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  • Question 1 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. He mentions that...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to the GP surgery. He mentions that he has noticed a few lesions on her foot. He adds that she is perfectly fine and that he only noticed them while giving her a bath yesterday. You diagnose viral warts. The father inquires about the treatment options.

      Your Answer: Prescribe topical salicylic acid treatment

      Correct Answer: Treatment not required as most will resolve spontaneously

      Explanation:

      As the warts are not causing any issues for the patient, it is highly recommended to provide reassurance and advise against treatment. Prescribing topical antiviral treatments or steroids would not be beneficial in this case. While cryotherapy and topical salicylic acid treatment are possible options, it is best to adopt a wait-and-see approach since the warts are not causing any problems. Therefore, the answer is that treatment is unnecessary as most warts will resolve on their own.

      Understanding Viral Warts: When to Seek Treatment

      Viral warts are a common skin condition caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV). While they are generally harmless, they can be painful and unsightly, leading some patients to seek treatment. However, in most cases, treatment is not necessary as warts will typically resolve on their own within a few months to two years. In fact, it can take up to 10 years for warts to disappear in adults.

      It is important to note that while viral warts are not a serious medical concern, they can be contagious and easily spread through skin-to-skin contact or contact with contaminated surfaces. Therefore, it is important to practice good hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as towels or razors with others to prevent the spread of warts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old woman has been consulting with the practice nurse for a few weeks about a leg ulcer on her right leg that doesn't seem to be healing despite multiple rounds of antibiotics. You schedule some Doppler tests, which reveal an ankle: brachial pressure index (ABPI) of 0.4 in the affected leg and 0.8 in the other leg. A wound swab indicates the presence of coliforms. What is the most probable diagnosis from the options provided?

      Your Answer: Arterial insufficiency

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Ankle-Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) and its Role in Diagnosing Peripheral Arterial Disease

      The ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is a crucial diagnostic tool for identifying peripheral arterial disease. By comparing the systolic blood pressure at the ankle to the brachial artery pressure, doctors can determine if there is lower blood pressure in the leg, which is a sign of arterial disease. To measure the ABPI, a Doppler ultrasound blood flow detector and a sphygmomanometer are used to detect the artery pulse in the brachial and dorsalis pedis or posterior tibial arteries.

      A normal ABPI falls between 0.9 and 1.2, while a value below 0.9 indicates arterial disease. An ABPI of 1.3 or greater is considered abnormal and suggests severe arterial disease. In cases where the ABPI is below 0.5, the disease is considered severe. It’s important to note that an ulcer with a normal ABPI is most likely a venous ulcer.

      While coliforms are common commensals in leg ulcers and typically don’t require treatment, failure of any ulcer to heal should raise concerns about the possibility of a squamous cell carcinoma. Vasculitis typically doesn’t affect the ABPI unless it’s a large vessel vasculitis, such as polyarteritis nodosa, which would be apparent. Understanding the ABPI and its role in diagnosing peripheral arterial disease is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP urgently due to a recent increase in...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP urgently due to a recent increase in his INR levels. He has been on Warfarin for a decade and has consistently maintained an INR reading between 2 and 3. However, his most recent blood test showed an INR of 6.2. He reports receiving a topical medication for a facial rash at a walk-in centre two weeks ago.
      What is the most probable treatment that led to the elevation in his INR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mupirocin

      Explanation:

      Miconazole Oral Gel and Warfarin Interaction

      Miconazole oral gel, commonly known as Daktarin, is often used to treat candidal infections of the mouth and face. However, it can interact with the anticoagulant drug warfarin, which is metabolized by the CYP2C9 enzyme. Miconazole inhibits this enzyme, leading to increased levels of warfarin in the bloodstream and potentially causing bleeding. Other antimicrobial agents like Aciclovir, Clotrimazole, Fucidin, and Mupirocin can be used to treat infected rashes on the face, but they do not have significant interactions with warfarin. As a core competence of clinical management, safe prescribing and medicines management approaches should include awareness of common drug interactions, especially those that can affect patient safety when taking warfarin.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old patient presents with concerns about her acne treatment. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old patient presents with concerns about her acne treatment. She has been using a topical gel containing benzoyl peroxide and clindamycin for the past 3 months but has not seen significant improvement.

