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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old healthy man is being examined before starting a new job. During...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old healthy man is being examined before starting a new job. During the physical examination, both of his testes are found to be palpable in the scrotum and are normal in size without masses detected. However, the left spermatic cord feels like a ‘bag of worms’. Laboratory tests reveal oligospermia.
      What is the most probable condition that this man is suffering from?

      Your Answer: Varicocele

      Explanation:

      Common Testicular Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Varicocele, Hydrocele, Testicular Torsion, Spermatocele, and Seminoma are some of the common conditions that affect the testicles. Varicocele is the dilation of veins in the pampiniform venous plexus in the scrotum, which can cause infertility due to a rise in temperature in the testicle. Hydrocele is the accumulation of serous fluid around the testis, which does not affect the sperm count. Testicular torsion is an acute emergency that requires immediate scrotal surgery. Spermatocele is a retention cyst of a tubule in the head of the epididymis, which is harmless and does not affect the sperm count. Seminoma is a germ cell tumour of the testicle, which usually produces a firm mass lesion and has a good prognosis. Understanding the characteristics of these conditions can help in their early detection and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a testicular lump that has...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with a testicular lump that has been present for a few weeks and is gradually getting bigger. He has no history of trauma and is not experiencing any other symptoms. He has no significant medical history or regular medications. During the examination, a solid 3 cm mass is found in the left testicle, along with widespread lymphadenopathy. The following are his blood test results:
      Alpha-fetoprotein (αFP): 0.1 ng/ml (0-10 ng/ml)
      Beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (βHCG): 4,500 IU/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): 375 IU/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Testicular germ cell tumour: pure seminoma

      Explanation:

      Understanding Testicular Cancer and Tumours

      Testicular cancer is a common malignancy affecting men aged 20-39 years, with a high overall 5-year survival rate of 95%. Serum tumour markers such as βHCG and LDH are used to aid diagnosis and monitor response to treatment and detect recurrent disease. Leydig and Sertoli cell tumours are classified as sex cord/gonadal stromal tumours and may produce excess testosterone or oestrogen. Non-seminomatous germ cell tumours (NSGCTs) including yolk sac tumours, embryonal carcinomas, choriocarcinomas and teratomas may produce αFP, while seminomas do not. Teratomas of the testicle, a type of germ cell tumour, secrete αFP in approximately 70% of cases. Understanding the different types of testicular cancer and tumours is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old man presents with a left-sided, painless testicular lump. He has a...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man presents with a left-sided, painless testicular lump. He has a history of orchidopexy for an undescended testicle.
      On examination, there is a firm lump lying in the body of the left testicle. His body mass index is 27. There are a few left-sided inguinal lymph nodes palpable. You suspect testicular cancer.
      Which of the following findings on history and examination makes this provisional diagnosis more likely?

      Your Answer: History of orchidopexy for an undescended testicle

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Risk Factors and Symptoms of Testicular Cancer

      Testicular cancer is a serious condition that can have life-altering consequences if not detected and treated early. One of the main risk factors for this type of cancer is a history of undescended testes, which increases the risk significantly. Additionally, men with a high body mass index may have a lower risk of developing testicular cancer.

      It’s important to note that the presence or absence of tenderness in the testicles does not necessarily indicate the presence of cancer. However, any man who notices a lump or mass in the body of the testicle should seek urgent medical attention to rule out the possibility of cancer.

      In terms of metastasis, testicular cancer commonly spreads to the para-aortic lymph nodes rather than the inguinal nodes. By understanding these risk factors and symptoms, men can take proactive steps to protect their health and detect any potential issues early on.

      Understanding the Risk Factors and Symptoms of Testicular Cancer

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 4 - A 22-year-old man discovered a painless enlargement of his left testicle during his...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old man discovered a painless enlargement of his left testicle during his shower. He is sexually active, but he reports no recent sexual encounters. What would be the most suitable serological test to assist in diagnosing his condition?

      Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein (aFP)

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers: Common Biomarkers for Cancer Diagnosis

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. These biomarkers can be used to aid in the diagnosis and management of cancer. Here are some common tumor markers and their associated cancers:

      – Alpha-fetoprotein (aFP): Elevated levels of aFP may indicate non-seminomatous germ cell tumors of the testis, but biopsy is necessary for definitive diagnosis.
      – Calcitonin: Produced by medullary carcinomas of the thyroid, calcitonin opposes the action of parathyroid hormone.
      – Parathyroid-related peptide (PTHrP): Produced in squamous cell carcinoma of the lung, PTHrP can cause a paraneoplastic syndrome.
      – Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): Elevated in cancers of the stomach, lung, pancreas, and colon, and sometimes in yolk sac tumors.
      – CA-125: Elevated in ovarian cancer, but can also be elevated in benign conditions such as endometriosis, uterine fibroids, and ovarian cysts.

      While tumor markers can provide clues to the diagnosis of cancer, biopsy is necessary for definitive diagnosis. It is important to note that elevated levels of these biomarkers do not always indicate cancer and can be caused by other conditions. Consultation with a healthcare provider is necessary for proper interpretation of tumor marker results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old man presents to the clinic for the second time this year...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the clinic for the second time this year with fever, dysuria, dribbling of urine. Previous admissions were for urinary tract infections. He has a history of hypertension and previous myocardial infarction for which he takes ramipril and rosuvastatin. On examination, he is pyrexial (38.5 °C) and has a pulse of 105/min and his blood pressure (BP) is 142/84 mm Hg. His cardiovascular and respiratory examination is normal. There is suprapubic tenderness with dullness, on percussion, indicating a distended bladder. Per rectal examination reveals a smoothly enlarged prostate.
      What is the best next investigation to determine the cause of this patient’s urinary retention?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests can be used. One of the most common tests is an ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume, which can estimate the degree of bladder obstruction.

