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  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP), complaining of bleeding gums...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP), complaining of bleeding gums every time she brushes her teeth. She reports that this is very concerning to her and has gotten to the point where she has stopped brushing her teeth.
      Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, for which she takes lisinopril. She takes no anticoagulants or antiplatelet medication.
      Her observations are as follows:
      Temperature 37.1°C
      Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
      Heart rate 68 bpm
      Respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 98% (room air)
      Examination of the oral cavity reveals red, swollen gingiva, with bleeding easily provoked with a periodontal probe.
      Which of the following is the next best step?

      Your Answer: Epstein–Barr virus testing

      Correct Answer: Referral to a neurologist

      Explanation:

      Medical Recommendations for Gingival Overgrowth

      Gingival overgrowth is a condition where the gum tissues grow excessively, leading to the formation of pockets that can harbor bacteria and cause inflammation. This condition can be caused by certain medications like phenytoin, calcium channel blockers, and ciclosporin. Here are some medical recommendations for managing gingival overgrowth:

      Referral to a Neurologist: If the patient is taking antiepileptic medication, a neurologist should review the medication to determine if it is causing the gingival overgrowth.

      Avoid Brushing Teeth: Although brushing can exacerbate bleeding, not brushing can lead to poor oral hygiene. The cause of the gingival overgrowth needs to be addressed.

      Epstein–Barr Virus Testing: Patients with oral hairy leukoplakia may benefit from Epstein–Barr virus testing.

      Pregnancy Test: A pregnancy test is not indicated in patients with gingival overgrowth unless medication is not the likely cause.

      Vitamin K: Vitamin K is indicated for patients who require warfarin reversal for supratherapeutic international normalized ratios (INRs). It is not necessary for patients who are clinically stable and not actively bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with worsening right foot...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with worsening right foot drop over two months. He also states that he has begun to drop objects that he was previously able to lift with ease and feels that both of his hands are constantly shaking. He does not have any other medical conditions. He recalls that his brother and father passed away from a neurological disease, of which he does not know the name.
      Examination reveals bilateral lower limb weakness. There is hyperreflexia on examination of the knees and ankles. Plantars are upgoing. Examination of the upper limb is pertinent for left arm weakness, in particular in the median and ulnar nerve-innervated hand muscles. Sensation is normal in both upper and lower limbs. A diagnosis of motor neurone disease (MND) (amyotrophic lateral sclerosis) is being considered.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to improve the life expectancy of this patient?

      Your Answer: Riluzole

      Explanation:

      Riluzole is the only drug that has been proven to increase survival rates in patients with MND, although its exact mechanism of action is not fully understood. Studies have shown that patients who take riluzole have a lower mortality rate compared to those who do not, particularly those with bulbar-onset MND. However, riluzole may cause side effects such as liver damage, gastrointestinal discomfort, and, in rare cases, neutropenia. Baclofen can help manage spasticity in MND patients but does not improve life expectancy. Carbocisteine is a mucolytic that can reduce sputum viscosity and is often used in patients with bulbar symptoms, but it has not been shown to increase life expectancy. Citalopram can treat depression in MND patients but does not affect life expectancy. Memantine, an anti-glutamatergic agent used for severe Alzheimer’s disease, is not recommended for MND patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      43.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man has been referred to you due to a personality change that has been going on for a year. He has become loud, sexually flirtatious, and inappropriate in social situations. He has also been experiencing difficulties with memory and abstract thinking, but his arithmetic ability remains intact. There is no motor impairment, and his speech is relatively preserved. Which area of the brain is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Occipital lobe

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Pick’s Disease: A Rare Form of Dementia

      Pick’s disease is a type of dementia that is not commonly seen. It is characterized by the degeneration of the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. The symptoms of this disease depend on the location of the lobar atrophy, with patients experiencing either frontal or temporal lobe syndromes. Those with frontal atrophy may exhibit early personality changes, while those with temporal lobe atrophy may experience aphasia and semantic memory impairment.

      Pathologically, Pick’s disease is associated with Pick bodies, which are inclusion bodies found in the neuronal cytoplasm. These bodies are argyrophilic, meaning they have an affinity for silver staining. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, EEG readings for Pick’s disease are relatively normal.

      To learn more about Pick’s disease, the National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke provides an information page on frontotemporal dementia. this rare form of dementia can help individuals and their loved ones better manage the symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 87-year-old woman who lives alone is found wandering in the street, she...

