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  • Question 1 - A 24-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the delivery suite...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the delivery suite with complaints of feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, a 32 week size foetus is noted. Her blood pressure is measured at 160/100 mmHg and 2+ protein is detected in her urine. While being examined, she experiences a seizure, leading you to suspect eclampsia. What is the first medication that should be administered?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The primary concern in eclampsia is to manage seizures, which can be prevented and treated with magnesium sulphate as the first-line treatment. If magnesium sulphate is not available or ineffective, benzodiazepines like midazolam can be considered. Additionally, due to high blood pressure, antihypertensive drugs like Labetalol, Hydralazine, and Nifedipine are administered during pregnancy as they are effective and have low teratogenicity. Starting low dose aspirin before 16 weeks of gestation has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      13.8
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of mood and sleep disturbances. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of mood and sleep disturbances. She reveals that she was involved in a car accident a few months ago, which left her with minor injuries. However, she has been experiencing flashbacks of the incident and feels anxious when crossing roads, often avoiding them altogether. She also mentions being easily startled by car noises and horns. The woman feels fatigued and irritable, and her sleep is affected. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: 8 weeks

      Correct Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      To receive a diagnosis of PTSD, symptoms must be evident for a minimum of four weeks. This indicates a history of experiencing classic signs and symptoms following a traumatic event. PTSD symptoms can be categorized into hyperarousal, re-experiencing phenomenon, avoidance of reminders, and emotional numbing. These symptoms occur after a traumatic life event, such as a near-death experience. If symptoms persist for less than four weeks, it would be considered an acute stress reaction. However, if symptoms continue beyond four weeks, the patient may be diagnosed with PTSD. It is important to note that the time frame refers to the duration of symptoms, not the time since the traumatic event.

      Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.

      Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.

      It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      22.7
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  • Question 3 - A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden and severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden and severe occipital headache accompanied by two episodes of vomiting within the last hour. Despite a normal CT scan, a lumbar puncture taken 12 hours later reveals xanthochromia, leading to a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). Urgent neurosurgical consultation is requested, and a CT cerebral angiography confirms a posterior communicating artery aneurysm as the underlying cause of the SAH. The patient is otherwise healthy. What is the most suitable treatment option for the aneurysm?

      Your Answer: Nimodipine only

      Correct Answer: Coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist

      Explanation:

      After a subarachnoid haemorrhage, urgent intervention is necessary for intracranial aneurysms due to the risk of rebleeding. The most common treatment for this is coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist, which involves inserting soft metallic coils into the aneurysm to exclude it from intracranial circulation. This is less invasive than surgical clipping. While nimodipine is used to reduce vasospasm following a SAH, it is not sufficient on its own and additional intervention is required. Typically, nimodipine is administered for 21 days and targets the brain vasculature by inhibiting calcium channels.

      A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.

      The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.

      Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      12
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  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old male complains of swelling in both ankles. He reports no difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male complains of swelling in both ankles. He reports no difficulty in breathing. Upon examining his chest, no abnormalities were found. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and angina. Which medication is the most probable culprit for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Empagliflozin

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      Verapamil is less likely to cause ankle swelling compared to dihydropyridines such as amlodipine.

      Ankle swelling is a known side effect of amlodipine, which belongs to the dihydropyridine class of calcium channel blockers. On the other hand, verapamil is less likely to cause this side effect.

      Metformin and empagliflozin, commonly used in diabetes management, are not associated with ankle oedema. However, thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone are known to cause fluid retention.

      Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is often prescribed to treat ankle oedema caused by fluid overload.

      Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers

      Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1
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  • Question 5 - A 65 year old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and distension. He reports not having a bowel movement in 4 days and is now experiencing vomiting. An abdominal X-ray reveals enlarged loops of the large intestine. The patient has no history of surgery and a physical examination shows a soft, tender abdomen without palpable masses. A rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. What is the probable cause of the obstruction?

      Your Answer: Constipation

      Correct Answer: Sigmoid carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Causes of Large Bowel Obstruction: Differential Diagnosis

      Large bowel obstruction can be caused by various conditions, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for appropriate management. The following are some possible causes of large bowel obstruction and their distinguishing features:

      1. Sigmoid Carcinoma: Colorectal cancer is a common cause of large bowel obstruction, with the sigmoid colon being the most commonly affected site. Patients may present with abdominal pain, distension, and constipation. Treatment usually involves emergency surgery.