      However, other tests such as CT abdomen and MRI abdomen are not useful for diagnosing benign prostatic hyperplasia. CT abdomen is more useful for diagnosing malignancies of the pelvic-ureteric system, while MRI abdomen is more sensitive for diagnosing lymph-node metastasis in prostate cancer.

      Micturating cystourethrogram is also not useful for diagnosing prostatic hypertrophy, as it is used to diagnose fistula, vesicoureteric reflux, and urethral stricture. Similarly, serum alpha-fetoprotein has no role in cancer of the prostate, as it is a tumour marker in hepatocellular carcinoma, non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours, and yolk-sac tumours.

      In conclusion, an ultrasound pelvis with post-void bladder volume is the most useful diagnostic test for benign prostatic hyperplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) in extreme pain. He reports one day of pain in his right loin spreading round into the groin. The pain comes in waves and he says it is the worst pain he has ever experienced. The ED doctor suspects a diagnosis of renal colic.
      What investigation finding would be the most consistent with this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Microscopic haematuria

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Urine and Blood Tests for Renal Colic

      Renal colic is a common condition that can cause severe pain in the back and abdomen. When evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, several tests may be ordered to help diagnose the condition and determine the appropriate treatment. Here are some key points to keep in mind when interpreting urine and blood tests for renal colic:

      – Microscopic haematuria with normal nitrites and leukocytes is a common finding in patients with renal colic and/or stones. This suggests that there is blood in the urine, but no signs of infection.
      – Positive leukocytes or nitrites on a urine dipstick would be suggestive of a urinary tract infection and would not be consistent with a diagnosis of renal stones.
      – A raised serum creatinine can occur with severe renal stones where there is urethral obstruction and subsequent hydronephrosis. This would be a urological emergency and the patient would likely require urgent stenting to allow passage of urine.
      – A raised serum white cell count would be more consistent with an infection as the cause of the patient’s pain, making this a less appropriate answer.

      In summary, when evaluating a patient with suspected renal colic, it is important to consider the results of urine and blood tests in conjunction with other clinical findings to make an accurate diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 7 - A 55-year-old man has been experiencing pain with urination for the past week....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man has been experiencing pain with urination for the past week. His temperature is 37.5 °C. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is slightly enlarged and mildly tender to palpation. Laboratory studies show his white blood cell count to be 13 000 mL. Urine culture grows > 100 000 Escherichia coli organisms. His serum prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is 6 ng/ml (normal < 5ng/ml). He receives antibiotic therapy and his clinical condition initially improves. However, his symptoms recur six times over the next 12 months.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chronic bacterial prostatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prostate Conditions: Differentiating Chronic Bacterial Prostatitis, Nodular Prostatic Hyperplasia, Prostatic Adenocarcinoma, Prostatodynia, and Urothelial Carcinoma of the Urethra

      Prostate conditions can cause various symptoms and complications, making it crucial to differentiate between them for proper diagnosis and treatment. Chronic bacterial prostatitis, for instance, is characterized by recurrent bacteriuria and UTIs, often caused by E. coli. Nodular prostatic hyperplasia, on the other hand, can lead to an enlarged prostate and recurrent UTIs due to obstruction. Prostatic adenocarcinoma, which is usually non-tender, can cause a palpable nodule and significantly elevated PSA levels. Prostatodynia, meanwhile, presents with prostatitis-like symptoms but without inflammation or positive urine cultures. Lastly, urothelial carcinoma of the urethra is rare but may cause haematuria and UTI predisposition. Understanding these conditions and their distinguishing features can aid in prompt and accurate diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      841.5
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old obese man presents to Accident and Emergency with a 2-day history of nausea, frank haematuria and sharp, persistent left-sided flank pain, radiating from the loin to the groin. On examination, he has left renal angle tenderness.
      Urine dip shows:
      frank haematuria
      blood 2+
      protein 2+.
      He has a history of hypertension, appendicitis 10 years ago and gout. You order a non-contrast computerised tomography (CT) for the kidney–ureter–bladder (KUB), which shows a 2.2 cm calculus in the proximal left (LT) ureter.
      Which of the following is the definitive treatment for this patient’s stone?

      Your Answer: Send home with paracetamol, advise to drink at least 3 litres of water per day and reassurance that the stone will likely pass spontaneously within 1–3 weeks

      Correct Answer: Percutaneous ureterolithotomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Large Kidney Stones

      Large kidney stones, typically those over 2 cm in diameter, require surgical intervention as they are unlikely to pass spontaneously. Here are some treatment options for such stones:

      1. Percutaneous Ureterolithotomy/Nephrolithotomy: This procedure involves using a nephroscope to remove or break down the stone into smaller pieces before removal. It is highly effective for stones between 21 and 30 mm in diameter and is indicated for staghorn calculi, cystine stones, or when ESWL is not suitable.

      2. Extracorporeal Shock Wave Lithotripsy (ESWL): This option uses ultrasound shock waves to break up stones into smaller fragments, which can be passed spontaneously in the urine. It is appropriate for stones up to 2 cm in diameter that fail to pass spontaneously.

