, bilateral flank masses.

      Acute Pyelonephritis: Fever, costovertebral angle pain, nausea, vomiting, and gross haematuria.

      RCC: Usually mild flank pain, haematuria, palpable flank mass, and hypercalcaemia manifestations.

      Acute GN: Sudden onset of haematuria, proteinuria, red blood cell casts in the urine, hypertension, and oedema.

      Timely diagnosis and management are crucial for these conditions to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with generalised facial swelling. He...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with generalised facial swelling. He recently recovered from viral pharyngitis. He is otherwise healthy and meeting developmental milestones.

      Upon examination, he is alert and not experiencing any respiratory distress. There is pitting edema in his face and legs.

      Urinalysis reveals 4+ protein and no hematuria. Blood tests show a hemoglobin level of 180 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180, females: 115-160), platelets at 450 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), WBC at 8.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0), bilirubin at 12 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), ALP at 60 u/L (normal range: 30-100), ALT at 35 u/L (normal range: 3-40), γGT at 32 u/L (normal range: 8-60), and albumin at 10 g/L (normal range: 35-50).

      What is the recommended first-line treatment option for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate treatment for minimal change glomerulonephritis, which is likely the cause of this patient’s facial edema, hypoalbuminemia, and proteinuria, is prednisolone. This medication is a corticosteroid and is considered the mainstay of therapy for this condition. Adrenaline, albumin infusion, and furosemide are not appropriate treatments for this patient’s condition. While albumin infusion may be used as adjunctive therapy, its effects will only be temporary. Adrenaline is used to treat anaphylaxis and would not be effective in treating minimal change disease. Furosemide may be used as adjunctive therapy, but its effects will also be temporary.

      Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, around 10-20% have a known cause, such as certain drugs, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and reduced electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin. The disease is characterized by nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, with only intermediate-sized proteins such as albumin and transferrin leaking through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, but electron microscopy reveals fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.

      Management of minimal change disease typically involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Approximately one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for a check-up. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for a check-up. He is currently on metformin 1g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily. His BMI is 29 kg/m². Blood tests are taken.
      Sodium 140 mmol/L
      Potassium 4.0mmol/L
      Urea 5.8mmol/L
      Creatinine 135 umol/L
      eGFR 44 ml/min/1.73m²
      HbA1c 7.5% (58 mmol/mol)
      What modification to his current treatment plan is recommended based on the provided information?

      Your Answer: Add thiazolidinedione

      Correct Answer: No change to medication

      Explanation:

      Metformin is typically the first choice for diabetes treatment due to its positive impact on weight. Sulphonylureas are usually the second option, unless they cause hypoglycaemia or are not well-tolerated. If sulphonylureas are not an option, alternatives like DPP4 inhibitors or thiazolidinediones may be considered. Insulin is the next line of treatment after metformin and sulphonylureas, but DPP4 inhibitors may be preferred if insulin is not suitable or if the patient wants to avoid injections or weight gain. However, DPP4 inhibitors should only be continued if they are effective, as they can be expensive.

      When it comes to metformin and renal function, it is recommended to stop using it if creatinine levels exceed 150mmol/L or eGFR is below 30ml/min/1.73m². Caution is advised when eGFR is between 30-45ml/min/1.73m², taking into account the rate of deterioration in renal function. For example, if eGFR has remained stable at 33ml/min/1.73m² for six months, it may be reasonable to continue using metformin. However, if eGFR has decreased from 50 to 38ml/min/1.73m², it is likely that metformin should be discontinued due to the risk of lactic acidosis.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms of a...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with symptoms of a urinary tract infection. There is a history of multiple attendances and a previous neurology referral for migraine. She admits to taking multiple painkillers for her headaches. Blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg. Urinalysis reveals haematuria, and the GP commences her on a 2-week course of nitrofurantoin. She returns, still complaining of symptoms, at which point the presence of a normochromic normocytic anaemia is noted, along with a serum creatinine level of 230 μmol/l (reference range 44–97 μmol/l).
      What diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Analgesic nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis for a Patient with Excessive Analgesic Consumption

      Excessive consumption of analgesic medications such as aspirin and paracetamol can lead to kidney injury, a condition known as analgesic nephropathy. This is caused by decreased blood flow to the kidney, rapid consumption of antioxidants, and subsequent oxidative damage to the kidney, resulting in renal papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis. The kidney injury may lead to progressive chronic kidney disease, abnormal urinalysis results, hypertension, and normochromic normocytic anaemia.

      Other possible diagnoses for renal damage include reflux nephropathy, acute nephritis, renal failure secondary to sepsis, and hypertensive renal disease. Reflux nephropathy is characterized by renal damage due to the backflow of urine from the bladder towards the kidneys, while acute nephritis is caused by infections or drug-associated hypersensitivity. Renal failure secondary to sepsis is associated with systemic inflammatory response syndrome, and hypertensive renal disease is defined by the coexistence of renal arterial vascular disease and hypertension.

