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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old diabetic woman comes to the clinic with a fungal infection on her left big toenail. She is bothered by the appearance of the nail when wearing sandals, as the entire nail seems to be affected.
What is the best course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Oral terbinafine
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole
Explanation:Effective Treatments for Fungal Nail Infections
According to clinical evidence, the most effective treatments for fungal nail infections are oral terbinafine and oral itraconazole. Topical treatments such as amorolfine and terbinafine have no good quality evidence to support their use, although topical ciclopirox may be effective. While various topical agents may be recommended for mild disease, oral treatment is usually required for a cure.
It is important to note that topical treatments should only be considered if less than eighty percent of the nail is involved, or there are two or less nails affected. In diabetics or those with vascular disease, fungal nail infections can be a portal for bacterial infection and subsequent cellulitis, making effective treatment crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has been diagnosed with scabies after presenting with itchy lesions on his hands. As part of the treatment plan, it is important to advise him to apply permethrin 5% cream as directed. Additionally, he should be reminded to treat all members of his household and wash all bedding and clothes in hot water. What instructions should be given regarding the application of the cream?
Your Answer: From neck down + leave for 12 hours + repeat in 7 days
Correct Answer: All skin including scalp + leave for 12 hours + repeat in 7 days
Explanation:Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.
The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.
Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following side-effects is the least acknowledged by patients who are prescribed isotretinoin?
Your Answer: Hypertension
Explanation:Isotretinoin can cause various adverse effects, including teratogenicity, which requires females to take contraception. Other side effects may include low mood, dry eyes and lips, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, and nosebleeds. However, hypertension is not listed as a side effect in the British National Formulary.
Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects
Isotretinoin is a type of oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found to be effective in providing long-term remission or cure for two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of treatment. However, it is important to note that isotretinoin also comes with several adverse effects that patients should be aware of.
One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in fetuses if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, females who are taking isotretinoin should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, low mood, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nosebleeds, and photosensitivity.
It is also worth noting that there is some controversy surrounding the potential link between isotretinoin and depression or other psychiatric problems. While these adverse effects are listed in the British National Formulary (BNF), further research is needed to fully understand the relationship between isotretinoin and mental health.
Overall, while isotretinoin can be an effective treatment for severe acne, patients should be aware of its potential adverse effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman has a hard, smooth nodule on the right lower leg, measuring 0.5 cm in diameter. She first noticed it several months ago, and since then it has not changed. When the lesion is pinched between the fingers, it dimples inwards. The lesion is light brown, with regular pigmentation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Dermatofibroma
Explanation:Distinguishing Different Skin Lesions: Dermatofibroma, Malignant Melanoma, Seborrhoeic Keratosis, Cutaneous Metastasis, and Actinic Keratosis
When it comes to skin lesions, it’s important to distinguish between different types to determine the appropriate treatment. One such lesion is a dermatofibroma, which is a benign growth that often appears on the limbs of women. A key feature of a dermatofibroma is the dimpling that occurs when the skin is pinched, due to the fibrous tissue underneath.
On the other hand, malignant melanoma is less likely to be the cause of a skin lesion if it has regular pigmentation, hasn’t changed in several months, and has dimpling – all features of a dermatofibroma. Seborrhoeic keratosis, another type of skin lesion, has a rough, stuck-on appearance that doesn’t match the description of a dermatofibroma.
A cutaneous metastasis, which is a skin lesion that results from cancer spreading from another part of the body, typically presents as a rapidly growing nodule. This is different from a dermatofibroma, which is relatively static. Similarly, an actinic keratosis, a flat lesion with a fine scale, is unlikely to be the diagnosis for a nodular lesion like a dermatofibroma.
In summary, understanding the characteristics of different skin lesions can help in accurately identifying and treating them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents for follow-up. He underwent ileostomy surgery six years ago, which has been successful until recently. He is currently experiencing significant pain in the area around the stoma site. Upon examination, a deep erythematous ulcer with a ragged edge is observed, along with swollen and erythematous surrounding skin. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stomal granuloma
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Pyoderma gangrenosum, which can be observed around the stoma site, is linked to inflammatory bowel disease. Surgery is not recommended as it may exacerbate the condition, and immunosuppressants are typically used for treatment. It is important to consider malignancy as a possible alternative diagnosis, and lesions should be referred to a specialist for evaluation and potential biopsy. While irritant contact dermatitis is a common occurrence, it is unlikely to result in such a profound ulcer.
Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum
Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other conditions.
The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. The ulcer itself may be deep and necrotic and may be accompanied by systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other causes of an ulcer.
Treatment for pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line therapy due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies, such as ciclosporin and infliximab, may be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and its potential causes and treatments can help patients and healthcare providers manage this rare and painful condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man reports to you that a mole on his left forearm has recently become darker, although he believes the size has not changed. Upon examination, you observe an irregularly shaped pigmented lesion measuring 8 mm Ă 6 mm. The lesion appears mildly inflamed, with some areas darker than others, but there is no discharge. Sensation over the lesion and surrounding skin is normal.
Using the 7-point weighted checklist recommended by the National Institute of Health and Care Excellence (NICE), what is the score of this patient's skin lesion based on the above clinical description?Your Answer: 4
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The 7-Point Checklist for Detecting Skin Cancer
The 7-point weighted checklist is a tool used by clinicians to identify suspicious skin lesions that may be cancerous. It comprises three major features, including a change in size, irregular shape, and irregular colour, as well as four minor features, such as inflammation and oozing. Major features score 2 points each, while minor features score 1 point each. Lesions scoring 3 or more points are considered suspicious and should be referred for further evaluation, even if the score is less than 3.
The incidence of malignant melanoma is increasing rapidly, particularly among young people, and early detection is crucial for successful treatment. High-risk patients include those with fair skin, freckling or light hair, users of sunbeds, atypical or dysplastic naevi, a family history of melanoma, and a history of blistering sunburn. Clinicians should also offer safe sun advice and encourage patients to seek medical attention if they have any concerns.
The 7-point checklist can be found in the NICE referral guidelines for suspected cancer and is an important tool for detecting skin cancer early. By being aware of the risk factors and using this checklist, clinicians can help to improve outcomes for patients with skin cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a pigmented skin lesion on her back that has grown quickly over the past few months. She has a history of frequent sunbed use. The lesion measures 9.5 mm in diameter. She is referred to Dermatology, where a diagnosis of malignant melanoma is confirmed.
What characteristic of the lesion would indicate the worst prognosis for this disease?Your Answer: Breslow thickness > 3 mm
Explanation:Prognostic Factors for Malignant Melanoma
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that can be staged based on several prognostic factors. The Breslow thickness, measured in millimetres from the dermo-epidermal junction, is a key factor. A thickness greater than 3.5 mm is associated with a poor prognosis, while a thickness less than 1.5 mm has a 5-year survival rate of over 90%. The diameter of the melanoma, however, has not been found to be a significant factor.
Clarke’s level is another important factor, measured from I to IV based on the level of invasion through the dermis. A Clarke’s level of I indicates that the melanoma has not invaded past the basement membrane, which is associated with a better outcome for the patient.
Microsatellite metastases, which are cutaneous metastases around the primary melanoma, can increase the TNM staging score and result in a worse prognosis. Therefore, the lack of microsatellite metastasis is a positive prognostic factor.
Surface ulceration, or the presence of an open sore on the skin, is a poor prognostic indicator and is accounted for in TNM scoring. The absence of surface ulceration is a positive factor for the patient’s prognosis.
Overall, these factors can help predict the prognosis for patients with malignant melanoma and guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man who is a recent immigrant from Tanzania complains about an ulcer on his penis. This is painless and has been present for some months, but is slowly enlarging. On examination he has an ulcer at the base of his glans and an offensive exudate. He also has bilateral inguinal lymphadenopathy.
Select the most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Primary syphilis
Correct Answer: Penile cancer
Explanation:Penile Cancer, Chancroid, and Syphilis: A Comparison
Penile cancer is a rare condition in the UK, but is more commonly seen in patients from Asia and Africa. It is often associated with poor hygiene and herpes infections, and can cause difficulty in retracting the foreskin. The 5-year survival rate with lymph-node involvement is around 50%.
Chancroid, on the other hand, is characterized by a painful ulcer. Lymphadenitis is also painful, and may progress to a suppurative bubo. Multiple ulcers may be present.
In syphilis, the primary chancre typically heals within 4-8 weeks, with or without treatment.
While these conditions may have some similarities, they are distinct and require different approaches to diagnosis and treatment. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you may have any of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What condition is characterized by a rash that causes itching?