      3. Medical Expulsive Therapy: In some cases, calcium channel blockers or a blockers may be used to help pass the stone. A corticosteroid may also be added. However, this option is not suitable for stones causing severe symptoms.

      It is important to note that admission and treatment with diclofenac, antiemetic, and rehydration therapy is only the initial management for an acute presentation and that sending the patient home with paracetamol and advice to drink water is only appropriate for small stones. Open surgery is rarely used and is reserved for complicated cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      709.6
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  • Question 9 - A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction that...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of erectile dysfunction that has been going on for 6 months. He has a BMI of 30 kg/m², a history of hypertension, and has been smoking for 35 years. He reports no other symptoms and feels generally healthy.
      What is the primary initial test that should be done for this patient's erectile dysfunction?

      Your Answer: Urine dip

      Correct Answer: Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c)

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: What to Test For

      When a man presents with erectile dysfunction, it is important to test for reversible or modifiable risk factors. One common risk factor is diabetes, so all men should have a HbA1c or fasting blood glucose test. A lipid profile should also be done to calculate cardiovascular risk. Erectile dysfunction can be an early sign of cardiovascular disease, especially in patients with pre-existing risk factors such as hypertension, increased BMI, and smoking history. Additionally, a blood test for morning testosterone should be done.

      However, a C-reactive protein test is not useful as a first-line test for erectile dysfunction. An ultrasound abdomen and urea and electrolyte tests are also not helpful in establishing an underlying cause. While an enlarged prostate may be associated with erectile dysfunction, a urine dip is not necessary if the patient has no symptoms of a urinary-tract infection. Overall, testing for diabetes and cardiovascular risk factors is crucial in the initial investigation of erectile dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      43
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  • Question 10 - A 15-year-old presents with a tender, pea-sized lump in the upper pole of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old presents with a tender, pea-sized lump in the upper pole of his left testis. He says it has developed gradually over the last 24 hours. His mum states that his grandfather died of testicular cancer at just 45 years of age. Other than pain from the lump, he says he feels generally well in himself. On examination, the lump does not transilluminate and feels regular. There is no associated oedema or erythema.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Torsion of the testicular appendage

      Explanation:

      Common Testicular Conditions and Their Characteristics

      Testicular conditions can cause discomfort and pain in men. Here are some common conditions and their characteristics:

      1. Torsion of the Testicular Appendage: This condition develops over 24 hours and results in a tender, pea-sized nodule in the upper pole of the testis. Oedema and associated symptoms, such as nausea and vomiting, are rare. An ultrasound scan (USS) is done to ensure that the man is not suffering from torsion. Surgical intervention is only necessary if there is a lot of pain.

      2. Testicular Torsion: This condition is characterised by sudden-onset, severe pain. On examination, the cremasteric reflex will be absent, and there may be associated scrotal oedema. Patients often suffer from nausea and vomiting. It requires surgical exploration within 6 hours.

      3. Varicocele: Although a varicocele is most common in teenagers and young men, it rarely causes pain. Characteristically, it feels like a ‘bag of worms’ and may cause mild discomfort.

      4. Testicular Teratoma: This condition typically presents as a firm, tethered irregular mass, which increases in size gradually, rather than appearing over 24 hours. It is the more common testicular malignancy in the 20- to 30-year-old age group.

      5. Epididymal Cyst: An epididymal cyst is more common in older men, typically in the 40- to 50-year old age group. The cyst transilluminates and is palpable separately from the testis.

      Knowing the characteristics of these common testicular conditions can help men identify and seek treatment for any discomfort or pain they may experience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 11 - You are reviewing a physically fit 78 year old gentleman in the urology...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a physically fit 78 year old gentleman in the urology outpatient clinic. He initially presented to his GP with an episode of frank haematuria. Urinalysis revealed ongoing microscopic haematuria. Following referral to the urologist, a contrast MRI scan reveals a solitary low risk non-muscle invasive bladder cancer.
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transurethral resection of bladder tumour (TURBT)

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Low Risk Non-Muscle Invasive Bladder Tumours

      When a patient is diagnosed with a low risk non-muscle invasive bladder tumour, the primary treatment option is surgical resection using the transurethral method. This procedure is likely to be curative, but a single dose of intravesical mitomycin C may be offered as adjunctive therapy. Routine follow-up and surveillance cystoscopies are necessary to monitor for recurrence.

      A radical cystectomy and urostomy formation are reserved for patients with confirmed muscle invasive bladder tumours. Radiotherapy alone is only considered for those who are unfit for a radical cystectomy and have high risk or muscle invasive tumours. Palliative management is not appropriate for patients with curable tumours.