      In the given clinical scenario, the most likely diagnosis is analgesic nephropathy due to the patient’s history of excessive analgesic consumption. However, other diagnoses cannot be ruled out without further evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      46.6
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches and is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches and is found to have a blood pressure of 170/90 mmHg. She is a non-smoker and has a history of diabetes. Renal artery stenosis is suspected as the underlying cause of her condition.
      Which of the following tests is the gold-standard investigation for diagnosis of this condition?

      Your Answer: Renal ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Intra-arterial renal arteriography

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Renal Artery Stenosis

      Renal artery stenosis is a condition that can lead to reduced blood flow to the kidneys. There are several diagnostic tests that can be used to assess for this condition.

      Intra-arterial renal arteriography is an invasive test that involves passing radio-opaque dye through the renal arteries to assess for normal flow or stenosis. This is considered the gold-standard test for diagnosing renal artery stenosis. It can also be used as a therapeutic modality if stents can be used to increase the lumen of the artery.

      Renal ultrasound scan can be used to assess for a shrunken appearance of the affected kidney and reduced vascular flow in the renal artery. Duplex ultrasound can augment this scan.

      Peripheral plasma renin activity is no longer considered suitable for initial testing for renovascular disease. Investigations demonstrating the presence of stenosis or occlusion of the renal artery are preferred.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) arteriography can be performed to assess for patent renal arteries or stenosis. However, a plain MRI without contrast would not be as effective as an intra-arterial examination.

      A 24-hour urinary protein test may be arranged to assess for other causes of reduced renal function, but it would not be useful in assessing for patent renal arteries.

      Overall, a combination of these tests may be used to diagnose renal artery stenosis and determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      34.1
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  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe loin to groin...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe loin to groin pain that had been intermittent throughout the day. She tells the doctor that she has a previous history of gout.
      What is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Abdomino-pelvic/KUB CT (non-contrast)

      Explanation:

      A non-contrast abdomino-pelvic/KUB CT scan is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing nephrolithiasis in patients with a history of gout. This test has a high sensitivity and specificity and can also detect other pathologies.
      Intravenous urography is less sensitive and requires IV contrast material, which can cause allergic reactions or renal failure.
      Renal ultrasonography is useful in pregnancy or in combination with a KUB radiograph but is less accurate for diagnosing ureteral stones.
      Retrograde ureterography is rarely performed for diagnostic purposes but is essential when surgery is necessary.
      Uric acid stones are associated with low urine pH, high purine intake, or malignancy, and can be treated with allopurinol or alkali therapy depending on the patient’s uric acid levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      16.1
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  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails to fall into the normal range after three successive measurements at the practice nurse. These were 155/92 mmHg, 158/96 mmHg and 154/94 mmHg. He has a past history of some urinary tract infections as a child. The GP arranges some routine blood tests.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 187 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Ultrasound scan (USS) Left kidney 8.4 cm and appears scarred.
      Right kidney 10.3 cm
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Correct Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a 25-Year-Old Man with Renal Issues

      Upon reviewing the history and test results of a 25-year-old man with renal issues, several potential diagnoses can be considered. Chronic reflux nephropathy appears to be the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s history of urinary tract infections as a child, ultrasound scan results, and elevated creatinine levels. Further testing, such as renal tract computed tomography and a voiding cystourethrogram, can confirm this diagnosis.

      Essential hypertension, while a risk factor for reno-vascular disease, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. It would not lead to a rise in creatinine or asymmetrical kidneys in a young patient.

      IgA nephropathy is another potential diagnosis, but the patient’s lack of haematuria or history of recent illness does not support this diagnosis. The history of urinary tract infections also does not align with IgA nephropathy.

      Renal artery stenosis is relatively rare in young patients and would lead to a unilaterally reduced kidney size, which does not fit with the patient’s symptoms.

      White coat hypertension, while a possibility, would not explain the rise in creatinine or the reduced size and scarring of the left kidney. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor may be needed to differentiate between persistent hypertension and white coat hypertension.

      In conclusion, chronic reflux nephropathy is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, but further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      37.1
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  • Question 10 - What is the factor that is most likely to stimulate renin? ...

    Correct

    • What is the factor that is most likely to stimulate renin?

      Your Answer: Hypovolaemia

      Explanation:

      Hormones and their roles in regulating fluid balance

      Renin, ACTH, ANP, and ADH are hormones that play important roles in regulating fluid balance in the body. Renin is secreted by the kidneys in response to a decrease in blood volume, and it stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to increase extracellular volume and arterial vasoconstriction. ACTH, secreted by the pituitary gland, increases production and release of cortisol by the adrenal gland. ANP, secreted by heart myocytes, acts as a vasodilator to reduce water, sodium, and adipose loads on the circulatory system, counteracting the effects of the renin-angiotensin system. ADH, also known as vasopressin, increases water permeability in the kidneys and increases peripheral vascular resistance to increase arterial blood pressure. Understanding the roles of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper fluid balance in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      47.4
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal Medicine/Urology (7/10) 70%
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