00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman is recuperating from a tibia fracture and has been wearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is recuperating from a tibia fracture and has been wearing a snug cast over the proximal knee for three weeks. She reports numbness over the lateral two-thirds of the outer leg. During a lower limb neurological examination, the junior doctor suspects injury to the common fibular nerve. Which muscle is expected to be unaffected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Fibularis tertius

      Correct Answer: Biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The short head of the biceps femoris muscle is supplied by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve, while the long head is innervated by the tibial branch of the sciatic nerve. Despite this, the biceps femoris can still perform knee flexion. The extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and fibularis tertius muscles are all innervated by the deep fibular nerve, which is a branch of the common fibular nerve. Weakness in toe extension and big-toe extension may occur due to damage to these muscles, while the fibularis tertius muscle is important for eversion of the foot during walking.

      The Biceps Femoris Muscle

      The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.

      On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A child is diagnosed with Klumpke's palsy after birth. What is the most...

    Correct

    • A child is diagnosed with Klumpke's palsy after birth. What is the most probable symptom that will be observed?

      Your Answer: Loss of flexors of the wrist

      Explanation:

      Klumpke’s paralysis is characterized by several features, including claw hand with extended MCP joints and flexed IP joints, loss of sensation over the medial aspect of the forearm and hand, Horner’s syndrome, and loss of flexors of the wrist. This condition is caused by a C8, T1 root lesion, which typically occurs during delivery when the arm is extended.

      Understanding the Brachial Plexus and Cutaneous Sensation of the Upper Limb

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the anterior rami of C5 to T1. It is divided into five sections: roots, trunks, divisions, cords, and branches. To remember these sections, a common mnemonic used is Real Teenagers Drink Cold Beer.

      The roots of the brachial plexus are located in the posterior triangle and pass between the scalenus anterior and medius muscles. The trunks are located posterior to the middle third of the clavicle, with the upper and middle trunks related superiorly to the subclavian artery. The lower trunk passes over the first rib posterior to the subclavian artery. The divisions of the brachial plexus are located at the apex of the axilla, while the cords are related to the axillary artery.

      The branches of the brachial plexus provide cutaneous sensation to the upper limb. This includes the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the posterior arm, forearm, and hand; the median nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger; and the ulnar nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the fifth finger and half of the ring finger.

      Understanding the brachial plexus and its branches is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper limb, such as nerve injuries and neuropathies. It also helps in understanding the cutaneous sensation of the upper limb and how it relates to the different nerves of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      25.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man undergoes carotid endarterectomy surgery after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man undergoes carotid endarterectomy surgery after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack. The procedure is successful with no complications. However, the patient develops new hoarseness of voice and loss of effective cough mechanism post-surgery. There are no notable findings upon examination of the oral cavity.

      Which structure has been affected by the surgery?

      Your Answer: Cranial nerve XII

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve X

      Explanation:

      Speech is innervated by the vagus (X) nerve, so any damage to this nerve can cause speech problems. Injuries to one side of the vagus nerve can result in hoarseness and vocal cord paralysis on the same side, while bilateral injuries can lead to aphonia and stridor. Other symptoms of vagal disease may include dysphagia, loss of cough reflex, gastroparesis, and cardiovascular effects. The facial nerve (VII) may also be affected during carotid surgery, causing muscle weakness in facial expression. However, the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) is not involved in speech and would not be damaged during carotid surgery. The accessory nerve (XI) does not innervate speech muscles and is rarely affected during carotid surgery, causing weakness in shoulder elevation instead. Hypoglossal (XII) palsy is a rare complication of carotid surgery that causes tongue deviation towards the side of the lesion, but not voice hoarseness.

      The vagus nerve is responsible for a variety of functions and supplies structures from the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches, as well as the fore and midgut sections of the embryonic gut tube. It carries afferent fibers from areas such as the pharynx, larynx, esophagus, stomach, lungs, heart, and great vessels. The efferent fibers of the vagus are of two main types: preganglionic parasympathetic fibers distributed to the parasympathetic ganglia that innervate smooth muscle of the innervated organs, and efferent fibers with direct skeletal muscle innervation, largely to the muscles of the larynx and pharynx.