      Intravesical bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) is the treatment of choice for high-risk lesions, but it is not appropriate for low risk tumours. Therefore, surgical resection remains the primary management option for low risk non-muscle invasive bladder tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence. She experiences this...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence. She experiences this symptom throughout the day and has noticed that her urine flow is weak when she does manage to go voluntarily. During the examination, the GP detects a distended bladder despite the patient having just urinated before the appointment. What is the probable diagnosis for this woman's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary overflow incontinence

      Explanation:

      The patient, an elderly woman, is experiencing urinary incontinence as evidenced by the palpable bladder even after urination. While prostate problems are a common cause of urinary overflow incontinence, this is not applicable in this case as the patient is a woman. Other possible causes include nerve damage resulting in a neurogenic bladder, which can be a complication of diabetes, chronic alcoholism, or pelvic surgery. The absence of a sudden urge to urinate rules out urge incontinence, while overactive bladder syndrome, a type of urge incontinence, is characterized by incontinence, frequent urination, and nocturia, which are not present in this case. Stress incontinence, which is associated with increased intraabdominal pressure, is also not observed. Therefore, a diagnosis of mixed incontinence is not warranted.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 13 - A 53-year-old woman presents with left loin pain and haematuria. Upon examination, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman presents with left loin pain and haematuria. Upon examination, she displays tenderness in her left loin. A CT-KUB is conducted, revealing the presence of a renal tract calculus in her left kidney. Where is the most frequent location for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vesicoureteric junction (VUJ)

      Explanation:

      The Most Common Sites for Urinary Calculi: Understanding the Locations and Symptoms

      Urinary calculi, commonly known as kidney stones, can occur in various locations within the renal tract. The three most common sites are the pelvi-ureteric junction (PUJ), within the ureter at the pelvic brim, and the vesicoureteric junction (VUJ), with the latter being the most frequent location. Stones obstructing the PUJ present with mild to severe deep flank pain without radiation to the groin, irritative voiding symptoms, suprapubic pain, urinary frequency/urgency, dysuria, and stranguria. On the other hand, stones within the ureter cause abrupt, severe colicky pain in the flank and ipsilateral lower abdomen, radiation to the testicles or vulvar area, and intense nausea with or without vomiting. While the renal pelvis and mid-ureter are also possible sites for urinary calculi, they are less common. Stones passed into the bladder are mostly asymptomatic but can rarely cause positional urinary retention. Understanding the locations and symptoms of urinary calculi can aid in prompt diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old man visits the GP clinic with concerns about his inability to...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits the GP clinic with concerns about his inability to sustain an erection during sexual activity. He has no known medical conditions and reports no stress or relationship issues. Upon examination, he exhibits bilateral toe proprioception loss. Cardiovascular and respiratory evaluations are normal. There are no notable findings on physical examination, including genital examination. What is the initial investigation that should be conducted for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fasting blood sugar

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Erectile Dysfunction: Understanding the Role of Different Tests

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a common condition that can have a significant impact on a man’s quality of life. It is also considered an independent risk factor for cardiovascular disease and can be a presenting symptom of diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is important to conduct appropriate investigations to identify any underlying causes of ED. Here, we will discuss the role of different tests in the evaluation of ED.

      Fasting Blood Sugar Test

      As mentioned earlier, diabetes mellitus is a common cause of ED. Therefore, it is recommended that all patients with ED undergo a fasting blood sugar test to rule out diabetes.

      Ultrasound of Testes

      Testicular pathology does not lead to ED. Therefore, an ultrasound of the testes is not indicated unless there are specific indications for it.

      Prostate-Specific Antigen (PSA) Test

      ED is not a presentation of prostate cancer. However, treatment of prostate cancer, such as radical prostatectomy, can lead to ED. Therefore, a PSA test is not indicated for the evaluation of ED.

      Semen Analysis

      Semen analysis is performed when couples present with infertility. It does not have a role in the evaluation of ED unless there are specific indications for it.

      Serum Hormone Levels

      Serum oestrogen and progesterone levels are hormones that are found abundantly in women. They are assayed, along with LH and FSH levels, to pursue the cause of hypogonadism when it is suspected. However, in the case of ED, hypogonadism must be ruled out with serum testosterone level.

      In conclusion, appropriate investigations are necessary to identify any underlying causes of ED. A fasting blood sugar test and serum testosterone level are the most important tests to perform in the evaluation of ED.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old patient is referred to the Outpatient Clinic with raised prostate-specific antigen...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is referred to the Outpatient Clinic with raised prostate-specific antigen (PSA), but a normal prostate on physical examination. He is later diagnosed with prostate cancer on biopsy.
      What is the most common area of the prostate where this disease develops?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The peripheral zone

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Prostate Gland and its Relation to Prostate Cancer

      The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located in the male reproductive system. It is divided into several zones, each with its own unique characteristics and potential for developing prostate cancer.

      The peripheral zone is the most common site for developing prostate carcinomas. It extends around the gland from the apex to the base and is located posterolaterally.

      The central zone surrounds the ejaculatory duct apparatus and makes up the majority of the prostatic base.

      The transition zone constitutes two small lobules that abut the prostatic urethra and is where benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) tends to originate. Carcinomas that originate in the transition zone have been suggested to be of lower malignant potential compared to those in the peripheral zone.

      The anterior fibromuscular stroma is the most anterior portion of the gland and is formed by muscle cells intermingled with dense connective tissue. The chance of malignancy occurring in this area is low, but asymmetrical hypertrophy of the anterior fibromuscular stroma can mimic the presence of prostate cancer.

      The posterior capsule is made of connective tissue and is usually not the primary origin of prostate cancer. The cancer usually arises in the peripheral zone and may then extend through the capsule as it progresses.

      Understanding the anatomy of the prostate gland and its relation to prostate cancer can aid in early detection and treatment. Regular prostate exams and screenings are important for maintaining prostate health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old man presents with a gradual reduction in urine flow. His prostate-specific...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a gradual reduction in urine flow. His prostate-specific antigen (PSA) is found to be 14.3 ng/ml (normal PSA level: 2.5-4.0 ng/mL).
      What is the most important investigation required?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Multi-parametic MRI

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate cancer is a common cancer in men, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that are commonly used to detect prostate cancer:

      1. Multi-parametric MRI: This scan is recommended for individuals with a risk of prostate cancer. It can help to locate the site of biopsy and avoid unnecessary procedures.