      Upon examination, she has inflammatory papules and closed comedones on her forehead and chin, as well as some on her upper back. She is interested in a stronger medication and asks if she should continue using the gel alongside it.

      What advice should you give regarding her current topical treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Change to topical benzoyl peroxide alone, or topical retinoid

      Explanation:

      To effectively treat acne, it is not recommended to use both topical and oral antibiotics together. Instead, the patient should switch to using either topical benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid alone. Continuing to use the current combination gel or switching to topical clindamycin or topical lymecycline alone are not recommended as they involve the use of both topical and oral antibiotics, which can lead to antibiotic resistance. According to NICE guidelines, a combination of topical benzoyl peroxide or a topical retinoid with oral antibiotics is a more effective treatment option.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old woman presents with a painful boil in her axilla. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with a painful boil in her axilla. She reports a history of abscess in the other axillae which required incision and drainage, and now wants to prevent it from happening again. She also complains of frequently having spots and pustules in the groin area. Upon examination of the affected axillae, there is a small inflamed pustule, along with a few other nodules and scarring. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hidradenitis suppurativa

      Explanation:

      Hidradenitis suppurativa is a skin disorder that is chronic, painful, and inflammatory. It is characterized by the presence of nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in areas where skin folds overlap, such as the armpits, groin, and inner thighs.

      This condition is more common in women, smokers, and individuals with a higher body mass index. Over time, the lesions can lead to the development of scars and sinus tracts.

      Acanthosis nigricans, on the other hand, is a skin condition characterized by thickening and discoloration of the skin in skin folds. It is often a sign of an underlying disease such as diabetes or malignancy.

      Acne vulgaris is another skin condition that can present with papules and pustules, but it typically affects the face, upper back, and chest rather than the areas affected by hidradenitis suppurativa.

      Rosacea is a skin condition that causes redness and inflammatory papules on the face, particularly on the cheeks and nose.

      Understanding Hidradenitis Suppurativa

      Hidradenitis suppurativa (HS) is a chronic skin disorder that causes painful and inflammatory nodules, pustules, sinus tracts, and scars in intertriginous areas. It is more common in women and typically affects adults under 40. HS occurs due to chronic inflammatory occlusion of folliculopilosebaceous units that obstructs the apocrine glands and prevents keratinocytes from properly shedding from the follicular epithelium. Risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and mechanical stretching of skin.

      The initial manifestation of HS involves recurrent, painful, and inflamed nodules that can rupture and discharge purulent, malodorous material. The axilla is the most common site, but it can also occur in other areas such as the inguinal, inner thighs, perineal and perianal, and inframammary skin. Coalescence of nodules can result in plaques, sinus tracts, and ‘rope-like’ scarring. Diagnosis is made clinically.

      Management of HS involves encouraging good hygiene and loose-fitting clothing, smoking cessation, and weight loss in obese patients. Acute flares can be treated with steroids or antibiotics, and surgical incision and drainage may be needed in some cases. Long-term disease can be treated with topical or oral antibiotics. Lumps that persist despite prolonged medical treatment are excised surgically. Complications of HS include sinus tracts, fistulas, comedones, scarring, contractures, and lymphatic obstruction.

      HS can be differentiated from acne vulgaris, follicular pyodermas, and granuloma inguinale. Acne vulgaris primarily occurs on the face, upper chest, and back, whereas HS primarily involves intertriginous areas. Follicular pyodermas are transient and respond rapidly to antibiotics, unlike HS. Granuloma inguinale is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and presents as an enlarging ulcer that bleeds in the inguinal area.

      Overall, understanding HS is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of this chronic and painful skin disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a three week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a three week history of painful, red, raised lesions on the front of her shins. A chest x ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. She also reports experiencing polyarthralgia and a slight dry cough.

      What is the association with her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Use of the combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sarcoidosis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Sarcoidosis is a granulomatous disease that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in Afro-Caribbean patients and typically affects adults aged 20-40. The disease can present with erythema nodosum (EN), polyarthralgia, and a slight dry cough. A chest x-ray is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, which is characterized by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL).