      The vagus nerve arises from the lateral surface of the medulla oblongata and exits through the jugular foramen, closely related to the glossopharyngeal nerve cranially and the accessory nerve caudally. It descends vertically in the carotid sheath in the neck, closely related to the internal and common carotid arteries. In the mediastinum, both nerves pass posteroinferiorly and reach the posterior surface of the corresponding lung root, branching into both lungs. At the inferior end of the mediastinum, these plexuses reunite to form the formal vagal trunks that pass through the esophageal hiatus and into the abdomen. The anterior and posterior vagal trunks are formal nerve fibers that splay out once again, sending fibers over the stomach and posteriorly to the coeliac plexus. Branches pass to the liver, spleen, and kidney.

      The vagus nerve has various branches in the neck, including superior and inferior cervical cardiac branches, and the right recurrent laryngeal nerve, which arises from the vagus anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery and hooks under it to insert into the larynx. In the thorax, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus on the aortic arch and hooks around the inferior surface of the arch, passing upwards through the superior mediastinum and lower part of the neck. In the abdomen, the nerves branch extensively, passing to the coeliac axis and alongside the vessels to supply the spleen, liver, and kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old man has an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest and is pronounced dead at...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man has an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest and is pronounced dead at the scene. A post-mortem examination is carried out to determine the cause of death, which demonstrates 90% stenosis of the left anterior descending artery.

      What is the ultimate stage in the development of this stenosis?

      Your Answer: Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima

      Explanation:

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the endocrine condition that is linked to low blood sugar levels?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the endocrine condition that is linked to low blood sugar levels?

      Your Answer: Glucagon excess

      Correct Answer: Hypoadrenalism

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemia in Adults

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition where the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level, which is around <4 mmol/L for adults. This condition can be caused by various endocrine factors such as hypoadrenalism, growth hormone deficiency, glucagon deficiency, and hypothyroidism. However, the most common cause of hypoglycaemia in adults is medication for diabetes, particularly insulin or sulphonylureas. Symptoms of hypoglycaemia are caused by sympathetic activity and disrupted central nervous system function due to inadequate glucose. These symptoms include tremors, sweating, nausea, lightheadedness, hunger, and disorientation. Severe hypoglycaemia can cause confusion, aggressive behaviour, and reduced consciousness. Mild hypoglycaemia is common during fasting, pregnancy, and minor illness. Apart from medication and endocrine factors, other causes of hypoglycaemia in adults include non-diabetic drugs, alcohol, hepatic failure, critical illness, hormone deficiency, malignancy, insulinoma, non-insulinoma pancreatogenous hypoglycaemia syndrome (NIPHS), and bariatric surgery. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypoglycaemia to provide appropriate treatment. In summary, hypoglycaemia is a condition where the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level. It can be caused by various factors, including medication, endocrine factors, and other medical conditions. Recognizing the symptoms and identifying the underlying cause is crucial in managing hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 78-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after his wife found him...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after his wife found him unresponsive this morning. According to her, he fell out of bed and hit his head on the bedside table during the night. Upon examination, the man responds to pain but not to voice. A CT scan of his head reveals an extradural hematoma, which is often caused by a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. What is the source of the middle meningeal artery?

      Your Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Correct Answer: Maxillary artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery, which is one of two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. It supplies the dura and skin of the anterior face. Other branches of the maxillary artery include the inferior alveolar artery, buccal artery, deep temporal artery, and sphenopalatine artery. Extradural haemorrhage, which is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull, is commonly caused by rupture of the middle meningeal artery following head trauma.

      The Middle Meningeal Artery: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery, which is one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. It is the largest of the three arteries that supply the meninges, the outermost layer of the brain. The artery runs through the foramen spinosum and supplies the dura mater. It is located beneath the pterion, where the skull is thin, making it vulnerable to injury. Rupture of the artery can lead to an Extradural hematoma.