      2. Sigmoid Volvulus: This occurs when the sigmoid colon twists on itself, leading to obstruction. The classic coffee bean sign may be seen on abdominal X-ray. Treatment involves endoscopic or surgical decompression.

      3. Incarcerated Inguinal Hernia: This occurs when a portion of the intestine protrudes through the inguinal canal and becomes trapped. Patients may present with a palpable mass in the groin, which is not described in the case history above. Treatment involves surgical repair.

      4. Adhesions: Adhesions are bands of scar tissue that can form after abdominal surgery. They can cause bowel obstruction by kinking or compressing the intestine. Adhesions usually affect the small bowel, but they can also involve the large bowel. Treatment involves surgery.

      5. Constipation: Chronic constipation can cause pseudo-obstruction, which mimics mechanical obstruction. However, the finding of an empty rectum on digital rectal examination makes constipation unlikely as the sole cause of large bowel obstruction.

      In conclusion, large bowel obstruction can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
      1.3
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man is referred to the acute medical unit. He had presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is referred to the acute medical unit. He had presented earlier in the day to the GP complaining of ongoing fatigue and polydipsia. A BM (finger-prick glucose) taken in the surgery was 22.3 mmol/l. On examination he is an obese man (BMI 36 kg/m2) with a pulse of 84 bpm and blood pressure of 144/84 mmHg. Blood tests reveal the following:

      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 3.9 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 23 mmol/l
      Urea 5.2 mmol/l
      Creatinine 101 µmol/l
      Glucose 18.2 mmol/l

      You advise him to lose weight and discuss basic dietary advice. What is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Although exenatide can benefit obese patients, it is not the primary treatment option.

      Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. It belongs to a class of drugs called biguanides and works by activating the AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK), which increases insulin sensitivity and reduces hepatic gluconeogenesis. Additionally, it may decrease the absorption of carbohydrates in the gastrointestinal tract. Unlike other diabetes medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. It is also used to treat polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.

      While metformin is generally well-tolerated, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, anorexia, and diarrhea are common and can be intolerable for some patients. Reduced absorption of vitamin B12 is also a potential side effect, although it rarely causes clinical problems. In rare cases, metformin can cause lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. However, it is important to note that lactic acidosis is now recognized as a rare side effect of metformin.

      There are several contraindications to using metformin, including chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and alcohol abuse. Additionally, metformin should be discontinued before and after procedures involving iodine-containing x-ray contrast media to reduce the risk of contrast nephropathy.

      When starting metformin, it is important to titrate the dose slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects. If patients experience intolerable side effects, modified-release metformin may be considered as an alternative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden-onset headache that began 12 hours ago. She describes it as ‘an explosion’ and ‘the worst headache of her life’. She denies any vomiting or recent trauma and has not experienced any weight loss. On examination, there are no cranial nerve abnormalities. A CT scan of the head shows no abnormalities. She has no significant medical or family history. The pain has subsided with codeine, and she wants to be discharged.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Management of Suspected Subarachnoid Haemorrhage: Importance of Lumbar Puncture

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH), it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis through appropriate investigations. While a CT scan of the head is often the first-line investigation, it may not always detect an SAH. In such cases, a lumbar puncture can be a valuable tool to confirm the presence of blood in the cerebrospinal fluid.

      Xanthochromia analysis, which detects the presence of oxyhaemoglobin and bilirubin in the cerebrospinal fluid, can help differentiate between traumatic and non-traumatic causes of blood in the fluid. To ensure the accuracy of the test, the lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after the onset of headache, and the third sample should be sent for xanthochromia analysis.

      In cases where an SAH is suspected, it is crucial not to discharge the patient without further investigation. Overnight observation may be an option, but it is not ideal as it delays diagnosis and treatment. Similarly, prescribing analgesia may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the underlying issue.

      The best course of action in suspected SAH is to perform a lumbar puncture to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate management. Early diagnosis and treatment can prevent further damage and improve outcomes for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 2-day-old infant is diagnosed with an intraventricular haemorrhage. What is commonly linked...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day-old infant is diagnosed with an intraventricular haemorrhage. What is commonly linked with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prematurity

      Explanation:

      Prematurity and Intraventricular Haemorrhages

      Prematurity is linked to the occurrence of intraventricular haemorrhages, which are believed to be caused by the fragility of blood vessels. However, it is important to note that intraventricular haemorrhage is not typically a symptom of haemophilia.