      Acute sarcoidosis can resolve spontaneously, but in some cases, the disease becomes chronic and progressive. Blood investigations may show raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), lymphopenia, elevated serum ACE, and elevated calcium. Hypercalciuria is a common occurrence in sarcoidosis.

      It is important to differentiate sarcoidosis from lymphoma, which can also cause BHL. Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with EBV, while sarcoidosis is not associated with HLA-B27. Hypercalcaemia, rather than hypocalcaemia, is a common occurrence in sarcoidosis.

      The combined oral contraceptive is known to be associated with developing EN, but it would not cause the other symptoms and signs. Early diagnosis and management can prevent the disease from becoming chronic and progressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a vesicular rash that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a vesicular rash that is extremely itchy and evenly spread over his arms, legs, elbows, shoulders, and buttocks. He reports that the rash appears and disappears, with periods of a few weeks when it is almost gone. He also experiences intermittent diarrhea, which has been attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Possible Coeliac Disease and Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      The patient’s history of bowel symptoms suggests the possibility of undiagnosed coeliac disease, which may be linked to dermatitis herpetiformis. A gluten exclusion diet may help improve the rash, but dapsone may also be effective in treating it. Other potential causes of a vesicular rash include erythema multiforme, porphyria, and pemphigus/pemphigoid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - A 75-year-old woman comes to you with an itchy rash on both hands,...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman comes to you with an itchy rash on both hands, anterior aspects of both elbows, axillae and groins. Other residents in her nursing home have reported experiencing similar symptoms.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Scabies, Henoch-Schönlein Purpura, Psoriasis, Pemphigus Vulgaris, and Bullous Pemphigoid

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, resulting in a pruritic eruption with a characteristic distribution pattern. Permethrin-containing lotions are the treatment. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a form of vasculitis, while psoriasis is characterized by plaques over extensor surfaces. Pemphigus vulgaris may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions, and bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication. It is important to consider the specific symptoms and distribution patterns of each condition to accurately diagnose and treat them.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following aspects of daily living is specifically inquired about in Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sexual intercourse

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI)

      The Dermatology Life Quality Index (DLQI) is a commonly used tool to evaluate the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It consists of 10 questions, each scored out of 3, with a maximum score of 30. The higher the score, the more significant the impact on the patient’s quality of life. The DLQI covers six areas, including symptoms and feelings, daily activities, leisure, work and school, personal relationships, and treatment.

      The DLQI questions are designed to assess the level of discomfort, embarrassment, and interference with daily activities caused by the skin condition. Patients are asked to rate the severity of symptoms such as itchiness, soreness, and pain, as well as the impact on social and leisure activities, work or study, and personal relationships. The DLQI also evaluates the impact of treatment on the patient’s life.

      Interpreting the DLQI scores is straightforward. A score of 0-1 indicates no effect on the patient’s life, while a score of 2-5 suggests a small impact. A score of 6-10 indicates a moderate effect, while a score of 11-20 suggests a very large impact. A score of 21-30 indicates an extremely large impact on the patient’s life.

      In summary, the DLQI is a quick and easy tool to assess the impact of chronic skin conditions on a patient’s quality of life. It provides valuable information to healthcare professionals to tailor treatment plans and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following side effects is most commonly observed in individuals who...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side effects is most commonly observed in individuals who are prescribed ciclosporin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertension

      Explanation:

      Ciclosporin can cause an increase in various bodily functions and conditions, including fluid retention, blood pressure, potassium levels, hair growth, gum swelling, and glucose levels.

      Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.

      Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Ciclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it doesn’t affect the bone marrow.

      Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.

      In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old man presents with peeling, dryness and mild itching of the palm...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man presents with peeling, dryness and mild itching of the palm of his right hand. On examination, there is hyperkeratosis of the palm with prominent white skin lines. The left hand appears normal.
      What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Skin scraping for fungus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tinea Manuum: A Unilateral Scaly Rash

      Tinea manuum is a type of fungal infection that affects the hands. It is characterized by a unilateral scaly rash that can also involve the back of the hand and nails. In some cases, both hands may be affected, but the involvement tends to be asymmetrical.