Your Answer: Granuloma annulare
Correct Answer: Meningococcal purpura
Explanation:Common Skin Rashes and Their Associated Conditions
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin rash that causes vesicles and intense itching. It is often linked to coeliac disease. Erythema chronicum migrans is a rash that appears as a red macule or papule and grows into an annular lesion. It is associated with Lyme disease, which is caused by a spirochaete infection. Erythema nodosum is a painful nodular rash that typically appears on the shins. If it is accompanied by arthritis of the ankles and wrists and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, it is indicative of acute sarcoidosis. Granuloma annulare is a benign condition that produces firm nodules that merge to form ring-shaped lesions. Finally, the non-blanching purpuric rash of meningococcal disease is not itchy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy, scaly rash that has been gradually developing over the past few months. He has no significant medical history except for a diagnosis of generalised anxiety disorder. Upon examination, the patient has several indistinct, pink patches with yellow/brown scales. The affected areas are primarily located on the sternum, eyebrows, and nasal bridge. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis
Explanation:Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common cause of an itchy rash on the face and scalp, with a typical distribution pattern. Unlike atopic dermatitis, which affects flexural areas, seborrhoeic dermatitis is characterized by scales. Pityriasis rosea, on the other hand, presents with a herald patch on the trunk, followed by scaly patches that form a fir-tree pattern.
Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.
Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of scalp disease typically involves the use of over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione or tar as a first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.
For the management of seborrhoeic dermatitis on the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole are recommended. Topical steroids can also be used, but only for short periods. However, the condition can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. It is important to seek medical advice if the symptoms persist or worsen despite treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents with a new skin rash, which appeared during his summer vacation spent hiking. He displays several pale brown patches on his neck, upper back, and chest. The patches seem slightly flaky but are not causing any discomfort. He is generally healthy. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo
Explanation:Pityriasis versicolor is a skin condition caused by an overgrowth of Malassezia yeast, which commonly affects young males. It results in multiple patches of discolored skin, mainly on the trunk, which can appear pale brown, pink, or depigmented. The condition often occurs after exposure to humid, sunny environments.
According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for pityriasis versicolor is either ketoconazole shampoo applied topically for five days or selenium sulphide shampoo for seven days (off-label indication). While topical antifungal creams like clotrimazole are effective, they are not typically used as first-line treatment unless the affected area is small due to their higher cost.
Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that are commonly found on the trunk area. These patches may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and may become more noticeable after sun exposure. Scaling is also a common feature, and mild itching may occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it may also occur in people with weakened immune systems, malnutrition, or Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents. According to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, ketoconazole shampoo is a cost-effective option for treating large areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed.
In summary, pityriasis versicolor is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is characterized by patches that may appear hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and scaling is a common feature. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal agents, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed if topical treatment fails.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.
Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.
Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Acne vulgaris is a common presentation to GP. One treatment option is an oral antibiotic, and tetracyclines are the first line. From the options below which patient would be suitable to receive oral tetracycline if they are 16 years old or above?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 16-year-old female
Explanation:When treating acne with oral antibiotics, tetracyclines are typically the first choice. All tetracyclines are effective for treating acne, so the decision on which one to use should be based on personal preference and cost. Tetracycline and oxytetracycline are taken twice a day on an empty stomach, while doxycycline and lymecycline are taken once a day and can be taken with food. However, pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 should avoid oral tetracyclines due to the risk of them being deposited in the developing child’s teeth and bones. Women of childbearing age who are taking a topical retinoid should use effective contraception. If tetracyclines are not an option, erythromycin can be used instead at a dose of 500 mg twice a day. In this case, a 16-year-old female would be a suitable candidate for tetracyclines.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 5-year-old son, who has developed an itchy, red rash over the last few weeks which has been gradually worsening. It is mostly affecting the flexures and the face. The childâs mother suffers from atopic eczema and suspects that this is the problem with her sonâs skin.
What is the most appropriate management option in the treatment of atopic eczema in children?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears
Explanation:Best Practices for Managing Eczema: Key Recommendations
Eczema is a chronic skin condition that can cause significant discomfort and distress. While there is no cure for eczema, there are several strategies that can help manage symptoms and reduce the frequency of flare-ups. Here are some key recommendations for managing eczema:
1. Emollients should be continued after the eczema clears: Using emollients frequently can help reduce the frequency of flare-ups and the need for steroid treatment.
2. Only mildly potent corticosteroids should be used: While both mildly and moderately potent topical steroids can be used in children if needed for short courses, very potent preparations should only be used under specialist guidance.