      In the dry cranium, the middle meningeal artery creates a deep indentation in the calvarium. It is intimately associated with the auriculotemporal nerve, which wraps around the artery. This makes the two structures easily identifiable in the dissection of human cadavers and also easily damaged in surgery.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the middle meningeal artery is important for medical professionals, particularly those involved in neurosurgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 19-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a non-blanching rash and...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a non-blanching rash and decreased level of consciousness. Following a normal CT head, a lumbar puncture is required for culture collection. What is the most suitable level for needle insertion?

      Your Answer: L3/L4

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord in adults ends at the level of L1, with the remaining nerves below that forming the cauda equina. During fetal development, the spinal cord runs the entire length of the spine but regresses as the body grows.

      When performing a lumbar puncture to obtain cerebrospinal fluid, it is crucial to avoid injuring the spinal cord. Therefore, the procedure is typically done at the level of L3/4, which is below the termination of the spinal cord. The cauda equina, being a bundle of mobile nerves, can be moved aside by the needle during the procedure.

      Performing a lumbar puncture at T10-T12 is too high and carries the risk of spinal cord injury. On the other hand, L1/L2 is dangerously close to the spinal cord and also carries unnecessary risk. Therefore, L3/L4 is the appropriate level for a lumbar puncture, which can be estimated by palpating the posterior superior iliac crests.

      Lumbar Puncture Procedure

      Lumbar puncture is a medical procedure that involves obtaining cerebrospinal fluid. In adults, the procedure is typically performed at the L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace, which is located below the spinal cord’s termination at L1.

      During the procedure, the needle passes through several layers. First, it penetrates the supraspinous ligament, which connects the tips of spinous processes. Then, it passes through the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes. Next, the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, which may cause a give. Finally, the needle passes through the dura mater into the subarachnoid space, which is marked by a second give. At this point, clear cerebrospinal fluid should be obtained.

      Overall, the lumbar puncture procedure is a complex process that requires careful attention to detail. By following the proper steps and guidelines, medical professionals can obtain cerebrospinal fluid safely and effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man with multiple sclerosis is prescribed baclofen by your consultant to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with multiple sclerosis is prescribed baclofen by your consultant to treat muscle spasms.

      What is the mechanism of action of baclofen?

      Your Answer: NMDA receptor antagonist

      Correct Answer: GABA receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Baclofen is a medication that is commonly prescribed to alleviate muscle spasticity in individuals with conditions like multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, and spinal cord injuries. It works by acting as an agonist of GABA receptors in the central nervous system, which includes both the brain and spinal cord. Essentially, this means that baclofen helps to enhance the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA, which can help to reduce the activity of certain neurons and ultimately lead to a reduction in muscle spasticity. Overall, baclofen is an important medication for individuals with these conditions, as it can help to improve their quality of life and reduce the impact of muscle spasticity on their daily activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old male comes to the emergency department with sudden onset left sided...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old male comes to the emergency department with sudden onset left sided hemiparesis and speech difficulties. There is no sensory loss. During the examination, you observe weakness in the left upper limb. Although she nods to indicate understanding, her responses are slow and difficult. You suspect a stroke.

      What is the most probable location of the lesion in the brain?

      Your Answer: Inferior frontal gyrus

      Explanation:

      Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, leading to non-fluent and laboured speech. On the other hand, Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior frontal gyrus, resulting in fluent but nonsensical speech. The arcuate fasciculus connects these two areas, and a lesion in this connection can cause fluent speech with poor repetition. A lesion in the primary motor cortex causes contralateral motor deficits, while a lesion in the cerebellum results in slurred speech, horizontal nystagmus, intention tremors, and an ataxic gait.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - In a patient with a carcinoma of the proximal sigmoid colon, what is...

    Correct

    • In a patient with a carcinoma of the proximal sigmoid colon, what is the most probable origin of its vascular supply?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      When performing a high anterior resection for these types of tumors, it is necessary to ligate the inferior mesenteric artery. However, it is important to note that the internal iliac artery’s branches, particularly the middle rectal branch, play a crucial role in preserving blood flow to the rectal stump and ensuring the anastomoses’ integrity.