      Prematurity refers to a baby being born before the 37th week of pregnancy. Babies born prematurely are at a higher risk of developing intraventricular haemorrhages, which occur when there is bleeding in the brain’s ventricles. This is because the blood vessels in premature babies’ brains are not fully developed and are therefore more fragile. Intraventricular haemorrhages can lead to serious complications, such as brain damage and developmental delays.

      On the other hand, haemophilia is a genetic disorder that affects the blood’s ability to clot. While haemophilia can cause bleeding in various parts of the body, it is not typically associated with intraventricular haemorrhages. It is important to differentiate between the two conditions to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of recurrent episodes of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of recurrent episodes of shortness of breath. She describes it as ‘coming on suddenly without warning’. They have woken her at night before. She describes the attacks as a ‘tightness’ in the chest and says that they are associated with tingling in her fingers. The episodes resolve in a few minutes by themselves. She is otherwise medically fit and well. She smokes 15 cigarettes per day and has a family history of asthma. Examination is normal, and the peak expiratory flow rate is normal for her age and height.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Panic attacks

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between possible causes of acute shortness of breath: A medical analysis

      When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, it is important to consider a range of possible causes. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest panic attacks rather than left ventricular failure, acute asthma attacks, COPD, or anaemia.

      Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset and spontaneous resolution, numbness of extremities, and normal examination and peak flow measurement. They can be triggered or occur unexpectedly, and may be due to a disorder such as panic disorder or post-traumatic stress disorder, or secondary to medical problems such as thyroid disease. Treatment includes psychological therapies, breathing exercises, stress avoidance, and pharmacological therapies such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.

      Left ventricular failure, on the other hand, would cause respiratory problems due to pulmonary congestion, leading to reduced pulmonary compliance and increased airway resistance. Examination of someone with left ventricular failure would reveal pulmonary crackles and possibly a small mitral regurgitation murmur. However, it is unlikely that a woman would experience acute episodes such as these due to heart failure.

      Acute asthma attacks are typically triggered by inhaled allergens or other factors such as cold/dry air, stress, or upper respiratory tract infections. The absence of triggers in this case suggests that asthma is not the diagnosis.

      COPD is a possible differential due to the patient’s smoking history, but it is unlikely to have worsened so acutely and resolved in a matter of minutes. The normal peak expiratory flow rate also suggests that COPD is not the cause.

      Finally, anaemia would not account for acute episodes of shortness of breath, which are present normally on exertion in anaemic patients. Signs of anaemia such as pallor, tachycardia, cardiac dilation, or oedema are not mentioned in the patient’s history.

      In conclusion, a careful analysis of the patient’s symptoms and medical history can help differentiate between possible causes of acute shortness of breath, leading to appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 10 - A 16-year-old female who is 23 weeks pregnant (G1PO) arrives at the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female who is 23 weeks pregnant (G1PO) arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe lower abdominal pain. She has a history of multiple sexual partners and was recently treated for gonorrhoeae with ceftriaxone. Although she does not take any regular medications, she admits to using illicit drugs such as marijuana and cocaine. During the physical examination, you notice that her uterus is hard and tender. What risk factor in her medical history is likely to contribute to her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cocaine use

      Explanation:

      The risk of placental abruption is increased by cocaine abuse due to its ability to cause vasospasm in the placental blood vessels. Ceftriaxone use, which is the treatment of choice for gonorrhoeae, is not a known risk factor for placental abruption and is therefore a distractor. Although gonorrhoeae can lead to chorioamnionitis, which is a known risk factor for placental abruption, there is no evidence to suggest that this is the case and it is less likely than cocaine use. Primiparity is an incorrect answer as it is actually multiparity that is a risk factor for placental abruption.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visits his GP complaining of dysuria and increased urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visits his GP complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency for the past four days. He denies any recent unprotected sexual intercourse or penile discharge. The patient has a medical history of gallstones and was hospitalised last year due to a severe blood reaction after consuming a meal rich in broad beans. On examination, he has suprapubic tenderness but no renal angle tenderness. All his observations are within normal limits. Which antibiotic should the doctor avoid prescribing to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Cefuroxime is a suitable option for this patient as it does not exhibit cross-reactivity with penicillins and there are no contraindications present.

      Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis

      Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

      The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.

      While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for patients with heart conditions.

      Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 12 - Sarah is a 75-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of a persistent...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 75-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of a persistent cough, coughing up blood, and losing weight. She used to work in a shipyard and was exposed to a significant amount of asbestos. What is the most conclusive method to diagnose the probable condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thoracoscopy and histology

      Explanation:

      To diagnose mesothelioma, a thoracoscopy and histology are necessary. Other tests such as bronchoscopy and endobronchial ultrasound guided transbronchial needle aspiration are not appropriate as mesothelioma does not spread into the airways. While a CT scan or MRI can show evidence of a tumor, a histological examination is required to confirm the diagnosis.

      Understanding Mesothelioma: A Cancer Linked to Asbestos Exposure

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the mesothelial layer of the pleural cavity, which is strongly associated with exposure to asbestos. Although it is rare, other mesothelial layers in the abdomen may also be affected. Symptoms of mesothelioma include dyspnoea, weight loss, and chest wall pain, as well as clubbing. About 30% of cases present as painless pleural effusion, and only 20% have pre-existing asbestosis. A history of asbestos exposure is present in 85-90% of cases, with a latent period of 30-40 years.

      To diagnose mesothelioma, suspicion is typically raised by a chest x-ray showing either pleural effusion or pleural thickening. The next step is usually a pleural CT, and if a pleural effusion is present, fluid should be sent for MC&S, biochemistry, and cytology. However, cytology is only helpful in 20-30% of cases. Local anaesthetic thoracoscopy is increasingly used to investigate cytology-negative exudative effusions as it has a high diagnostic yield of around 95%. If an area of pleural nodularity is seen on CT, then an image-guided pleural biopsy may be used.

      Management of mesothelioma is typically symptomatic, with industrial compensation available for those affected. Chemotherapy and surgery may be options if the cancer is operable. However, the prognosis for mesothelioma is poor, with a median survival of only 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a lump in her left breast that has appeared suddenly over the past month. She is very concerned about it and describes it as being located below the nipple. Additionally, she has noticed mild tenderness to the lump. She cannot recall any triggers or trauma that may have caused it. During the examination, a well-defined, 2 cm mobile mass is palpated in the left breast. There is no skin discoloration or discharge present. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Explanation:

      If a female under 30 years old has a lump that is non-tender, discrete, and mobile, it is likely a fibroadenoma. This type of lump can sometimes be tender. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is more common in older women and is described as painful and lumpy, especially around menstruation. Ductal carcinoma is also more common in older women and can present with a painless lump, nipple changes, nipple discharge, and changes in the skin’s contour. Fat necrosis lumps tend to be hard and irregular, while an abscess would show signs of inflammation such as redness, fever, and pain.

      Breast Disorders: Common Features and Characteristics

      Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Fibroadenoma is a non-tender, highly mobile lump that is common in women under the age of 30. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by lumpy breasts that may be painful, especially before menstruation. Breast cancer is a hard, irregular lump that may be accompanied by nipple inversion or skin tethering. Paget’s disease of the breast is associated with a reddening and thickening of the nipple/areola, while mammary duct ectasia is characterized by dilation of the large breast ducts, which may cause a tender lump around the areola and a green nipple discharge. Duct papilloma is characterized by local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts, while fat necrosis is more common in obese women with large breasts and may mimic breast cancer. Breast abscess, on the other hand, is more common in lactating women and is characterized by a red, hot, and tender swelling. Lipomas and sebaceous cysts may also develop around the breast tissue.

      Common Features and Characteristics of Breast Disorders

      Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Each of these disorders has its own unique features and characteristics that can help identify them. Understanding these features and characteristics can help women identify potential breast disorders and seek appropriate medical attention. It is important to note that while some breast disorders may be benign, others may be malignant or premalignant, and further investigation is always warranted. Regular breast exams and mammograms can also help detect breast disorders early, increasing the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 14 - A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent presented with bipedal oedema. He was a retired teacher with occasional international travel. On examination, his body weight was 40 kg with some oral ulcers.
      Tests revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 112g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 1.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.4 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
      Eosinophils 0.8 × 109/l 0.1–0.4 × 109/l
      Urine Protein 2+
      Cholesterol 4.5 <5.2 mmol/l
      Which of the following tests is next indicated for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CD4 count