    Incorrect

    • An 87-year-old woman who lives alone is found wandering in the street, she is unable to remember her way home. Past medical history of note includes hypertension for which she takes lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. She is known to Social Services having been in trouble for stealing from a local grocery store earlier in the year, and for yelling at a neighbor who complained about her loud music. On examination she is agitated and socially inappropriate, she has been incontinent of urine. During your testing she repeats what you say and appears to be laughing at you. Responses to your questions tend to lack fluency and she has trouble naming simple objects. There is rigidity and increased tone on motor examination.
      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 250 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 190 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Computed tomography (CT) head scan – evidence of frontal atrophy
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Shy-Drager syndrome

      Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Frontotemporal Dementia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Frontotemporal dementia, also known as Pick’s disease, is a type of dementia that affects the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. One of the hallmark symptoms of this condition is a change in personality, often leading to disinhibition, aggression, and inappropriate behavior. Patients may also exhibit echolalia and echopraxia, repeating words and imitating actions of others.

      Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia often presents with early symptoms of behavioral changes and repetitive behavior, rather than memory loss. Incontinence may also be an early symptom. Diagnosis is typically made through brain imaging, which reveals frontotemporal lobe degeneration and the presence of Pick’s bodies, spherical aggregations of tau proteins in neurons.

      Management of frontotemporal dementia focuses on symptomatic treatment of behavior and support for caregivers and patients. Other conditions, such as Shy-Drager syndrome, multi-infarct dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, may present with similar symptoms but can be ruled out through careful evaluation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What type of receptor utilizes G protein for downstream signaling? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of receptor utilizes G protein for downstream signaling?

      Your Answer: Fast-acting

      Correct Answer: Metabotropic

      Explanation:

      Classification of Receptors Based on Downstream Signalling Mechanisms

      Receptors are classified based on their mechanism for downstream signalling. There are two main types of receptors: inotropic and metabotropic. Inotropic receptors, such as glutamate receptors, are ion channel receptors that bind to neurotransmitters and cause a direct change in ion flow. On the other hand, metabotropic receptors, such as adrenoreceptors, are coupled to G proteins or enzymes and cause a cascade of intracellular events.

      Metabotropic receptors can be further subdivided into G-protein coupled receptors or enzyme-associated receptors. Some neurotransmitters, like acetylcholine, can bind to both inotropic and metabotropic receptors. However, only metabotropic receptors are used in receptor classification.

      Examples of inotropic receptors include glutamate receptors, GABA-A receptors, 5-HT3 receptors, nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, AMPA receptors, and glycine receptors. Examples of metabotropic receptors include adrenoreceptors, GABA-B receptors, 5-HT1 receptors, muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, dopaminergic receptors, and histaminergic receptors.

      In summary, receptors are classified based on their downstream signalling mechanisms. Inotropic receptors cause a direct change in ion flow, while metabotropic receptors cause a cascade of intracellular events. Only metabotropic receptors are used in receptor classification, and they can be further subdivided into G-protein coupled receptors or enzyme-associated receptors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A woman brings her middle-aged husband to see you. She is worried about...

    Correct

    • A woman brings her middle-aged husband to see you. She is worried about his recent forgetfulness. She also reveals that he has been experiencing hallucinations of small children playing in the house. On examination, there is nothing significant to note except for a mild resting tremor in the hands (right > left).

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Dementia: Lewy Body Dementia, Korsakoff’s Dementia, Alzheimer’s Disease, Multi-Infarct Dementia, and Pick’s Disease

      Lewy Body Dementia: This type of dementia is characterized by memory impairment and parkinsonism. It is caused by the build-up of Lewy bodies in the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, resulting in a movement disorder similar to Parkinson’s disease and memory problems. Visual hallucinations are common, and symptoms often fluctuate. Treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and levodopa, while neuroleptics are contraindicated.

      Korsakoff’s Dementia: This type of dementia is typically associated with alcohol misuse. Patients tend to confabulate and make up information they cannot remember.

      Alzheimer’s Disease: This is the most common type of dementia. However, visual hallucinations and resting tremor are not typical symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease.

      Multi-Infarct Dementia: This type of dementia is caused by problems that interrupt blood supply to the brain, such as multiple minor and major strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.

      Pick’s Disease: Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, this type of dementia is characterized by the patient sometimes losing their inhibitions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intense headache, fever, and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of intense headache, fever, and right periorbital pain. He has a sizable infected lesion on his face next to his right nostril, which he admits to causing by picking at an acne spot. During the physical examination, the doctor notices swelling around his right eye. The physician suspects that he may have cavernous venous sinus thrombosis (CST).
      What is a characteristic of CST?