      The most common cause of tinea manuum is an anthropophilic fungus such as Tricophyton rubrum, Tricophyton mentagrophytes, or Epidermophyton floccosum. These fungi are typically found on human skin and can be easily transmitted through direct contact.

      In some cases, tinea manuum may present as a raised border with clearing in the middle, resembling a ringworm. This is more likely to occur when a zoophilic fungus is responsible, such as Trichophyton erinacei from a hedgehog or Microsporum canis from a cat or dog.

      It is important to suspect dermatophyte fungus when a unilateral scaly rash is present on the hands. Treatment typically involves antifungal medication, and it is important to maintain good hand hygiene to prevent further spread of the infection.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old army captain has returned to the United Kingdom after a tour...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old army captain has returned to the United Kingdom after a tour of duty overseas and presents to his General Practitioner. He complains of intense itching, mainly affecting his finger webs and the flexural aspect of his wrists. The itching is worse in bed. There was some itching around the groin, but this settled after repeated bathing.
      On examination, there appears to be excoriation in the finger webs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Scabies from Other Itchy Skin Conditions

      Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by Sarcoptes scabiei mites. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly in the finger webs, wrists, elbows, perineum, and areolar regions. The rash may appear as erythematous papules, diffuse dermatitis, or urticated erythema. The pathognomonic sign of scabies is the presence of burrows, which are intraepidermal tunnels created by the female mite.

      When differentiating scabies from other itchy skin conditions, it is important to consider the location and appearance of the rash. Contact dermatitis, for instance, doesn’t typically present with an eczematous rash on the hands. Lichen planus, on the other hand, is characterized by violaceous papules and tends to affect the wrists more than other areas. Pompholyx eczema is limited to the hands and soles of the feet, while psoriasis is characterized by white, scaly plaques and mild itching. By carefully examining the symptoms and physical presentation, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat scabies.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old man presents with tear-drop papules on his trunk and limbs, covering...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents with tear-drop papules on his trunk and limbs, covering less than 10% of his body. He appears to be in good health and guttate psoriasis is suspected. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance + topical treatment if lesions are symptomatic

      Explanation:

      According to the psoriasis guidelines of the British Association of Dermatologists, there is no evidence to suggest that antibiotic therapy provides any therapeutic benefits.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The condition is characterized by the presence of tear drop-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, along with pink, scaly patches or plaques of psoriasis. The onset of guttate psoriasis tends to be acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis resolves on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections associated with the condition. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, which is another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is typically preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be associated with recent respiratory tract infections. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear drop-shaped, scaly papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple erythematous, slightly raised oval lesions with a fine scale. Pityriasis rosea is self-limiting and resolves after around 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.

      Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.

      Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these have led to little improvement. Other than aching in his legs, he is otherwise well. An ABPI was measured at 0.7.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Class 2 compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Understanding ABPI and Compression Stockings

      When a patient is found to have an ABPI of 0.7, it is likely that they have other symptoms of arterial insufficiency. An ABPI less than 0.8 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, while an ABPI greater than 1.3 may be due to calcified and incompressible arteries. It is important to note that compression stockings are contraindicated in patients with ABPIs less than 0.8 or greater than 1.3.

      The class of stocking used is not based on the ABPI, but rather the condition being treated. Closed toe stockings are generally used, but open toe stockings may be necessary if the patient has arthritic or clawed toes, has a fungal infection, prefers to wear a sock over the compression stocking, or has a long foot size compared with their calf size. Understanding ABPI and the appropriate use of compression stockings can help improve patient outcomes and prevent potential complications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on her face.
      Which of the following factors is most important in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thickness of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lentigo Maligna: Early Stage Melanoma

      Lentigo maligna is a type of melanoma that is in its early stages and is confined to the epidermis. It is often referred to as ‘in situ’ melanoma. This type of melanoma typically appears as a flat, slowly growing, freckle-like lesion on the facial or sun-exposed skin of patients in their 60s or older. Over time, it can extend to several centimetres and eventually change into an invasive malignant melanoma.