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of HIV Nephropathy

      HIV infection is a high possibility in a patient with risk factors and presenting with emaciation, oral ulcers, and lymphopenia. A CD4 count and HIV serological testing should be done urgently. HIV nephropathy is a common complication, with focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis being the most common pathological diagnosis. Other variants include membranoproliferative nephropathy, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, and IgA nephropathy. Treatment involves ACE inhibitors and antiretroviral therapy, with dialysis being necessary in end-stage disease. Renal biopsy is required to confirm the diagnosis, but HIV testing should be performed first. Serum IgA levels are elevated in IgA nephropathy, while serum complement levels and anti-nuclear factor are needed in SLE-associated nephropathy or other connective tissue diseases or vasculitis. However, the lack of systemic symptoms points away from these diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male contacts his GP at 2PM to schedule his blood tests following a recent visit to his psychiatrist. The psychiatrist has raised his lithium dosage and requested that the GP arrange for lithium levels to be checked at the appropriate time after taking the medication. The patient took his first increased dose of lithium at 10AM (4 hours ago). In how many hours should the GP schedule the blood test to be taken?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8 hours

      Explanation:

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.

      Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 16 - You suspect your classmate is being bullied by their teacher. They look miserable...

    Incorrect

    • You suspect your classmate is being bullied by their teacher. They look miserable all the time and whenever their teacher is around they freeze and look tearful.
      Which is the most appropriate action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Speak to your colleague in private and ask if everything is OK

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions to Take When Concerned About a Colleague’s Treatment by a Senior

      When you suspect that a colleague is being mistreated by a senior, it is important to take appropriate actions. Confronting the consultant or threatening your colleague is not the right approach. Instead, the first step should be to speak to your colleague in private and ask if everything is okay. This will help you understand the situation better and avoid jumping to conclusions. Reporting the consultant to the deanery without evidence or threatening your colleague to report their consultant is unprofessional and could cause more harm than good. Ignoring the situation is also not advisable. It is important to address any concerns about mistreatment in the workplace and support your colleagues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath after...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath after being sat at home.
      An arterial blood gas (ABG) is performed and shows the following results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.48 7.35–7.45
      pO2 7.3 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pCO2 3.9 kPa 4.6–6 kPa
      HCO3 24 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
      Which one of the following conditions is most likely to account for these investigation results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Respiratory Failure: Causes and ABG Interpretation

      Respiratory failure is a condition where the lungs fail to adequately oxygenate the blood or remove carbon dioxide. There are two types of respiratory failure: type I and type II. Type I respiratory failure is characterized by low levels of oxygen and normal or low levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Type II respiratory failure, on the other hand, is characterized by low levels of oxygen and high levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory acidosis.

      Pulmonary embolism is the only cause of type I respiratory failure. This condition results in reduced oxygenation of the blood due to a blockage in the pulmonary artery. The ABG of a patient with pulmonary embolism would show low levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as respiratory alkalosis.

      Hypothyroidism, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and myasthenia gravis are all causes of type II respiratory failure. Hypothyroidism can result in decreased ventilatory drive, while Guillain–Barré syndrome and myasthenia gravis can cause respiratory muscle weakness, leading to hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis.

      Opiate overdose is another cause of type II respiratory failure. Opiates act on the respiratory centers in the brain, reducing ventilation and causing respiratory acidosis.

      In summary, understanding the causes and ABG interpretation of respiratory failure is crucial in identifying and managing this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 18 - A 24-year-old woman, gravidity 2 and parity 1, at 37 weeks gestation presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman, gravidity 2 and parity 1, at 37 weeks gestation presents with severe abdominal pain after fainting. Her blood pressure is 92/58 mmHg and heart rate is 132/min. Upon examination, she appears cold and her fundal height measures 37 cm. The cervical os is closed and there is no vaginal bleeding. What is the most suitable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following statements regarding male circumcision is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding male circumcision is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduces the rate of HIV transmission

      Explanation:

      Understanding Circumcision

      Circumcision is a practice that has been carried out in various cultures for centuries. Today, it is mainly practiced by people of the Jewish and Islamic faith for religious or cultural reasons. However, it is important to note that circumcision for these reasons is not available on the NHS.

      The medical benefits of circumcision are still a topic of debate. However, some studies have shown that it can reduce the risk of penile cancer, urinary tract infections, and sexually transmitted infections, including HIV.

      There are also medical indications for circumcision, such as phimosis, recurrent balanitis, balanitis xerotica obliterans, and paraphimosis. It is crucial to rule out hypospadias before performing circumcision as the foreskin may be needed for surgical repair.

      Circumcision can be performed under local or general anesthesia. It is a personal decision that should be made after careful consideration of the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 20 - A woman is initiated on a therapeutic dose of dalteparin for the treatment...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is initiated on a therapeutic dose of dalteparin for the treatment of deep vein thrombosis. What is the recommended monitoring for this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No routine monitoring needed, but in special situations check anti-Factor Xa levels

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.

      Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.

      Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes for a check-up. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant comes for a check-up. She had contact with a child who has chickenpox earlier in the day, but she is uncertain if she had the illness as a child. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check varicella antibodies

      Explanation:

      To ensure that a pregnant woman has not been exposed to chickenpox before, the initial step is to test her blood for varicella antibodies.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 22 - A mental state examination is conducted on a 30-year-old individual. When asked about...

    Incorrect

    • A mental state examination is conducted on a 30-year-old individual. When asked about their activities during the week, they begin discussing their job, then transition to their passion for writing, followed by reminiscing about their favorite literature teacher from school, and finally discussing the death of their childhood dog and how it relates to their current writing project. Although their speech is at a normal pace, they never fully answer the question about their recent activities. What can be said about this individual's behavior?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tangentiality

      Explanation:

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses every 32–38 days). She has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2 and is hirsute. She has short hair distributed in a male pattern of baldness.
      Examination reveals brown, hyperpigmented areas in the creases of the axillae and around the neck. A glucose tolerance test is performed and shows the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Fasting plasma glucose 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) plasma glucose 9.2 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate monitoring plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Annual glucose tolerance testing as there is evidence of impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Annual Monitoring for Diabetes in Women with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome

      Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) are at an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is important to monitor these patients for diabetes. The monitoring approach depends on the patient’s risk stratification, which is determined by factors such as BMI, family history of diabetes, and personal history of gestational diabetes.

      For patients with evidence of impaired glucose tolerance, defined as a fasting glucose of < 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour OGTT of ≥ 7.8 but < 11.1 mmol/l, dietary and weight loss advice should be given, and a repeat glucose tolerance test is indicated annually. For patients with a normal glucose tolerance test, with a BMI of < 30 kg/m2, no family history of diabetes, and no personal history of gestational diabetes, annual random fasting glucose testing is appropriate. If the result is ≥ 5.6 mmol/l, then a glucose tolerance test should be performed. For patients with a BMI of ≥ 30 kg/m2, annual glucose tolerance testing is recommended. If diabetes is suspected based on symptoms such as polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, a random serum glucose of ≥ 11.0 mmol/l or a fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l is diagnostic. In asymptomatic patients, two samples of fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l are adequate for diagnosis. In conclusion, annual monitoring for diabetes is important in women with PCOS to prevent complications and morbidity associated with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The monitoring approach should be tailored to the patient’s risk stratification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Urology Clinic with a 4-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Urology Clinic with a 4-month history of difficulty initiating micturition and poor flow when passing urine. He reports waking up 2-3 times a night to urinate and has not experienced any changes in bowel habits. He denies any visible blood in his urine and is generally feeling well. There is no family history of prostate cancer. During digital rectal examination (DRE), a slightly enlarged and smooth prostate is detected. Urinalysis shows protein + but is negative for blood, ketones, glucose, nitrites, and leukocytes. Full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests all come back normal. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level is 1.3 ng/ml. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence an a-1-antagonist

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that presents with obstructive lower urinary symptoms. Over time, irritative lower urinary tract symptoms can develop due to bladder outflow obstruction, detrusor hypertrophy, and a resulting overactive bladder. The examination typically reveals a smooth and symmetrically enlarged prostate gland, and a PSA level >1.5 indicates significant risk of progression of prostate enlargement.

      There are several treatment options for BPH, depending on the severity of symptoms and prostate enlargement. Lifestyle adaptation, such as sensible fluid intake, reduction of caffeine and alcohol, and management of constipation, can often be effective. If symptoms are troublesome, treatment with an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin can be tried. If the prostate is significantly enlarged or PSA is >1.5, then finasteride, a 5a-reductase inhibitor that will shrink the prostate over time, can be added.

      Anticholinergic medications like oxybutynin can be used to relieve urinary and bladder difficulties, but these are not typically used first line. Prostate biopsy is not always necessary, and contraindications include the surgical absence of a rectum or the presence of a rectal fistula.