3. Antihistamines should not be prescribed routinely: While antihistamines may provide some relief from itching, they are not recommended for routine use in the management of eczema.
4. Oral antibiotics should only be used when necessary: Antibiotics are only indicated where there is clinical suspicion of superimposed bacterial infection.
5. Topical tacrolimus should be used as a second-line treatment: Topical tacrolimus should only be used in cases that are not controlled with maximum corticosteroid therapy, or where there is high risk of side-effects from steroid use.
By following these recommendations, patients with eczema can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old female patient comes to you with bilateral, symmetrical depigmented lesions on her upper limbs that have been getting larger since she first noticed them 3 weeks ago. You suspect vitiligo and want to start medication while she waits for her dermatology appointment. Which of the following medications should you consider?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Potent topical corticosteroids
Explanation:In the early stages of vitiligo, the use of potent topical corticosteroids may be beneficial in reversing the changes. However, it is important to note that medications such as topical tacrolimus or oral steroids should only be prescribed by a dermatologist. Oral tacrolimus and topical miconazole are not effective in managing vitiligo, unless a fungal infection is suspected.
Understanding Vitiligo
Vitiligo is a medical condition that occurs when the immune system attacks and destroys melanocytes, leading to the loss of skin pigmentation. It is estimated to affect about 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing in individuals between the ages of 20 and 30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the edges of the affected areas being the most prominent. Trauma to the skin may also trigger the development of new lesions, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. While there is no cure for vitiligo, there are several management options available. These include the use of sunblock to protect the affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up to conceal the depigmented patches, and topical corticosteroids to reverse the changes if applied early. Other treatment options may include topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution is advised when using these treatments on patients with light skin. Overall, early diagnosis and management of vitiligo can help to improve the quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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As a teacher, you are educating a parent on the application of topical steroids for their adolescent with atopic eczema. The parent has come across the concept of fingertip Units (FTU) for measuring the amount of steroid to use. Can you explain what 1 FTU represents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sufficient to treat a skin area about twice that of the flat of an adult hand
Explanation:The measurement for steroids using the fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to twice the area of an adult hand’s flat surface.
Topical Steroids for Eczema Treatment
Eczema is a common skin condition that causes red, itchy, and inflamed skin. Topical steroids are often used to treat eczema, but it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls the patient’s symptoms. The potency of topical steroids varies, and the table below shows the different types of topical steroids by potency.
To determine the appropriate amount of topical steroid to use, the fingertip rule can be applied. One fingertip unit (FTU) is equivalent to 0.5 g and is sufficient to treat an area of skin about twice the size of an adult hand. The table also provides the recommended number of FTUs per dose for different areas of the body.
The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends specific quantities of topical steroids to be prescribed for a single daily application for two weeks. The recommended amounts vary depending on the area of the body being treated.
In summary, when using topical steroids for eczema treatment, it is important to use the weakest steroid cream that effectively controls symptoms and to follow the recommended amounts for each area of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes in with plaque psoriasis on his body, elbows, and knees. He has been using a potent corticosteroid ointment and a vitamin D preparation once daily for the past 8 weeks, but there has been no improvement in his skin. What should be the next course of action in managing his plaque psoriasis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the corticosteroid and continue with topical vitamin D preparation twice daily for up to 12 weeks
Explanation:The best course of action would be to discontinue the corticosteroid and increase the frequency of vitamin D application to twice daily, as per NICE guidelines. It is necessary to take a 4-week break from the topical steroid, which has already been used for 8 weeks. Therefore, continuing or increasing the steroid usage to twice daily would be inappropriate. Dithranol and referral to Dermatology are not necessary at this point, as the treatment plan has not been finished.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following antibiotics is most commonly linked to the onset of Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-trimoxazole
Explanation:Understanding Stevens-Johnson Syndrome
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe reaction that affects the skin and mucosa, and is usually caused by a drug reaction. It was previously thought to be a severe form of erythema multiforme, but is now considered a separate entity. The condition can be caused by drugs such as penicillin, sulphonamides, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, allopurinol, NSAIDs, and oral contraceptive pills.
The rash associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome is typically maculopapular, with target lesions being characteristic. It may develop into vesicles or bullae, and the Nikolsky sign is positive in erythematous areas, meaning that blisters and erosions appear when the skin is rubbed gently. Mucosal involvement and systemic symptoms such as fever and arthralgia may also occur.