      2. Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen: This scan can give an indication of the size of the prostate gland, but it cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.

      3. Radioisotope bone scan: This scan can reveal the presence of bony metastases that are common in prostate cancer, but it cannot give a definite diagnosis.

      4. Flexible cystoscopy: This examination can detect any abnormalities of the prostate or bladder and urethra, but a biopsy is still required for a definite diagnosis.

      5. Ultrasound scan of the renal tract: This scan can also give an indication of the size of the prostate gland, but it cannot provide a definitive diagnosis.

      In conclusion, a combination of these tests may be used to diagnose prostate cancer, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old man undergoes an orchidectomy for a testicular lump. Post-surgery, the histology...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man undergoes an orchidectomy for a testicular lump. Post-surgery, the histology report reveals the presence of cartilage and columnar epithelial cells. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Teratoma

      Explanation:

      Types of Testicular Tumours: Teratoma, Seminoma, Hamartoma, Epididymal Cyst, and Choriocarcinoma

      Testicular tumours can be classified into different types based on their histological features and clinical presentation. Here are five types of testicular tumours:

      Teratoma: This type of germ cell tumour can be pure or part of a mixed germ cell tumour. It is commonly seen in very young patients and presents with a painless testicular mass. Teratomas are composed of tissues arising from all three germ cell layers and can contain any type of tissue. Radical orchidectomy is the mode of treatment.

      Seminoma: Seminoma is a type of germ cell tumour that presents with a painless testicular lump. It is treated with orchidectomy and has a uniform yellow cut surface. Histologically, it is composed of a uniform population of large cells arranged in nests.

      Hamartoma: A hamartoma is a benign tumour-like proliferation composed of a mixture of cells normal for the tissue from which it arises. Within the normal testicular tissue, there is no cartilage.

      Epididymal Cyst: An epididymal cyst is a fluid-filled sac arising usually superoposterior to the testis. It transilluminates on examination and is lined by a single layer of cuboidal to columnar epithelium, with or without Ciliary.

      Choriocarcinoma: Choriocarcinomas are malignant germ cell tumours composed of syncytiotrophoblast, cytotrophoblast, and intermediate trophoblast cells. They are rare and associated with raised serum beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin levels. These tumours are usually haemorrhagic masses and often have metastasis at presentation.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of testicular tumours and their clinical presentation is crucial for their early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 18 - You have organized a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been...

    Incorrect

    • You have organized a semen analysis for a 37-year-old man who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving with his partner for the past year. The results are as follows:

      - Semen volume 1.8 ml (1.5ml or more)
      - pH 7.4 (7.2 or more)
      - Sperm concentration 12 million per ml (15 million per ml or more)
      - Total sperm number 21 million (39 million or more)
      - Total motility 40% progressively motile (32% or more)
      - Vitality 68% live spermatozoa (58% or more)
      - Normal forms 5% (4% or more)

      His partner is also undergoing investigations, and you plan on referring him to fertility services. What steps should be taken based on these semen analysis results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat test in 3 months

      Explanation:

      If a semen sample shows abnormal results, it is recommended to schedule a repeat test after 3 months to allow for the completion of the spermatozoa formation cycle. Immediate retesting should only be considered if there is a severe deficiency in spermatozoa, such as azoospermia or a sperm concentration of less than 5 million per ml. In this case, the man has mild oligozoospermia/oligospermia and a confirmatory test should be arranged after 3 months.

      Understanding Semen Analysis

      Semen analysis is a test that measures the quality and quantity of semen in a man’s ejaculate. To ensure accurate results, it is recommended that the sample be collected after a minimum of 3 days and a maximum of 5 days of abstinence. It is also important to deliver the sample to the lab within 1 hour of collection.

      The normal semen results include a volume of more than 1.5 ml, a pH level of more than 7.2, a sperm concentration of more than 15 million per ml, morphology of more than 4% normal forms, motility of more than 32% progressive motility, and vitality of more than 58% live spermatozoa. However, it is important to note that different reference ranges may exist, and these values are based on the NICE 2013 guidelines.

      Overall, semen analysis is an important tool in assessing male fertility and can provide valuable information for couples trying to conceive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 19 - A 54-year-old man visits his GP clinic, reporting discomfort in his scrotum. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man visits his GP clinic, reporting discomfort in his scrotum. During the examination, the doctor notices an abnormality on the right side of the scrotum that feels like a bag of worms. The patient mentions that this has only been present for the past two months and there is no change in the examination when he lies down. What is the recommended next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound of the kidneys, ureters and bladder

      Explanation:

      Medical Imaging Recommendations for Suspected Left Renal Malignancy

      Introduction:
      When a patient presents with a left-sided varicocele, it is important to consider the possibility of an underlying left renal malignancy. In this scenario, we will discuss the appropriate medical imaging recommendations for this suspected condition.

      Ultrasound of the Kidneys, Ureters, and Bladder:
      A varicocele is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus of the spermatic cord, which is dependent on the spermatic vein. In some cases, a left-sided varicocele can be associated with a left renal malignancy. This occurs when a large left renal tumor compresses or invades the left renal vein, causing an obstruction to venous return and resulting in a varicocele. Therefore, an ultrasound of the kidneys is recommended to assess for any potential malignancy.