      Your Answer: Visual disturbance

      Explanation:

      Understanding Visual Disturbance in Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis

      Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis (CST) is a condition that can cause visual disturbance due to the involvement of cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. This can lead to ophthalmoplegia and diplopia. The most common infective organism responsible for CST is Staphylococcus aureus, although Staphylococcus epidermidis can also be a culprit.

      One of the symptoms of CST is paralysis of the orbicularis oculi on the affected side. However, it’s important to note that this muscle is innervated by the facial nerve, which is not affected by the thrombosis.

      Third nerve palsy is the most common nerve paralysis associated with CST, but sixth nerve palsy is the most common nerve palsy overall. While symptoms such as chemosis and ptosis can occur, they are not as common as ophthalmoplegia and diplopia.

      Overall, understanding the visual disturbance associated with CST can help with early diagnosis and treatment of this potentially serious condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old patient presents with progressive weakness of the arms and legs over...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with progressive weakness of the arms and legs over 1 week. Three weeks earlier, she had an episode of diarrhoea lasting 5 days. Examination confirms distal weakness and ‘glove-and-stocking’ sensory loss.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Guillain–Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Ascending Paralysis and Glove-and-Stocking Weakness

      The patient presents with acute progressive ascending paralysis and glove-and-stocking weakness, which is typical of Guillain–Barré syndrome. However, cranial nerve palsies can also occur. It is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as multiple sclerosis, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, diabetic neuropathy, and acute intermittent porphyria. MS is characterised by lesions separated in both space and time, while subacute combined degeneration of the cord is secondary to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and presents with progressive limb weakness, paraesthesiae, and visual disturbances. Diabetic neuropathy usually causes sensory impairment, not motor impairment, and acute intermittent porphyria manifests with a constellation of symptoms, including abdominal pain, peripheral and autonomic neuropathies, and proximal motor weakness. A thorough evaluation and diagnostic workup are necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      2.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of declining physical performance at...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with a 4-month history of declining physical performance at work, accompanied by dysarthria and clumsiness. During the examination, he appears anemic and has hepatomegaly and Kayser-Fleischer rings in his cornea. He has a detectable liver edge. He denies excessive alcohol consumption and has no history of foreign travel, intravenous drug use, or unprotected sexual intercourse. His weekly alcohol intake is 0-2 units. He reports that his father passed away from a psychiatric illness in his mid-forties. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcohol abuse

      Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Liver Failure and Neurological Symptoms

      Wilson’s Disease, Alcohol Abuse, Hepatitis C Infection, Herpes Encephalitis, and Motor Neurone Disease are all potential diagnoses for a patient presenting with liver failure and neurological symptoms. Wilson’s Disease is a genetic disorder that can present in childhood or early adulthood with hepatic or neurological/psychiatric manifestations. Alcohol abuse can cause acute liver failure and hepatitis, but Kayser-Fleischer rings are not associated with it. Hepatitis C infection is spread through blood-to-blood contact and is unlikely in this patient without risk factors. Herpes encephalitis is a viral encephalitis that presents acutely with confusion and altered consciousness, but the patient had a subacute presentation. Motor neurone disease can cause muscle atrophy and weight loss, but does not explain the liver failure. A thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the correct diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old truck driver is admitted with a left-sided facial droop, dysphasia and dysarthria. His symptoms slowly improve and he is very eager to return to work as he is self-employed. After 3 weeks, he has made a complete clinical recovery and neurological examination is normal. As per the guidelines of the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA), when can he recommence driving his truck?

      Your Answer: 6 months after onset of symptoms

      Correct Answer: 12 months after onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions Following Stroke or TIA

      After experiencing a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA), there are various restrictions on driving depending on the time elapsed since onset of symptoms and the type of vehicle being driven.

      For car drivers, it is recommended that they do not drive for at least 4 weeks after a TIA or stroke. After 1 month, they may resume driving if there has been satisfactory recovery.

      However, for lorry or bus drivers, licences will be revoked for 1 year following a stroke or TIA. After 12 months, relicensing may be offered subject to satisfactory clinical recovery. Functional cardiac testing and medical reports may be required.

      For car drivers who have had a single TIA or stroke, they may resume driving 1 month after the event following satisfactory clinical recovery.

      Overall, it is important to follow these restrictions to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of headaches, shoulder pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents with a three month history of headaches, shoulder pain and weight loss. Over this time she has lost approximately 6 kg in weight.

      She describes early morning stiffness of the shoulders. Also, she has become aware of frontal headaches and has noticed tenderness of the scalp particularly when she combs her hair. She has little in her past medical history, she is a lifelong non-smoker and takes no medication.