      To identify lentigo maligna, the ABCDE rule can be used. This rule stands for Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving. If there is a change in size, outline, colour, surface, contour, or elevation of the lesion, malignant change should be suspected. Lentigo maligna spreads via the lymphatics, and satellite lesions are commonly seen.

      The prognosis of lentigo maligna is directly related to the thickness of the tumour assessed at histological examination. The thickness is measured using the Breslow thickness or Clark level of invasion. The site of the lesion also affects the prognosis. Patients with lesions on the trunk fare better than those with facial lesions but worse than those with lesions on the limbs.

      In conclusion, understanding lentigo maligna is crucial in identifying and treating early-stage melanoma. Regular skin checks and following the ABCDE rule can help detect any changes in the skin and prevent the progression of lentigo maligna into invasive malignant melanoma.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 7-year-old girl comes to your clinic with her mother, complaining of persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl comes to your clinic with her mother, complaining of persistent dandruff. Her mother also mentions noticing a small area of hair loss at the back of her head. Upon examination, you observe widespread scaling on the scalp and inflamed skin beneath the patch of hair loss. What steps do you take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send skin scrapings for analysis

      Explanation:

      To effectively manage this fungal infection on the scalp, it is important to identify the specific organism responsible through skin scrapings. Coal tar shampoo may be a suitable treatment for managing dandruff or scalp psoriasis, but it will not address a fungal infection. Topical steroids are not effective against fungal infections. Depending on the type of fungus causing the infection, oral griseofulvin may be an appropriate treatment. Referral to a specialist is not necessary at this stage, as initial investigations can be conducted by primary care providers. This information is sourced from NICE CKS on fungal skin infections of the scalp.

      Understanding Tinea: Types, Causes, Diagnosis, and Management

      Tinea is a term used to describe dermatophyte fungal infections that affect different parts of the body. There are three main types of tinea infections, namely tinea capitis, tinea corporis, and tinea pedis. Tinea capitis affects the scalp and is a common cause of scarring alopecia in children. If left untreated, it can lead to the formation of a raised, pustular, spongy/boggy mass called a kerion. The most common cause of tinea capitis in the UK and the USA is Trichophyton tonsurans, while Microsporum canis acquired from cats or dogs can also cause it. Diagnosis of tinea capitis is done through scalp scrapings, although lesions due to Microsporum canis can be detected through green fluorescence under Wood’s lamp. Management of tinea capitis involves oral antifungals such as terbinafine for Trichophyton tonsurans infections and griseofulvin for Microsporum infections. Topical ketoconazole shampoo is also given for the first two weeks to reduce transmission.

      Tinea corporis, on the other hand, affects the trunk, legs, or arms and is caused by Trichophyton rubrum and Trichophyton verrucosum, which can be acquired from contact with cattle. It is characterized by well-defined annular, erythematous lesions with pustules and papules. Oral fluconazole can be used to treat tinea corporis.

      Lastly, tinea pedis, also known as athlete’s foot, is characterized by itchy, peeling skin between the toes and is common in adolescence. Lesions due to Trichophyton species do not readily fluoresce under Wood’s lamp.

      In summary, understanding the types, causes, diagnosis, and management of tinea infections is crucial in preventing their spread and ensuring effective treatment.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red rash over the last few weeks which has been gradually worsening. It is mostly affecting the flexures and the face. The child’s mother suffers from atopic eczema and suspects that this is the problem with her son’s skin.
      What is the most appropriate management option in the treatment of atopic eczema in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Managing Eczema: Key Recommendations

      Eczema is a chronic skin condition that can cause significant discomfort and distress. While there is no cure for eczema, there are several strategies that can help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of flare-ups. Here are some key recommendations for managing eczema:

      1. Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears: Using emollients frequently can help reduce the frequency of flare-ups and the need for steroid treatment.

      2. Only mildly potent corticosteroids should be used: While both mildly and moderately potent topical steroids can be used in children if needed for short courses, very potent preparations should only be used under specialist guidance.

      3. Antihistamines should not be prescribed routinely: While antihistamines may provide some relief from itching, they are not recommended for routine use in the management of eczema.

      4. Oral antibiotics should only be used when necessary: Antibiotics are only indicated where there is clinical suspicion of superimposed bacterial infection.