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised aches, especially...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of generalised aches, especially in his knees when he walks. He also feels like his muscles are weaker now despite maintaining the same exercise routine as always. The GP notices that the patient is wearing long sleeves and trousers despite the warm weather, and the patient admits to disliking the sun. Upon conducting a blood test, the GP discovers low levels of calcium and phosphate. What is the most probable diagnosis for this metabolic bone condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Bone Disorders: Understanding the Characteristics of Osteomalacia, Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica, Osteopetrosis, Osteoporosis, and Paget’s Disease

      Bone disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to diagnose the specific condition. Understanding the characteristics of each disorder can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

      Osteomalacia is caused by a lack of vitamin D, resulting in soft bones. Risk factors include limited sunlight exposure, covering the skin, and a diet lacking in vitamin D. Low levels of vitamin D lead to decreased serum calcium and phosphate levels.

      Osteitis fibrosa cystica is caused by hyperparathyroidism, resulting in increased bone breakdown and raised serum calcium but low phosphate levels. Patients commonly present with bone pain, fractures, and skeletal deformities.

      Osteopetrosis involves impaired bone remodelling due to the failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone, resulting in increased bone mass but skeletal fragility. It can be autosomal recessive or dominant.

      Osteoporosis is characterised by reduced bone mass, resulting in skeletal fragility, and is common in the elderly. However, it does not typically present with bone pain, and serum calcium and phosphate levels are unaffected.

      Paget’s disease is characterised by pathological increased bone turnover, commonly affecting the skull, pelvis, spine, and legs. Bone pain is a common presenting symptom, but serum calcium and phosphate levels are unaffected.

      Understanding the unique characteristics of each bone disorder can aid in proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Biochemistry
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  • Question 26 - A 26-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. The abdominal pain started suddenly in the night, about 3 hours ago. It is a severe dull pain in the suprapubic region and doesn't radiate anywhere. The pain has not settled at all since onset and is not positional. She rates the pain as 10/10 in severity. She passed about 2 cupfuls of blood 1 hour previously. She reports that the bleeding has soaked through 2 sanitary pads. She also complains of back pain and is exquisitely tender on suprapubic palpation. She has not noticed any decreased foetal movements, although says that her baby is not particularly active usually. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placenta abruption

      Explanation:

      Placenta abruptio is characterized by painful vaginal bleeding, while placenta praevia typically does not cause pain. In cases of placenta abruptio, the uterus may feel hard and woody to the touch due to retroplacental blood tracking into the myometrium. The absence of fetal heart rate and shock in the mother are common symptoms. Immediate resuscitation is crucial, and once stable, the baby will require urgent delivery. Postpartum hemorrhage is more likely to occur in these cases.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 27 - A 4-month-old infant presents with jaundice and difficulty feeding. The baby was born...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-month-old infant presents with jaundice and difficulty feeding. The baby was born via caesarean section at 38 weeks with an APGAR score of 8 and 9 at 1 and 5 minutes, respectively. There are no dysmorphic features or rashes on examination, and vital signs are within normal limits. The family history is significant for the father and older sibling having a condition that causes transient, asymptomatic episodes of jaundice. Laboratory results show a conjugated bilirubin level of 72 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), unconjugated bilirubin level of 10 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), ALP level of 134 u/L (normal range: 30-100), ALT level of 58 u/L (normal range: 3-40), and γGT level of 197 u/L (normal range: 8-60). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      The onset of biliary atresia is usually observed within the first few weeks of a newborn’s life, characterized by symptoms such as jaundice, poor appetite, and growth issues. This condition occurs when fibrous blockages obstruct the biliary ducts outside the liver, which can eventually lead to liver failure. Patients typically exhibit high levels of conjugated bilirubin, hepatomegaly, and elevated liver transaminases (with GGT being the most elevated). Alagille syndrome is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the liver and heart, and is characterized by distinct facial features such as a broad forehead and pointed chin. Diagnosis is confirmed through genetic testing for mutations in the JAG1 gene. Dubin-Johnson syndrome and… (sentence incomplete)

      Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children

      Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.

      To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.

      Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - An infant, born to a 25-year-old woman immigrant who did not receive prenatal...

    Incorrect

    • An infant, born to a 25-year-old woman immigrant who did not receive prenatal care, is found to have a midline lesion on his lower back. Examination reveals a fluid-filled cystic mass that is continuous with the spinal canal.
      With which one of the following could this anomaly have been prevented by supplementation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A vitamin necessary in nucleic acid synthesis

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Vitamins in Various Biological Processes

      Vitamins play a crucial role in various biological processes, including nucleic acid synthesis, high-energy electron carrier synthesis, pyruvate dehydrogenase function, prevention of keratinised squamous metaplasia, and fatty acid synthesis.