      During examination, she appears to be in good health with a blood pressure of 126/88 mmHg and a BMI of 23.4. Neurological examination is normal though she is tender over the shoulders and scalp.

      Which of the following investigations would you select for this patient?

      Your Answer: CT head scan

      Correct Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

      Explanation:

      Temporal arthritis/Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Unknown Aetiology

      This condition, which is of unknown aetiology, typically affects the elderly and is associated with inflammation of the extracranial arteries. It is characterized by weight loss, proximal muscle stiffness and tenderness, headaches, and scalp tenderness. Elevated inflammatory markers, particularly erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C reactive protein, are usually associated with it. Temporal arthritis may also be diagnosed through biopsy of the inflamed temporal artery, although false negatives may occur as the disease may patchily affect the artery.

      It is important to recognize and treat the disease early to reduce morbidity and prevent blindness due to involvement of the optic arteries with retinal ischemia. The condition usually rapidly improves with steroid therapy, and the disease may be monitored through reduction of ESR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old teacher comes to the general practitioner (GP) worried about her risk...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old teacher comes to the general practitioner (GP) worried about her risk of developing Alzheimer's disease. Her father has been diagnosed with an advanced form of the condition, and although she has no symptoms, the patient is anxious, as she has heard recently that the condition can be inherited.
      Which one of the following statements regarding Alzheimer's disease is true?

      Your Answer: It is more common in women than men

      Explanation:

      Myth Busting: Common Misconceptions About Alzheimer’s Disease

      Alzheimer’s disease is a complex and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about the disease that need to be addressed:

      1. It is more common in women than men: While it is true that women are more likely to develop Alzheimer’s disease, it is not entirely clear why. It is thought that this may be due to the fact that women generally live longer than men.

      2. The familial variant is inherited as an autosomal recessive disorder: This is incorrect. The familial variant of Alzheimer’s disease is typically inherited as an autosomal dominant disorder.

      3. It accounts for 30-40% of all cases of dementia: Alzheimer’s disease is actually responsible for approximately 60% of all cases of dementia.

      4. The onset is rare after the age of 75: Onset of Alzheimer’s disease typically increases with age, and it is not uncommon for people to develop the disease after the age of 75.

      5. It cannot be inherited: This is a myth. While not all cases of Alzheimer’s disease are inherited, there are certain genetic mutations that can increase a person’s risk of developing the disease.

      It is important to dispel these myths and educate ourselves about the true nature of Alzheimer’s disease. By understanding the facts, we can better support those affected by the disease and work towards finding a cure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is referred to the neurologist by her GP. She loves playing basketball, but is worried because her teammates have been teasing her about her appearance. They have been making fun of her in the locker room because of the spots she has under her armpits and around her groin. They have also been teasing her about her height, as she is the tallest girl on the team. During a skin examination, the doctor finds evidence of inguinal and axillary freckling, as well as 9 coffee-colored spots on her arms, legs, and chest. An eye exam reveals iris hamartomas.

      What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; all cases are familial

      Correct Answer: It is inherited in an autosomal-dominant fashion; de novo presentations are common

      Explanation:

      Neurofibromatosis type I (NF-1) is caused by a mutation in the neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 and is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern. De novo presentations are common, meaning that around 50% of cases occur in individuals without family history. To make a diagnosis, at least two of the seven core features must be present, with two or more neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma being one of them. Other features associated with NF-1 include short stature and learning difficulties, but these are not necessary for diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe and unremitting occipital headache. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe and unremitting occipital headache. On examination, she is drowsy and confused, with a blood pressure of 180/95 mmHg. You suspect that she may have had a subarachnoid haemorrhage and arrange a computed tomography (CT) scan. This is normal. She undergoes a lumbar puncture and the results are shown below:
      Pot 1: red cells 490 × 109/l, white cells 10 × 109/l, no organisms seen
      Pot 2: red cells 154 × 109/l, white cells 8 × 109/l, no organisms seen
      Pot 3: red cells 51 × 109/l, white cells <5 × 109/l, no organisms seen
      Which of the following is the most likely explanation for these results?

      Your Answer: Confirmed recent subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Traumatic tap

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Lumbar Puncture Results in Neurological Conditions

      Lumbar puncture is a diagnostic procedure used to collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis in various neurological conditions. The results of a lumbar puncture can provide valuable information in diagnosing conditions such as traumatic tap, subarachnoid hemorrhage, bacterial meningitis, and viral meningitis.

      Traumatic Tap: A traumatic tap is characterized by a gradation of red cell contamination in sequential samples of CSF. This condition is often accompanied by severe headaches and can be managed with adequate analgesia and reassessment of blood pressure.