      Ultrasound of the Liver:
      In this scenario, an ultrasound of the kidneys would be more useful than an ultrasound of the liver, as renal malignancy is suspected.

      Ultrasound of the Left Groin:
      Signs and symptoms of an inguinal hernia include a bulge in the area on either side of the pubic bone, which becomes more obvious when the patient is upright, especially when coughing or straining. However, there are no signs of hernias on clinical examination in this case.

      Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) of the Whole Spine:
      MRI of the whole spine is recommended in cases of potential cord compression. However, this is not clinically suspected in this scenario.

      Reassure:
      If a left-sided varicocele does not drain when lying supine, it should be referred for ultrasound to rule out underlying malignancy. The new onset of the varicocele makes this more likely and therefore should be further investigated.

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      • Urology
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old healthy man presents because he and his wife have been repeatedly unsuccessful in achieving pregnancy, even after three years of actively attempting to conceive. They are not using any method of contraception. The wife has been tested and determined to be fertile. The husband’s past medical history is significant for being treated for repeated upper respiratory tract infections and ear infections, as well as him stating ‘they told me my organs are all reversed’. He also complains of a decreased sense of smell. His prostate is not enlarged on examination. His blood test results are within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of the patient’s infertility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lack of dynein arms in microtubules of Ciliary

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Infertility in a Young Man

      Infertility in a young man can have various causes. One possible cause is Kartagener’s syndrome, a rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder that affects the action of Ciliary lining the respiratory tract and flagella of sperm cells. This syndrome can lead to recurrent respiratory infections and poor sperm motility. Another possible cause is cryptorchidism, the absence of one or both testes from the scrotum, which can reduce fertility even after surgery. Age-related hormonal changes or atherosclerosis can also affect fertility, but these are less likely in a young, healthy man with normal blood tests. Cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system, can also cause infertility, but it is usually detected early in life and has additional symptoms such as poor weight gain and diarrhea.

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      • Urology
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  • Question 21 - A 72-year-old man is recovering from hip surgery on the ward. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is recovering from hip surgery on the ward. He has had an indwelling catheter for several days. In the last 24 hours, he has been noted to have some ‘dizzy spells’ by nurses where he becomes confused and agitated. He has been seen talking to himself, mumbling incoherent ideas, and at other times he seems distracted and disorientated, forgetting where he is. He has a new fever and is tachycardic. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. You suspect he is suffering from delirium.
      Which one of the following is most likely to be found in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukocytes and nitrites on mid-stream urine sample dipstick

      Explanation:

      Understanding Delirium: Causes and Symptoms

      Delirium is a state of confusion that can be caused by various factors, including acute illnesses, infections, drug adverse reactions, and toxicity. In this scenario, the patient’s symptoms of fever and an indwelling catheter increase the likelihood of a urinary tract infection (UTI) as the cause of delirium. Other causes of delirium include drug-related issues, alcohol withdrawal, metabolic imbalances, and head injury or trauma.

      Symptoms of delirium include leukocytes and nitrites on a mid-stream urine sample dipstick, which suggest a UTI. However, a frozen or ‘mask-like’ face is commonly associated with Parkinson’s disease, not delirium. Structural changes in the brain are usually associated with dementia, while a progressive decline in cognitive function may indicate a space-occupying lesion or bleed (extradural haematoma).

      It is important to note that cognitive changes caused by delirium are often reversible by finding and treating the underlying cause. In contrast, irreversible cognitive changes are commonly seen in dementia. Understanding the causes and symptoms of delirium can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care and treatment for patients experiencing this condition.

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      • Urology
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  • Question 22 - A 63-year-old man reported experiencing trouble initiating and ending urination. He had no...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man reported experiencing trouble initiating and ending urination. He had no prior history of urinary issues. The physician used a gloved index finger to examine the patient's prostate gland, most likely by palpating it through the wall of which of the following structures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rectum

      Explanation:

      Anatomy and Digital Rectal Examination of the Prostate Gland

      The prostate gland is commonly examined through a digital rectal examination, where a gloved index finger is inserted through the anus until it reaches the rectum. The anterior wall of the rectum is then palpated to examine the size and shape of the prostate gland, which lies deep to it. The sigmoid colon, which is proximal to the recto-sigmoid junction, cannot be palpated through this method and requires a sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy. The urinary bladder sits superior to the prostate and is surrounded by a prostatic capsule. The anus, which is the most distal part of the gastrointestinal tract, does not allow palpation of the prostate gland. The caecum, which is an outpouching of the ascending colon, is anatomically distant from the prostate gland.

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      • Urology
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  • Question 23 - A 25-year-old man who has received a transplant of the left kidney is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man who has received a transplant of the left kidney is exhibiting symptoms that suggest hyperacute rejection of the transplant. What is the probable time frame for this type of rejection to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Within minutes of transplantation

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Types and Timing of Transplant Rejection

      Transplant rejection can occur in different types and at different times after transplantation. Hyperacute rejection is the earliest and occurs within minutes of transplantation due to pre-existing donor-specific antibodies. This reaction is complement-mediated and irreversible, requiring prompt removal of the transplanted tissue. Acute rejection can occur up to 3 months after transplantation and is cell-mediated, involving the activation of phagocytes and cytotoxic T lymphocytes. Rejection that occurs in the first few days after transplantation is known as accelerated acute rejection. Chronic rejection, which is controversial, involves antibody-mediated vascular damage and can occur months to years after transplantation. Blood group matching can minimize hyperacute rejection, while monitoring and immunosuppressive therapy can help prevent and treat other types of rejection.