      Insufficient maternal folate, a vitamin necessary in nucleic acid synthesis, can cause spina bifida, a neural tube defect. Supplementation with folate prior to conception can prevent such defects. Vitamin B3 is necessary for the synthesis of a high-energy electron carrier, while vitamin B1 is necessary for pyruvate dehydrogenase function. Vitamin A prevents keratinised squamous metaplasia and maintains specialised epithelium, but its supplementation is contraindicated during pregnancy. Finally, pantothenic acid or vitamin B5 is necessary for fatty acid synthesis, and its deficiency is rare.

      In conclusion, vitamins are essential for various biological processes, and their deficiency can lead to severe health issues. It is crucial to maintain a balanced diet and ensure adequate vitamin intake to prevent such deficiencies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 29 - An 8-year-old boy comes to you with a history of easy bleeding and...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old boy comes to you with a history of easy bleeding and bruising, even with minor injuries. His parents are healthy, but his mother reports that her brother also has a bleeding disorder and suspects that other male relatives may be affected. Based on this information, what is the most probable mode of inheritance for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: X-linked recessive

      Explanation:

      Inherited Genetic Disorders: Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance

      X-linked recessive inheritance is a type of genetic inheritance that affects significantly more males than females. This type of inheritance is commonly associated with bleeding disorders such as haemophilia A and B, which are caused by deficiencies in clotting factors VIII and IX respectively. In X-linked recessive inheritance, female carriers are unaffected, but all male offspring that inherit the mutated allele on the X chromosome will be affected.

      A family history of the disease can help identify the mode of inheritance. For example, if a mother is a carrier and her brother has the disease, it is likely that their grandmother was also a carrier. The mother and her brother both inherited the abnormal X chromosome, but the mother is a carrier while the uncle is affected. Similarly, if a male inherits the abnormal X chromosome from his mother, he will be affected by the disease.

      Other types of genetic inheritance include Y-linked, autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, and X-linked dominant. Examples of Y-linked inherited conditions include male infertility, retinitis pigmentosa, and hypertrichosis pinnae. Autosomal dominant conditions include Marfan syndrome, achondroplasia, and osteogenesis imperfecta. Autosomal recessive conditions include CF, Wilson’s disease, and haemochromatosis. Examples of X-linked dominant conditions include Rett syndrome, fragile X syndrome, and vitamin D-resistant rickets.

      Understanding the mode of inheritance can help individuals and families make informed decisions about genetic testing and family planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 30 - You review a patient on the ward on day two of admission. He...

    Incorrect

    • You review a patient on the ward on day two of admission. He is a 16-year-old without medical history; however, his family history reveals that his mother has type II diabetes. The 16-year-old originally presented with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 3/15. The paramedics recorded that the glucose monitor at the scene read ‘LO’ and he was given intravenous dextrose and intramuscular glucagon. On arrival to the Emergency Department, blood glucose was 2.1 and his treatment was continued. He is now euglycaemic off treatment. Blood tests were taken at the time and they have just returned. These tests reveal that:
      Serum insulin – raised
      C-peptide – raised
      What is the most likely cause of this patient’s presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide overdose

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gliclazide Overdose: Clinical Features and Differential Diagnosis

      Gliclazide is an anti-diabetic drug that belongs to the sulfonylurea group. It works by binding to the sulfonylurea receptors on the pancreatic beta cells, causing the release of insulin and C-peptide. In cases of gliclazide overdose, we expect to see high levels of insulin and C-peptide, which can lead to hypoglycaemia, dizziness, sweating, tremors, seizures, and loss of consciousness.

      When presented with a patient experiencing hypoglycaemia, it is important to consider the differential diagnosis. Starvation is unlikely to cause severe hypoglycaemia and is typically associated with anaemia and vitamin deficiencies. Insulin overdose, on the other hand, would result in low C-peptide levels and high insulin levels. Metformin overdose, which inhibits gluconeogenesis in the liver, does not typically cause hypoglycaemia but can lead to metabolic acidosis and non-specific symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, lethargy, and hyperventilation.

      Undiagnosed type 1 diabetes mellitus, which is characterized by hyperglycaemia and a deficiency in insulin production, would result in low insulin and C-peptide levels. In cases where a patient’s family member has type 2 diabetes and hypoglycaemic agents are available at home, intentional gliclazide overdose should be considered as a possible cause of hypoglycaemia. Understanding the clinical features and differential diagnosis of gliclazide overdose is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and management for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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