      Confirmed Recent Subarachnoid Hemorrhage: In cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage, red cells within the CSF are expected to be constant within each bottle. However, a more reliable way to examine for subarachnoid hemorrhage is to look for the presence of xanthochromia in the CSF, which takes several hours to develop.

      Bacterial Meningitis: Bacterial meningitis is characterized by a much higher white cell count, mostly polymorphs. CSF protein and glucose, as well as paired blood glucose, are valuable parameters to consider when diagnosing bacterial meningitis.

      Viral Meningitis: Viral meningitis is characterized by a much higher white cell count, mostly lymphocytes. Protein and glucose levels in the CSF are also valuable parameters to consider when diagnosing viral meningitis.

      Subarachnoid Hemorrhage >1 Week Ago: In cases of subarachnoid hemorrhage that occurred more than a week ago, few red cells would remain in the CSF. In such cases, examining the CSF for xanthochromia in the lab is a more valuable test.

      In conclusion, interpreting lumbar puncture results requires careful consideration of various parameters and their respective values in different neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      81.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old farm worker presents with a two-day history of progressive weakness and...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old farm worker presents with a two-day history of progressive weakness and tingling in all limbs. He had a recent episode of respiratory symptoms that resolved without treatment. On examination, he has decreased muscle strength in all extremities and absent deep tendon reflexes in the legs. Laboratory results show normal blood counts and electrolytes, as well as elevated CSF protein and normal glucose. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-infectious polyradiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barré Syndrome and Peripheral Neuropathy Diagnosis

      A history of progressive weakness and loss of tendon reflexes, especially after a recent infection, may indicate Guillain-Barré syndrome, also known as post-infectious polyradiculopathy. It is important to monitor respiratory function regularly, and the best way to do this is by measuring the vital capacity. When diagnosing peripheral neuropathy, a focused clinical assessment that addresses several key issues can significantly narrow down the differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old male comes to the clinic with sudden vision loss in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male comes to the clinic with sudden vision loss in his right eye and a relative afferent pupillary defect. He has uncontrolled systemic hypertension and elevated cholesterol levels. What is the probable cause of his condition?

      Your Answer: Chronic open angle glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Retinal vascular occlusion

      Explanation:

      Tips for Answering Tricky Questions in the AKT Exam

      When faced with a tricky question in the AKT exam, it is important to look at the information given and consider which answer may be most likely. One helpful approach is to identify any relevant risk factors and use them to narrow down the options. Additionally, sudden changes in symptoms may be more indicative of certain conditions than chronic symptoms. It is important to remember that it is impossible to know the answer to every question, but by using these strategies, you can improve your hit rate on questions that may initially seem difficult.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      10.7
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  • Question 17 - What is the mechanism by which a neuron controls its membrane potential? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mechanism by which a neuron controls its membrane potential?

      Your Answer: By enzymatic breakdown of molecules that give rise to intracellular ions, which alter the membrane potential

      Correct Answer: By regulating opening and closing ion channels

      Explanation:

      The Role of Ion Channels in Regulating Membrane Potential

      The membrane potential of a cell is the voltage difference between the inside and outside of the cell membrane. This potential is influenced by the movement of ions across the membrane, which is determined by their valence and concentration gradient. However, the permeability of ions also plays a crucial role in regulating membrane potential. This is achieved through the presence of ion channels that can open and close in response to various stimuli, such as action potentials.

      Neurons, for example, are able to regulate their membrane potential by controlling the opening and closing of ion channels. This allows them to maintain a stable resting potential and respond to changes in their environment. The permeability of ions through these channels is carefully regulated to ensure that the membrane potential remains within a certain range. This is essential for proper neuronal function and communication.

      In summary, the regulation of membrane potential is a complex process that involves the movement of ions across the membrane and the opening and closing of ion channels. This process is critical for maintaining proper cellular function and communication, particularly in neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      24.7
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  • Question 18 - You are asked to give a presentation to a group of third-year medical...

    Correct

    • You are asked to give a presentation to a group of third-year medical students about the different types of dementia and how they may present.
      Which of the following is characteristic of frontotemporal dementia?

      Your Answer: Confabulation and repetition

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fronto-Temporal Dementia: Symptoms and Features

      Fronto-temporal dementia is a complex disorder that affects both the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. Its diagnosis can be challenging, especially in the early stages of the disease. To better understand this condition, it is helpful to examine its symptoms and features based on the affected brain regions.