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      • Urology
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old man and his 26-year-old wife visit their GP for a follow-up...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man and his 26-year-old wife visit their GP for a follow-up appointment regarding their difficulty in conceiving. The couple has been trying to conceive for the past year without success. The wife has a regular menstrual cycle and no previous gynaecological issues. An ovulation test measuring her progesterone level showed normal ovulation. The GP advises the couple that the husband needs to undergo tests to determine if there is any cause on his side contributing to the infertility. Both the man and the woman have no history of sexually transmitted infections. The man has been smoking one to two cigarettes a day since he was 16 years old. What is the best next investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Semen analysis

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Male Infertility: Semen Analysis, Testicular Biopsy, Hormone and Genetic Testing

      When a couple experiences fertility problems, a semen analysis is typically the first investigation for the man. This test measures semen volume, pH, sperm concentration, total sperm number, total motility, vitality, and sperm morphology, using World Health Organization reference values for interpretation. If the semen analysis reveals azoospermia (no sperm present), a testicular biopsy may be performed to collect spermatozoa for in-vitro fertilization treatment.

      If the semen analysis does not explain the infertility, follicle-stimulating hormone and testosterone levels may be measured, but these are not first-line investigations. Genetic testing may also be considered to identify genetic abnormalities, such as Klinefelter syndrome, which can cause male infertility. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and treat male infertility.

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      • Urology
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  • Question 25 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to his general practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension presents to his general practitioner after discovering a mass in his scrotum. He reported feeling a heavy, dragging sensation in his scrotum for approximately 2 weeks before noticing the mass during self-examination. Upon examination, the patient had a palpable, non-tender mass on the right side of the scrotum, seemingly associated with the right testicle. Ultrasound of the scrotum revealed dilation of the right pampiniform plexus.
      What is the most probable cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dilation of the superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The dilation of the superior mesenteric artery is unlikely to be related to the patient’s symptoms. A more likely cause is a varicocele, which is a dilation of the pampiniform plexus. This condition often occurs on the left side due to increased pressure in the left testicular vein caused by a 90-degree angle where it drains into the left renal vein. The left renal vein can also be compressed by the superior mesenteric artery, further increasing pressure and leading to a varicocele. Symptoms of a varicocele include a non-tender heaviness or dragging sensation in the scrotum. Other conditions, such as venous insufficiency of the inferior vena cava, increased right renal vein pressure, increased left renal artery pressure, or benign prostatic hyperplasia, are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

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      • Urology
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  • Question 26 - You are asked to review a middle-aged man, following an admission for lower...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to review a middle-aged man, following an admission for lower abdominal pain. The patient has a distended abdomen and has not passed urine for eight hours. He is very uncomfortable and has a large palpable bladder extending above the pubic symphysis. A digital rectal examination is performed, which reveals an enlarged, smooth prostate. Urinalysis is unremarkable, and he remains systemically well. He describes increasing difficulty with voiding and poor stream over the past six months, but no other symptoms.
      What is the most likely underlying cause for his urinary retention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)

      Explanation:

      Causes of Urinary Retention in Men

      Urinary retention, the inability to empty the bladder completely, can have various underlying causes. In men, some common conditions that can lead to urinary retention are benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH), renal calculi, prostate carcinoma, urinary tract infection, and bladder cancer.

      BPH is a non-cancerous enlargement of the prostate gland that often occurs with aging. It can compress the urethra and obstruct the flow of urine, causing symptoms such as difficulty starting urination, weak stream, dribbling, and frequent urination. Immediate treatment for acute urinary retention due to BPH may involve inserting a urinary catheter to relieve the pressure and drain the bladder.

      Renal calculi, or kidney stones, can cause urinary retention if they get stuck in the ureter or bladder neck. The pain from passing a stone can be severe and radiate from the back to the groin. Blood in the urine may also be present.

      Prostate carcinoma, or prostate cancer, can also cause urinary retention if the tumour grows large enough to block the urethra. However, this is not a common presentation of prostate cancer, which usually manifests with other symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, pain, or blood in the semen.

      Urinary tract infection (UTI) can result from incomplete voiding due to BPH or other causes. UTI can cause symptoms such as burning, urgency, frequency, cloudy or foul-smelling urine, and fever. However, not all cases of urinary retention are associated with UTI.

      Bladder cancer is a rare cause of urinary retention, but it can occur if the tumour obstructs the bladder outlet. Bladder cancer may also cause painless hematuria, urinary urgency, or pelvic discomfort.

      In summary, urinary retention in men can have multiple etiologies, and the diagnosis depends on the patient’s history, physical examination, and additional tests such as imaging, urinalysis, or prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing. Prompt evaluation and management of urinary retention are essential to prevent complications such as urinary tract infection, bladder damage, or renal impairment.