      Anatomy of the Rectum

      The rectum is a capacitance organ that measures approximately 12 cm in length. It consists of both intra and extraperitoneal components, with the transition from the sigmoid colon marked by the disappearance of the tenia coli. The extra peritoneal rectum is surrounded by mesorectal fat that contains lymph nodes, which are removed during rectal cancer surgery. The fascial layers that surround the rectum are important clinical landmarks, with the fascia of Denonvilliers located anteriorly and Waldeyers fascia located posteriorly.

      In males, the rectum is adjacent to the rectovesical pouch, bladder, prostate, and seminal vesicles, while in females, it is adjacent to the recto-uterine pouch (Douglas), cervix, and vaginal wall. Posteriorly, the rectum is in contact with the sacrum, coccyx, and middle sacral artery, while laterally, it is adjacent to the levator ani and coccygeus muscles.

      The superior rectal artery supplies blood to the rectum, while the superior rectal vein drains it. Mesorectal lymph nodes located superior to the dentate line drain into the internal iliac and then para-aortic nodes, while those located inferior to the dentate line drain into the inguinal nodes. Understanding the anatomy of the rectum is crucial for surgical procedures and the diagnosis and treatment of rectal diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old man experiences septic shock after undergoing a Hartmans procedure for perforated...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man experiences septic shock after undergoing a Hartmans procedure for perforated diverticular disease. He is initiated on an adrenaline drip. What is the least probable outcome?

      Your Answer: Gluconeogenesis

      Correct Answer: Coronary artery vasospasm

      Explanation:

      The β 1 receptors mediate its cardiac effects, while the β 2 receptors in the coronary arteries remain unaffected.

      Understanding Adrenaline and Its Effects on the Body

      Adrenaline is a hormone that is responsible for the body’s fight or flight response. It is released by the adrenal glands and acts on both alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. Adrenaline has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle.

      Adrenaline also has different actions on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors. It inhibits insulin secretion by the pancreas and stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver and muscle through alpha receptors. On the other hand, it stimulates glucagon secretion in the pancreas, ACTH, and lipolysis by adipose tissue through beta receptors. Adrenaline also acts on beta 2 receptors in skeletal muscle vessels, causing vasodilation.

      Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest. The recommended adult life support adrenaline doses for anaphylaxis are 0.5ml 1:1,000 IM, while for cardiac arrest, it is 10ml 1:10,000 IV or 1ml of 1:1000 IV. However, accidental injection of adrenaline can occur, and in such cases, local infiltration of phentolamine is recommended.

      In conclusion, adrenaline is a hormone that plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress. It has various effects on the body, including increasing cardiac output and total peripheral resistance, causing vasoconstriction in the skin and kidneys, and stimulating glycogenolysis and glycolysis in the liver and muscle. Adrenaline is used in emergency situations such as anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest, and accidental injection can be managed through local infiltration of phentolamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      28.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A newly diagnosed patient with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is about to begin...

    Incorrect

    • A newly diagnosed patient with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is about to begin treatment. What would be a favorable prognostic factor for this individual?

      Your Answer: Performance status 3

      Correct Answer: Acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APML) subtype

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors in Acute Myeloid Leukemia

      Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. The APML subtype of AML has a higher five-year survival rate of 70% compared to the average rate of 25%. However, it is a medical emergency upon presentation due to the risk of coagulopathy, tumor lysis, and life-threatening infections. Urgent treatment with ATRA chemotherapy is necessary. Younger patients tend to have a better prognosis and can tolerate intensive chemotherapy better. Certain cytogenetic changes, such as t(15;17) in APML and t(8;21) and inv(16), are associated with a favorable prognosis. However, complex cytogenetics are not. A performance status of 3, which indicates that an individual spends more than 50% of the day in bed, is not ideal for intensive chemotherapy. AML that arises from a pre-existing condition, such as a myeloproliferative neoplasm, has a worse prognosis than AML that arises de novo.