      Frontal lobe dysfunction is characterized by changes in personality and behavior, such as loss of tact and concern for others, disinhibition, emotional instability, distractibility, impulsivity, and fixed attitudes. However, some patients may exhibit opposite behaviors and become increasingly withdrawn.

      Temporal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, affects speech and language abilities, leading to dysphasia, confabulation, repetition, and difficulty finding words and names (semantic dementia).

      Other features of fronto-temporal dementia include earlier onset (typically between 40-60 years old), slow and insidious progression, relatively preserved memory in the early stages, and loss of executive function as the disease advances. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, hallucinations, paranoia, and delusions are rare, and personality and mood remain largely unaffected.

      It is important to note that fronto-temporal dementia can present differently in late onset cases (70-80 years old) and does not typically involve bradykinesia, a hallmark symptom of Parkinson’s disease. Rapid progressive loss of memory and cognitive abilities is also not typical of fronto-temporal dementia, as the disease tends to progress slowly over time.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and features of fronto-temporal dementia can aid in its early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.1
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  • Question 19 - A senior citizen visits her physician with a complaint of painful sensation on...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen visits her physician with a complaint of painful sensation on the outer part of her thigh. The doctor diagnoses her with meralgia paraesthetica.
      Which nerve provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the thigh?

      Your Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Correct Answer: Branch of the lumbar plexus

      Explanation:

      Nerves of the Lower Limb: Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica and Other Neuropathies

      Meralgia paraesthetica is a type of entrapment neuropathy that affects the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. This nerve arises directly from the lumbar plexus, which is a network of nerves located in the lower back. Compression of the nerve can cause numbness, tingling, and pain in the upper lateral thigh. Treatment options include pain relief and surgical decompression.

      While meralgia paraesthetica affects the lateral cutaneous nerve, other nerves in the lower limb have different functions. The pudendal nerve, for example, supplies sensation to the external genitalia, anus, and perineum, while the obturator nerve innervates the skin of the medial thigh. The sciatic nerve, on the other hand, innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh and can cause burning sensations and shooting pains if compressed. Finally, the femoral nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the thigh and gives sensation to the front of the thigh.

      Understanding the different nerves of the lower limb and the types of neuropathies that can affect them is important for diagnosing and treating conditions like meralgia paraesthetica. By working with healthcare professionals, individuals can find relief from symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - A 26-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of a headache and fever. During the examination, you observe that she is wearing sunglasses due to the bright lights worsening her headache. Kernig's sign is positive, and you suspect meningitis. Which of the following statements regarding the cranial meninges is accurate?

      Your Answer: A subdural haematoma lies in the plane between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Layers of the Meninges and Intracranial Hemorrhage

      The meninges are the three layers of protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord. The outermost layer is the dura mater, followed by the arachnoid mater, and the innermost layer is the pia mater. Each layer serves a specific function in protecting the central nervous system.

      Subdural hematomas occur between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater, often as a result of venous bleeding. The pia mater is the outermost layer closest to the skull, while the dura mater consists of two layers and is richly innervated, causing pain when stretched. Extradural hematomas occur between the endosteal layer of the dura mater and the skull, often due to trauma and bleeding from the middle meningeal artery.

      Subarachnoid hematomas form on the outside of the dura mater and are caused by arterial bleeding in the subarachnoid space. Intracerebral bleeds occur within the brain parenchyma itself and are unrelated to the meninges.

      Understanding the various meningeal layers is crucial in identifying and treating different types of intracranial hemorrhage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old man presents to the doctor’s office with complaints of double vision,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the doctor’s office with complaints of double vision, drooping eyelids, and difficulty with speaking, chewing, and swallowing. He reports feeling well in the morning without weakness, but as the day progresses, he experiences increasing fatigue and weakness. Additionally, he notes muscle weakness after exercise that improves with rest. On physical examination, there is no muscle fasciculation, atrophy, or spasticity, and all reflexes are normal. Sensation is intact, and his pupils are equal and reactive to light. What autoantibodies are responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Presynaptic calcium receptor

      Correct Answer: Acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Diseases and Associated Antibodies