Hospital admission is required for supportive treatment of Stevens-Johnson syndrome. It is important to identify and discontinue the causative drug, and to manage the symptoms of the condition. With prompt and appropriate treatment, the prognosis for Stevens-Johnson syndrome can be good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent cold sores on her lip. She experiences frequent outbreaks during the spring and summer, which are painful and affect her confidence when going outside. She has tried over-the-counter creams with little success. She has no significant medical history and wants to prevent future outbreaks.
What is the best course of action for managing her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeated courses of oral aciclovir to be taken at the onset of symptoms
Explanation:Management of Recurrent Herpes Labialis: Treatment Options and Diagnostic Considerations
Recurrent herpes labialis, commonly known as cold sores, can be a frustrating and uncomfortable condition for patients. Here are some management options to consider:
– Oral antivirals: Treatment with oral antivirals may be considered in healthy patients if the lesions are persistent. Treatment should be started at the onset of the prodrome until the lesions have healed.
– Topical aciclovir: While topical aciclovir can be used intermittently when prodromal symptoms appear, it is not recommended for long-term prophylaxis.
– Sun protection: Sun exposure can trigger facial herpes simplex, so sun protection using a high-protection-factor sunscreen and other measures may be tried.
– Laser therapy: There is no evidence to support laser therapy in the management of recurrent herpes labialis.
– Diagnostic considerations: Investigations are not usually necessary in primary care to confirm the diagnosis. Tests for underlying immunosuppression may be considered with persistent or severe episodes.It is important to work with patients to find the best management plan for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to you with a bothersome skin rash. He has been experiencing this for a few weeks now and has not found relief with an emollient cream. The itching is described as 'severe' and has caused him difficulty sleeping. Upon examination, you observe a mixture of papules and vesicles on his buttocks and the extensor surface of his knees and elbows. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis
Explanation:Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis
Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.
To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is performed, and direct immunofluorescence is used to show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis.
The management of dermatitis herpetiformis involves a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone. By adhering to a gluten-free diet, patients can reduce the severity of their symptoms and prevent further damage to their skin. Dapsone is a medication that can help to alleviate the symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system.
In summary, dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is associated with coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions and can be managed through a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 23 year old female comes to you seeking treatment for her moderate acne. She has attempted using benzoyl peroxide from the drugstore. She discloses that she is presently attempting to get pregnant. Which of the subsequent acne treatments would be appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral erythromycin
Explanation:Pregnancy poses a challenge when it comes to treating acne as many treatments can be harmful to the developing foetus. It is important to consider this issue before starting any treatment, especially in women of childbearing age who may not yet know they are pregnant.
Retinoids, such as isotretinoin and adapalene, are not safe for use during pregnancy due to their teratogenic effects. Dianette, a contraceptive pill, is not suitable for this patient who is trying to conceive. Antibiotics like oxytetracycline, tetracycline, lymecycline, and doxycycline can accumulate in growing bones and teeth, making them unsuitable for use during pregnancy. Erythromycin, on the other hand, is considered safe for use during pregnancy.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a three week history of painful, red, raised lesions on the front of her shins. A chest x ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. She also reports experiencing polyarthralgia and a slight dry cough.
What is the association with her presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Use of the combined oral contraceptive
Explanation:Understanding Sarcoidosis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Sarcoidosis is a granulomatous disease that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in Afro-Caribbean patients and typically affects adults aged 20-40. The disease can present with erythema nodosum (EN), polyarthralgia, and a slight dry cough. A chest x-ray is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, which is characterized by bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL).
Acute sarcoidosis can resolve spontaneously, but in some cases, the disease becomes chronic and progressive. Blood investigations may show raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), lymphopenia, elevated serum ACE, and elevated calcium. Hypercalciuria is a common occurrence in sarcoidosis.
It is important to differentiate sarcoidosis from lymphoma, which can also cause BHL. Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with EBV, while sarcoidosis is not associated with HLA-B27. Hypercalcaemia, rather than hypocalcaemia, is a common occurrence in sarcoidosis.
The combined oral contraceptive is known to be associated with developing EN, but it would not cause the other symptoms and signs. Early diagnosis and management can prevent the disease from becoming chronic and progressive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with a painful rash consisting of erythematous, swollen plaques with clusters of small vesicles. These are present in a band on the left side of the body extending from the lower dorsal area of the back around the front of the abdomen but not crossing the midline. The rash has been present for 48 hours.