      5. Topical tacrolimus should be used as a second-line treatment: Topical tacrolimus should only be used in cases that are not controlled with maximum corticosteroid therapy, or where there is high risk of side-effects from steroid use.

      By following these recommendations, patients with eczema can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on her shins. Upon examination, there are multiple tender nodules that appear purple in color. She has no significant medical history. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Erythema Nodosum, Insect Bites, Discoid Eczema, Erysipelas, and Post-Traumatic Ecchymoses

      Erythema nodosum is a painful skin condition characterized by tender, red nodules caused by inflammation of subcutaneous fat. It is more common in women aged 25-40 and can be associated with underlying conditions or occur in isolation.

      Insect bites from non-venomous insects like mosquitoes, fleas, lice, and bed bugs can result in itchy papules or blisters grouped in the exposed body site. Bites often appear in clusters.

      Discoid eczema is a type of eczema with unknown causes. It is characterized by round-to-oval, itchy, red, scaly plaques that may contain vesicles with serous exudate.

      Erysipelas is a tender, red, indurated plaque with a well-defined border caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.

      Post-traumatic ecchymosis or bruises are large blood extravasations under the skin that may be caused by coagulation or vascular disorders. However, there is no history of trauma to support this diagnosis.

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  • Question 20 - What is the recommendation for the use of tacrolimus and pimecrolimus in atopic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommendation for the use of tacrolimus and pimecrolimus in atopic eczema according to NICE guidance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First line treatment for moderate to severe eczema in the over twos, where there is a risk of serious corticosteroid side effects

      Explanation:

      Second-Line Treatment for Moderate to Severe Eczema in Children

      Eczema is a common skin condition that affects many children. Steroids are often used as a first-line treatment, but in cases where they are not effective, a second-line treatment may be necessary. One such treatment is recommended for children over 2-years-old with moderate to severe eczema. This treatment should not be used as a first-line option, but rather as a second-line option when steroids are not controlling the condition. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case of eczema. By following this recommendation, children with moderate to severe eczema can receive effective treatment and relief from their symptoms.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male is referred to dermatology for evaluation of a non-healing skin ulcer on his lower leg that has persisted for 8 weeks despite a course of oral flucloxacillin. What is the initial investigation that should be prioritized?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Explanation:

      To rule out arterial insufficiency as a potential cause, it would be beneficial to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index measurement. If the results are abnormal, it may be necessary to refer the patient to vascular surgeons.

      If the ulcer doesn’t respond to active management, such as compression bandaging, it may be necessary to consider a biopsy to rule out malignancy and a referral should be made.

      It is uncommon for non-healing leg ulcers to be caused by persistent infection.

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.

      The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - Sophie is a 26-year-old female who presents with a new rash that has...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 26-year-old female who presents with a new rash that has appeared over the past few weeks in both axillae. The rash is itchy but not painful, and Sophie is otherwise healthy.

      During the examination, you observe a lesion in both axillae that appears slightly red and glazed. Upon further examination, you discover another smaller lesion at the gluteal cleft. There are no joint abnormalities or nail changes.

      Based on your observations, you suspect that Sophie has flexural psoriasis. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence a moderately potent topical steroid for 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Flexural psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that causes itchy lesions in areas such as the groin, genital area, axillae, and other folds of the body. In this case, the erythema is mild and the lesions are not extensive, indicating a mild case of flexural psoriasis. According to NICE guidelines, a short-term application of a mild- or moderately-potent topical corticosteroid preparation (once or twice daily) for up to two weeks is recommended. Therefore, starting a potent topical steroid or using a mildly potent topical steroid for four weeks is not appropriate.

      To reduce scale and relieve itch, an emollient can be used. However, vitamin D analogues are not prescribed for flexural psoriasis in primary care. After four weeks, the patient should be reviewed. If there is a good initial response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids can be used to maintain disease control.

      If treatment fails or the psoriasis is at least moderately severe, referral to a dermatologist should be arranged.

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.

      For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.

      When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.