      Myasthenia gravis, systemic lupus erythematosus, Becker and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, and Lambert-Eaton syndrome are all autoimmune diseases that involve the production of specific antibodies. Myasthenia gravis is characterised by the presence of acetylcholine receptor antibodies, while SLE is associated with antibodies to double-stranded DNA and anti-Smith antibodies. Antibodies to dystrophin are linked to muscular dystrophy, and those to myelin are involved in multiple sclerosis. Finally, antibodies to the presynaptic calcium receptor are associated with Lambert-Eaton syndrome. Understanding the specific antibodies involved in these diseases can aid in their diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old cleaner presents with a complaint of gradual numbness on the left...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old cleaner presents with a complaint of gradual numbness on the left side of her hand and forearm. Upon examination, there is no indication of muscle wasting, but there is slight weakness in finger adduction and flexion. Reflexes are normal. Sensory testing reveals a decrease in pinprick sensation in the tips of the ring and little fingers and over the hypothenar eminence.
      What is the location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Ulnar neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between nerve lesions: Ulnar neuropathy, C6/C7 root lesion, carpal tunnel syndrome, radial neuropathy, and peripheral neuropathy

      When assessing a patient with neurological symptoms in the upper limb, it is important to differentiate between different nerve lesions. An ulnar neuropathy will affect the small muscles of the hand, except for a few supplied by the median nerve. Sensory loss will be felt in the ring and little fingers, as well as the medial border of the middle finger.

      A C6/C7 root lesion will cause weakness in elbow and wrist flexion/extension, as well as finger extensors. Sensory loss will be felt in the thumb and first two fingers, but not the lateral border of the ring finger. Reflexes for biceps and triceps will be lost.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the median nerve, causing atrophy of the thenar eminence and paraesthesiae in the lateral three and a half digits.

      A radial neuropathy will cause a wrist drop and sensory loss over the dorsal aspect of the hand.

      Finally, a peripheral neuropathy will be symmetrical, with loss of sensation over both hands and weakness in distal muscles.

      By understanding the specific symptoms associated with each nerve lesion, healthcare professionals can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 23 - A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol,...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia. He was prescribed haloperidol, but after two weeks, he was discovered to be confused and drowsy. Upon examination, he was found to have a fever of 40.7°C, rigid muscles, and a blood pressure of 200/100 mmHg. What treatment would you recommend in this situation?

      Your Answer: acyclovir

      Correct Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a serious medical condition that is commonly caused by potent neuroleptics. Its major features include rigidity, altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction, fever, and high creatinine kinase. The condition can lead to potential complications such as rhabdomyolysis and acute renal failure.

      The treatment of choice for NMS is dantrolene and bromocriptine. However, withdrawal of neuroleptic treatment is mandatory to prevent further complications. It is important to note that NMS can be life-threatening and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize the symptoms and seek medical help as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia and multiple hospitalisations presents in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia and multiple hospitalisations presents in a psychiatry ward with a few weeks of feeling unwell and stiffness in her jaws and arms. She has been on haloperidol for symptom control. Her temperature is 38.5°C and BP is 175/85 mmHg. What is the most crucial investigation to conduct?

      Your Answer: Serum creatine phosphokinase

      Explanation:

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment

      Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications that can occur at any point during treatment. The risk of NMS may increase when these medications are taken alongside lithium or anticholinergics. Symptoms of NMS include fever, rigidity, altered mental status, autonomic dysfunction, and elevated creatine phosphokinase concentration. The latter is always elevated and reflects muscle damage caused by intense muscle contractions.

      Treatment for NMS involves discontinuing the use of the medication that caused the syndrome and reducing body temperature with antipyretics. Dantrolene, bromocriptine, or levodopa preparations may also be beneficial. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if any of these symptoms occur during antipsychotic treatment. By doing so, patients can receive prompt treatment and avoid potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A woman presents to Accident and Emergency with a decreased level of consciousness....

    Incorrect

    • A woman presents to Accident and Emergency with a decreased level of consciousness. Her conscious state is formally assessed. She withdraws to a painful stimulus and is mumbling incoherent words randomly, irrespective of people attempting to speak to her in conversation, and her eyes open only in response to painful stimuli.
      What is the breakdown of this patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?

      Your Answer: Motor response 3/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 2/4

      Correct Answer: Motor response 4/6, verbal response 3/5, eye opening response 2/4

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale: Interpreting a Patient’s Level of Consciousness

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It consists of three scores: best motor response, best verbal response, and eye opening response. Each score is given a value out of a maximum score, and the total score is used to determine the patient’s level of consciousness.

      In this case, the patient’s motor response is a score of 4 out of 6, indicating a withdrawal response to pain. The verbal response is a score of 3 out of 5, indicating mumbling words or nonsense. The eye opening response is a score of 2 out of 4, indicating opening to pain. Therefore, the patient’s total GCS score is 9, indicating a comatose state.

      It is important to understand the GCS and how to interpret the scores in order to properly assess a patient’s level of consciousness and provide appropriate medical care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - An 80-year-old retired teacher complains of headache and scalp tenderness. She reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old retired teacher complains of headache and scalp tenderness. She reports experiencing blurred vision for the past three days. What signs suggest a possible diagnosis of giant cell arthritis?