Which of the following is the most appropriate drug to prescribe for a patient presenting at this stage of the illness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Treatment for Herpes Zoster (Shingles)
Herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, is a viral infection that affects a specific dermatome. It is recommended to start antiviral treatment, such as aciclovir, within 72 hours of rash onset for individuals over 50 years old. Aciclovir has been shown to reduce the duration of symptoms and the risk of post-herpetic neuralgia. It is also indicated for those with ophthalmic herpes zoster, non-truncal rash, moderate to severe pain or rash, and immunocompromised individuals. Prednisolone may be added to aciclovir, but results are mixed. Pain relief can be achieved with co-codamol, but stronger medications may be necessary. Amitriptyline or gabapentin may be used for post-herpetic neuralgia. Antiviral treatment is not recommended for immunocompetent children with mild symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You see a 3-year-old boy who has presented with a high fever.
He was first seen almost two weeks ago by a colleague and diagnosed with a viral upper respiratory tract infection and given simple advice. His parents have brought him back today as his fever doesn't seem to be settling and they have noticed that his eyes have become irritated and his lips are very red and have cracked.
On examination, the child has a temperature of 38.1°C and has dry fissured lips. There is an obvious widespread polymorphous skin rash present. Examination of the mouth reveals pharyngeal injection and a prominent red tongue. Significant cervical lymphadenopathy and conjunctival inflammation is noted. There is palmar erythema bilaterally and his hands and feet appear puffy with peeling of the skin of the fingers and toes.
Which of the following is a complication of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coronary artery aneurysms
Explanation:Kawasaki’s Disease: A Rare but Serious Condition in Children
Kawasaki’s disease (KD) is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children between 6 months to 4 years old. The exact cause of KD is unknown, but it is believed to be caused by a bacterial toxin acting as a superantigen similar to staphylococcal and streptococcal toxic shock syndromes.
The hallmark symptom of KD is a sustained fever lasting more than five days, accompanied by cervical lymphadenopathy, conjunctival infection, rash, mucous membrane signs (such as dry fissured lips, red ‘strawberry’ tongue, and pharyngeal injection), and erythematous and oedematous hands and feet with subsequent peeling of the fingers and toes.
It is crucial to make a clinical diagnosis of KD as about a third of those affected may develop coronary artery involvement, which can lead to the formation of coronary artery aneurysms. Early treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin within the first 10 days can help reduce the risk of this complication. Aspirin is also an important treatment in this condition, used to reduce the risk of thrombosis.
In conclusion, KD is a rare but serious condition that can have severe consequences if not diagnosed and treated promptly. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the symptoms and to consider KD in children presenting with a prolonged fever and other associated symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man who is living in a hostel complains of a 2-week history of intense itching. Papules and burrows can be seen between his fingers.
What is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Permethrin 5% preparation
Explanation:Treatment Options for Scabies and Head Lice
Scabies is a skin condition characterized by intense itching and visible burrows in the finger webs. The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, which should be applied to all household members and followed by washing of bedding and towels. If permethrin cannot be used due to allergy, malathion 0.5% aqueous solution can be used as a second-line treatment. Benzyl benzoate 25% emulsion is an older treatment for scabies and has been replaced by more effective methods.
On the other hand, head lice can be treated with permethrin 1%, which is not strong enough for scabies treatment. It is important to note that ivermectin 200 ”g/kg orally is only used for crusted scabies, which causes a generalized rash with lots of scale. Topical permethrin remains the ideal treatment for scabies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine a skin lesion on their shoulder. The patient reports having noticed the lesion for a few years and that it has slowly been increasing in size. They mention having worked as a builder and property developer, resulting in significant sun exposure. On examination, you note an irregular pale red patch on the right shoulder measuring 6x4mm. The lesion has a slightly raised 'rolled' pearly edge and a small eroded area in the center. There is no surrounding inflammation, and the lesion doesn't feel indurated.
What is your plan for managing this patient's skin lesion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Routine referral to dermatology
Explanation:When a superficial basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is suspected, it is recommended to make a standard referral. This presentation is typical of BCC, which usually grows slowly and hardly ever spreads to other parts of the body. Dermatology referral is necessary in such cases. While Efudix and cryotherapy may be used as substitutes for excision in treating superficial BCC, it is important to seek the guidance of a dermatologist.
Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.