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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman has plaques of psoriasis on her face.
    Select the single most...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has plaques of psoriasis on her face.
      Select the single most suitable preparation for her to apply.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone cream 1%

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Facial Psoriasis: Precautions and Options

      When it comes to treating psoriasis on the face, it is important to keep in mind that the skin in this area is particularly sensitive. While various preparations can be used, some may cause irritation, staining, or other unwanted effects. For instance, calcipotriol can irritate the skin, betamethasone can lead to skin atrophy, and coal tar and dithranol can cause staining. Therefore, milder options are typically preferred, such as hydrocortisone or clobetasone butyrate. These may also be combined with an agent that is effective against Candida for flexural psoriasis.

      It is important to note that corticosteroids should only be used for a limited time (1-2 weeks per month) to treat facial psoriasis. If short-term moderate potency corticosteroids do not provide satisfactory results or if continuous treatment is needed, a calcineurin inhibitor such as pimecrolimus cream or tacrolimus ointment may be used for up to 4 weeks. However, it is worth noting that these options do not have a license for this particular indication. Overall, caution and careful consideration of the options are key when treating psoriasis on the face.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old female visits her general practitioner with concerns about hair loss on...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female visits her general practitioner with concerns about hair loss on her scalp. Which of the following conditions is the least probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Hypertrichosis can be caused by Porphyria cutanea tarda.

      Types of Alopecia and Their Causes

      Alopecia, or hair loss, can be categorized into two types: scarring and non-scarring. Scarring alopecia occurs when the hair follicle is destroyed, while non-scarring alopecia is characterized by the preservation of the hair follicle.

      Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. On the other hand, non-scarring alopecia can be attributed to male-pattern baldness, certain drugs like cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune disorders like alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period like surgery, and trichotillomania.

      It is important to identify the type of alopecia and its underlying cause in order to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, scarring may develop in untreated tinea capitis if a kerion develops. Understanding the different types and causes of alopecia can help individuals take necessary steps to prevent or manage hair loss.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of 'pale skin' on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine.

      What could be the probable reason behind her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitiligo

      Explanation:

      Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.

      Understanding Vitiligo

      Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.

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  • Question 26 - A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent comes in for a routine check-up. During a thorough skin examination, a darkly pigmented macule is observed on the palmar side of his left index finger. The lesion measures approximately 4 mm in size and displays poorly defined, irregular borders with an irregular pigment network on dermoscopy. No other pigmented lesions are detected on the patient. He has never noticed it before and is uncertain if it is evolving.

      What is the probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acral lentiginous melanoma

      Explanation:

      The patient’s atypical lesion, with three of the five following characteristics, suggests a diagnosis of melanoma. The most common subtype in this patient population is acral lentiginous melanoma, which can occur in areas not exposed to the sun, such as the soles of the feet and palms.

      It is unlikely that the lesion is an acquired or congenital naevus. New-onset pigmented lesions in patients over 50 should always be referred to a dermatologist for assessment. Congenital naevi are present at birth and the patient would have a long history with them.

      Nodular melanoma is less likely in this case, as it typically presents as dark papules on sun-exposed areas of skin in the Caucasian population.

      While superficial spreading melanoma is a possibility, a dark-skinned patient with a lesion on the palmar hand or soles of the feet is more likely to have acral lentiginous melanoma.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

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  • Question 27 - A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother,...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy with a history of atopic eczema presents with his mother, who has observed an atypical rash on her son's abdomen. On the upper abdomen, there is a group of approximately 12 pearly white papules with a central depression, with each lesion measuring around 3-5 mm in size. There is no discomfort or itching. What self-care recommendations should be provided, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected people

      Explanation:

      Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum

      Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly found in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, the lesions are commonly found on the trunk and flexures, while in adults, they can appear on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.

      While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be necessary to alleviate itching or if the lesions are considered unsightly. Treatment options include simple trauma or cryotherapy, depending on the age of the child and the parents’ wishes. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.

      Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent the spread of the infection and alleviate symptoms if necessary.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of mild persistent erythema on...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of mild persistent erythema on her cheeks and nose, which worsens with spicy foods and hot drinks. She has noticed a recent worsening of her symptoms and is now 12 weeks pregnant. On examination, you note a centrofacial erythematous rash with papules, pustules, and a bulbous nose. The patient has no known medication allergies. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Patients who have developed rhinophyma as a result of rosacea should be referred to a dermatologist for further evaluation and treatment. Rhinophyma is a severe form of rosacea that affects the nasal soft tissues, causing nasal obstruction, disfigurement, and significant psychological distress. Only specialized care in secondary settings can provide the necessary assessment and management, which may include laser therapy, scalpel excision, electrocautery, or surgery.