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      • Urology
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 6-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 6-month history of erectile dysfunction. He also reports that he has noticed galactorrhoea and is experiencing headaches, usually upon waking in the morning. He has no significant past medical history. His blood test results are as follows:
      Investigation(s) Result Normal range
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 142 g/l 130–180 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.0 × 109/l 3.5–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.3 mmol/l
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 3.8 mU/l 0.27-4.2 mU/l
      Prolactin 5234 mU/l 86-324 mU/l
      Which of the following further investigations should be requested?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) pituitary

      Explanation:

      For a patient with symptoms and blood tests indicating prolactinaemia, further tests are needed to measure other pituitary hormones. An MRI scan of the pituitary gland is necessary to diagnose a macroprolactinoma, which is likely due to significantly elevated prolactin levels and early-morning headaches. A CT of the adrenal glands is useful in diagnosing phaeochromocytoma, which presents with symptoms such as headaches, sweating, tachycardia, hypertension, nausea and vomiting, anxiety, and tremors. A 24-hour urinary 5HIAA test is used to diagnose a serotonin-secreting carcinoid tumor, which presents with symptoms such as flushing, diarrhea, and tachycardia. A chest X-ray is not useful in diagnosing a prolactinoma, which is an adenoma of the pituitary gland. For imaging of prolactinomas, MRI is the preferred method as it is more sensitive in detecting small tumors (microprolactinomas).

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      • Urology
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  • Question 28 - A 40-year-old man presents with blood in his ejaculate. He reports no lower...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents with blood in his ejaculate. He reports no lower urinary tract symptoms and no abdominal pain and is generally healthy. He has been in a long-term monogamous relationship and denies any history of trauma. Examination of his scrotum and penis is unremarkable, and his prostate is normal and non-tender upon digital rectal examination. Urinalysis results are within normal limits, and there is no family history of cancer.
      What is the most appropriate next step, in addition to obtaining a urine sample for microscopy, culture, and sensitivities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure him that this symptom is not a sign of anything serious but ask him to return if he has >3 episodes or the problem persists for over a month

      Explanation:

      Haematospermia, or blood in semen, is usually not a cause for concern in men under 40 years old. The most common causes are trauma, urinary tract infection (especially prostatitis), and sexually transmitted infection. However, it is important to rule out cancer through appropriate physical examination. If the symptom persists for over a month or there are more than three episodes, referral is recommended, especially for men over 40 years old. While reassurance is appropriate, patients should be encouraged to seek medical attention if the problem persists. Antibiotics may be prescribed if a urinary tract infection is suspected, but this is unlikely in cases with normal urinalysis. Urgent referral is necessary for men with signs and symptoms suggestive of prostate or urological malignancies, or if the underlying cause of haematospermia may be cysts or calculi of the prostate or seminal vesicles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 29 - Lila is a 38-year-old woman who presents to you with heavy menstrual bleeding...

    Incorrect

    • Lila is a 38-year-old woman who presents to you with heavy menstrual bleeding that has been progressively worsening over the past year. She also complains of severe period pain that typically starts a few days before each menstrual cycle. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 28 days. Lila states she has not been sexually active for the past year and is not taking any regular medications. She has two children, both born via vaginal delivery without any complications. Upon abdominal examination, no abnormalities are noted, and a speculum examination reveals a normal cervix. You decide to order a full blood count. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Request a transvaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with menorrhagia along with pelvic pain, abnormal exam findings, or intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding, it is recommended to conduct a transvaginal ultrasound. According to the NICE guidelines, a transvaginal ultrasound should be preferred over a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI for women with significant dysmenorrhoea or a bulky, tender uterus on examination that suggests adenomyosis.

      In the case of Lila, who is experiencing new menorrhagia and significant dysmenorrhoea, a transvaginal ultrasound is necessary. If a transvaginal ultrasound is not possible, a transabdominal ultrasound or MRI can be considered, but the limitations of these techniques should be explained.

      For women without identified pathology, fibroids less than 3 cm in diameter, or suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, the first-line treatment recommended by the guideline is a levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS). While this may be an appropriate treatment for Lila, the initial next step should be to arrange for a transvaginal ultrasound to investigate further. At this stage, there are no red flags in Lila’s history or examination that warrant an urgent referral to gynaecology.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 30 - A 4-year-old boy undergoes a biopsy for a painless testicular tumour. Microscopy reveals...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy undergoes a biopsy for a painless testicular tumour. Microscopy reveals tissue that resembles glomeruli. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Yolk cell tumour

      Explanation:

      Types of Testicular Tumours and Their Characteristics

      Testicular tumours can be classified into different types based on their characteristics. The following are some of the common types of testicular tumours and their distinguishing features:

      1. Yolk Sac Tumour: This is the most common type of testicular tumour in children under the age of 4. It is a mucinous tumour that contains Schiller-Duval bodies, which resemble primitive glomeruli. Alpha fetoprotein is secreted by these tumours.

      2. Embryonal Carcinoma: This type of tumour typically occurs in the third decade of life. On microscopy, glands or papules are seen.

      3. Leydig Cell Tumour: This is a benign tumour that can cause precocious puberty or gynaecomastia. Reinke crystals are noted on histology.

      4. Seminoma: Seminoma is the most common testicular tumour, usually occurring between the ages of 15 and 35. Its features include large cells with a fluid-filled cytoplasm that stain CD117 positive.

      5. Choriocarcinoma: This tumour secretes β-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-HCG). Due to the similarity between thyroid-stimulating hormone and β-HCG, symptoms of hyperthyroidism may develop. Histology of these tumours shows cells that resemble cytotrophoblasts or syncytiotrophoblastic tissue.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of testicular tumours and their characteristics can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Urology
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