If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female is worried about the unsightly appearance of her toenails. She has noticed a whitish discoloration that extends up the nail bed in several toes on both feet. After confirming a dermatophyte infection, she has been diligently cutting her nails and applying topical amorolifine, but with no improvement. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical terbinafine
Explanation:Treatment for Fungal Nail Infection
If an adult has a confirmed fungal nail infection and self-care measures or topical treatment are not successful or appropriate, treatment with an oral antifungal agent should be offered. The first-line recommendation is Terbinafine because it is effective against both dermatophytes and Candida species. On the other hand, the ‘-azoles’ such as fluconazole do not have as much efficacy against dermatophytes. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the spread of infection and improve the appearance of the affected nail.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is concerned about her sister who is being tested for possible vulval cancer. She inquires about any initial indications.
How does vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) typically manifest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: VIN can present with vulval itching or burning or flat/slightly raised vulval skin lesions
Explanation:Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia, a type of skin lesion that can lead to squamous cell carcinoma, often presents with vulval skin lesions accompanied by burning and itching. While VIN can be asymptomatic, most women with this condition experience raised or flat discolored lesions on the labia majora, labia minora, and posterior fourchette in shades of brown, pink, or red.
Understanding Vulval Intraepithelial Neoplasia
Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN) is a condition that affects the skin of the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a pre-cancerous lesion that can lead to squamous skin cancer if left untreated. VIN is more common in women who are around 50 years old, and there are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing this condition.
One of the main risk factors for VIN is infection with human papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18. Other factors that can increase the risk of developing VIN include smoking, herpes simplex virus 2, and lichen planus. Symptoms of VIN may include itching and burning, as well as raised and well-defined skin lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with type-1 diabetes has observed an atypical lesion on the dorsum of his left hand. Upon examination, he presents with a solitary erythematous circular lesion that has a raised border. The lesion is not scaly.
What is the most probable diagnosis from the options provided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Granuloma annulare
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions: Granuloma Annulare, Necrobiosis Lipoidica, Fungal Infection, Scabies, and Erythema Multiforme
Granuloma Annulare is a skin condition that presents as groups of papules forming an arc or ring around a slightly depressed center. It is usually found on the dorsal surfaces of hands, feet, fingers, and extensor surfaces of arms and legs. The generalised form of this condition presents similar but bigger rings that are more widely disseminated. A subcutaneous form also exists that presents as nodules. Although an association with diabetes has been suggested, it is not always present. The local type is self-limiting and doesn’t require treatment, while a large number of treatments are described for the generalised form but have little evidence to support them.
Necrobiosis Lipoidica is another condition that occurs in patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus. It is characterised by firm, red-yellow plaques that occur over the shins. This condition may pre-date the development of diabetes by many years.
Fungal infections, such as tinea or ringworm, are epidermal conditions that produce scaling. On the other hand, scabies presents as crusted linear itchy lesions on the hands and web spaces, plus a generalised itchy nonspecific rash. Erythema Multiforme presents as multiple erythematous lesions with a darker or vesicular centre, particularly on the hands and feet.
In summary, these dermatological conditions have distinct presentations and require different treatments. It is important to seek medical advice for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a painful rash on his lower back that has been bothering him for the past 7 days. He had visited the doctor 4 days ago and was prescribed aciclovir for shingles, but the pain persists despite taking paracetamol, ibuprofen, codeine, and amitriptyline. The pain is described as a severe burning sensation with a mild itch, which is affecting his daily functioning and sleep.
During the examination, the man's temperature is recorded at 37ÂșC. The rash is located on the left lower back and is characterized by closely grouped red papules and vesicles with surrounding erythema.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this man's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:If simple analgesia and neuropathic analgesia are not effective in treating refractory pain in shingles, corticosteroids such as prednisolone can be used, but only for acute shingles. This is according to the NICE CKS guideline, which recommends considering oral corticosteroids in the first 2 weeks following rash onset in immunocompetent adults with localized shingles if the pain is severe, but only in combination with antiviral treatment. In the case of a patient who has been on antiviral treatment for seven days and has tried several analgesics without relief, a course of prednisolone would be an appropriate treatment option. Chlorphenamine, an antihistamine medication, may help alleviate itching symptoms but is not the most appropriate treatment option for severe pain. Flucloxacillin, an antibiotic, is not necessary unless there is evidence of co-existing cellulitis. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, has no role in shingles management. Morphine, an opioid medication, may be considered if the pain doesn’t respond to corticosteroids.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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