      Continuing with self-management measures is not recommended as the patient requires an escalation in treatment. However, lifestyle modifications remain an essential aspect of her management.

      Prescribing oral doxycycline is not appropriate in this case as the patient is pregnant, and the medication is contraindicated.

      Topical brimonidine is also not recommended as the manufacturer advises against its use during pregnancy due to limited information available. While it can provide temporary relief of flushing and erythema symptoms, it is not a suitable treatment option for rhinophyma.

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a skin condition that is chronic in nature and its cause is unknown. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Telangiectasia, which are small blood vessels that are visible on the skin, are common, and the condition can progress to persistent erythema with papules and pustules. Rhinophyma, a condition where the nose becomes enlarged and bulbous, can also occur. Ocular involvement, such as blepharitis, can also be present, and sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Management of rosacea depends on the severity of the symptoms. For mild symptoms, topical metronidazole may be used, while topical brimonidine gel may be considered for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics such as oxytetracycline. It is recommended that patients apply a high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for patients with prominent telangiectasia, and those with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist for further management.

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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with chronic plaque psoriasis has been referred to a dermatologist due to his resistant disease. Despite trying various topical and light therapies, his large plaques on his elbows and legs have not improved. What systemic therapy is he most likely to be prescribed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Severe psoriasis is typically treated with methotrexate and ciclosporin as the initial systemic agents.

      Systemic Therapy for Psoriasis

      Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can have a significant impact on physical, psychological, and social wellbeing. Topical therapy is often the first line of treatment, but in cases where it is not effective, systemic therapy may be necessary. However, systemic therapy should only be initiated in secondary care.

      Non-biological systemic therapy, such as methotrexate and ciclosporin, is used when psoriasis cannot be controlled with topical therapy and has a significant impact on wellbeing. NICE has set criteria for the use of non-biological systemic therapy, including extensive psoriasis, severe nail disease, or phototherapy ineffectiveness. Methotrexate is generally used first-line, but ciclosporin may be a better choice for those who need rapid or short-term disease control, have palmoplantar pustulosis, or are considering conception.

      Biological systemic therapy, including adalimumab, etanercept, infliximab, and ustekinumab, may also be used. However, a failed trial of methotrexate, ciclosporin, and PUVA is required before their use. These agents are administered through subcutaneous injection or intravenous infusion.

      In summary, systemic therapy for psoriasis should only be initiated in secondary care and is reserved for cases where topical therapy is ineffective. Non-biological and biological systemic therapy have specific criteria for their use and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.

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  • Question 30 - A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A healthy 26-year-old archaeologist has been experiencing an itchy, raised erythematous rash on his forearms for the past 2 weeks. Loratadine has provided some relief for the itch, and occasionally the rash disappears within a few hours. However, in the last day, the rash has spread to his back and loratadine is no longer effective. The patient has no known allergies or triggers and is feeling well otherwise. What should be the next course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trial of an oral corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      It is likely that the patient is experiencing a severe urticarial rash, which is a common condition that doesn’t require a dermatology appointment or further investigations at this stage. The patient is stable and not showing signs of anaphylaxis. To investigate further, a symptom diary would be sufficient, especially with exposure to different work environments as an archaeologist. The first-line treatment would be a non-sedating antihistamine such as loratadine or cetirizine. However, if the urticaria is severe, as in this case, a short course of oral corticosteroids may be necessary.

      Urticaria is a condition characterized by the swelling of the skin, either locally or generally. It is commonly caused by an allergic reaction, although non-allergic causes are also possible. The affected skin appears pale or pink and is raised, resembling hives, wheals, or nettle rash. It is also accompanied by itching or pruritus. The first-line treatment for urticaria is non-sedating antihistamines, while prednisolone is reserved for severe or resistant cases.

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      • Dermatology
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