      Your Answer: ESR 31 mm/hr

      Correct Answer: Temporal artery biopsy demonstrating mononuclear cell infiltration

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Giant Cell arthritis

      Giant cell arthritis is a condition that affects the arteries, particularly those in the head and neck. To diagnose this condition, the American College of Rheumatology has developed criteria that require the fulfillment of at least three out of five criteria. These criteria have a 93% sensitivity of diagnosis.

      The first criterion is age over 50, as this condition is more common in older individuals. The second criterion is the onset of a new type of localized headache, which is often severe and persistent. The third criterion is an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of over 50 mm/hr by the Westergreen method, which indicates inflammation in the body. The fourth criterion is temporal artery tenderness to palpation or decreased pulsation, which can be felt by a doctor during a physical exam. The fifth criterion is an arterial biopsy showing granulomatous inflammation or mononuclear cell infiltration, usually with multinucleated giant cells.

      Overall, the diagnosis of giant cell arthritis requires a combination of clinical and laboratory findings. If a patient meets at least three of these criteria, further testing and treatment may be necessary to manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old female patient, who smokes and is taking the combined oral contraceptive...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient, who smokes and is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, reports experiencing pain and swelling in her right calf for the past two days. She also presents with sudden onset weakness on her right side. Upon examination, she displays a dense hemiplegia, with upper motor neuron signs and weakness in her right hand. Additionally, evidence of a deep vein thrombosis in her right calf is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Paradoxical embolism

      Explanation:

      Possible Embolic Cerebrovascular Accident in a Patient with History of DVT and Contraceptive Pill Use

      This patient presents with symptoms suggestive of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), including calf pain and swelling, and has a history of using the combined oral contraceptive pill, which increases the risk of DVT. However, the sudden onset of right-sided hemiplegia indicates the possibility of an embolic cerebrovascular accident (CVA) caused by an embolus passing through the heart and crossing over to the systemic side of circulation via an atrial septal defect (ASD) or ventricular septal defect (VSD).

      It is important to note that pulmonary embolism would not occur in this case without an ASD. While an aneurysm or hemorrhagic stroke are possible, they are less likely given the patient’s history of DVT. A tumor would also have a more chronic symptomatology, further supporting the possibility of an embolic CVA in this patient. Further diagnostic testing and treatment are necessary to confirm and address this potential complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      38
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  • Question 28 - What is the name of the neuron that sends signals from the peripheral...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the neuron that sends signals from the peripheral nervous system to the central nervous system?

      Your Answer: Interneurone

      Correct Answer: Afferent

      Explanation:

      Afferent Neurones

      Afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery, such as receptors, organs, and other neurones, to the central nervous system, which includes the brain and spinal cord. These neurones are often referred to as sensory neurones. It is important to note that afferent neurones are not the same as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, or multipolar neurones.

      Bipolar neurones are simply neurones that have only two extensions, such as those found in the retina or the ganglia of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Efferent neurones, on the other hand, transmit impulses from the central nervous system to the periphery, which is the opposite action of afferent neurones. Interneurones are neurones that connect afferent and efferent neurones in neural pathways. Finally, multipolar neurones are neurones that have a large number of dendrites, usually one long axon, and are found mostly in the brain and spinal cord for the integration of multiple incoming signals.

      In summary, afferent neurones are responsible for transmitting sensory signals from the periphery to the central nervous system. They are distinct from other types of neurones, such as bipolar, efferent, interneurone, and multipolar neurones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man has experienced three instances of temporary blindness in his right eye. He has a regular heart rate of 88 beats per minute in sinus rhythm. What is the most suitable test to diagnose the condition?

      Your Answer: Carotid duplex ultrasonography

      Explanation:

      Carotid Duplex Ultrasonography for Atherosclerotic Stenosis

      Carotid duplex ultrasonography is an investigation used to identify significant stenosis or occlusive lesions in the internal carotid artery caused by atherosclerosis. This condition can lead to amaurosis fugax, temporary paresis, aphasia, or sensory deficits. Fundoscopic examination may reveal bright yellow cholesterol emboli in patients with retinal involvement. Although carotid duplex is not arranged directly from primary care, healthcare professionals should have an of investigations that may be arranged by secondary care and be able to discuss this with patients in more general terms, including indications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 30 - What is contraindicated for patients with head injury? ...

    Correct

    • What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?

      Your Answer: 5% Dextrose

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Brain Injury

      Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      5.8
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