      Overall, the prognostic factors in AML is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment plan and predicting outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old female visits her GP complaining of weight loss, fatigue, and night...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female visits her GP complaining of weight loss, fatigue, and night sweats that have been ongoing for the past 2 months. During the examination, the GP discovers cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. The patient is referred to the hospital for further investigation, which includes a biopsy of her cervical lymph nodes.

      The biopsy report reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. These cells belong to the same lineage as which of the following cells?

      Your Answer: Monocytes

      Correct Answer: NK cells

      Explanation:

      Common lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to NK cells, as well as B-cells and T-cells. The biopsy of the patient in this case reveals Reed-Sternberg cells, indicating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a cancer of B-cells. Platelets, monocytes, basophils, and erythrocytes, on the other hand, are derived from common myeloid progenitor cells.

      Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells

      Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.

      The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.

      This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      105.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 55-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with his wife. Upon speaking...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with his wife. Upon speaking with him, you observe that he has non-fluent haltering speech. His wife reports that he has been experiencing alterations in his sense of smell.

      Which region of the brain is the most probable site of damage?

      Your Answer: Parietal lobe

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      Anosmia, a partial or complete loss of sense of smell, may be caused by lesions in the frontal lobe. Additionally, these lesions can result in Broca’s aphasia, which causes non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Lesions in the temporal lobe can lead to superior homonymous quadrantanopia, while lesions in the parietal lobe can cause sensory inattention. Lesions in the occipital lobe can affect vision, and lesions in the cerebellum can cause intention tremor, ataxia, and dysdiadochokinesia.

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 26-year-old woman suddenly collapses following a wasp sting. Upon reaching her, you...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman suddenly collapses following a wasp sting. Upon reaching her, you observe significant swelling in her face and a noticeable wheezing sound. Anaphylaxis is suspected. Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is commonly linked to this type of reaction?

      Your Answer: Ig E

      Explanation:

      The correct answer for the mediator of type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, such as anaphylaxis, is IgE.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which one of the following structures lies posterior to the femoral nerve in...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following structures lies posterior to the femoral nerve in the femoral triangle?

      Your Answer: Iliacus

      Explanation:

      The femoral nerve is located in front of the iliacus muscle within the femoral triangle. Meanwhile, the iliacus and pectineus muscles are situated behind the femoral sheath.

      The femoral nerve is a nerve that originates from the spinal roots L2, L3, and L4. It provides innervation to several muscles in the thigh, including the pectineus, sartorius, quadriceps femoris, and vastus lateralis, medialis, and intermedius. Additionally, it branches off into the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, and intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The femoral nerve passes through the psoas major muscle and exits the pelvis by going under the inguinal ligament. It then enters the femoral triangle, which is located lateral to the femoral artery and vein.

      To remember the femoral nerve’s supply, a helpful mnemonic is don’t MISVQ scan for PE. This stands for the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, vastus, quadriceps femoris, and sartorius, with the addition of the pectineus muscle. Overall, the femoral nerve plays an important role in the motor and sensory functions of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old female presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and dyspareunia. After an abnormal...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old female presents with abnormal vaginal bleeding and dyspareunia. After an abnormal smear test, she receives her colposcopy results indicating cervical malignancy. The gynaecologist refers her for a PET scan to determine if the cancer has spread to her lymph nodes. Which lymph nodes are typically the first to be affected if the cancer has spread?

      Your Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes

      Correct Answer: Internal and external iliac lymph nodes

      Explanation:

      The lymphatic drainage of the cervix is important to consider in cases of cervical cancer. The cervix drains into three main channels: the external and internal iliac lymph nodes, the obturator and presacral lymph nodes, and the nodes along the uterine arteries. The initial nodes to be involved in cervical cancer would be the internal and external iliac lymph nodes. The caval lymph nodes, cisterna chyli, inferior inguinal lymph nodes, and para-aortic lymph nodes are not the initial sites of spread for cervical cancer.

      Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs

      The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient complains of anxiety and weight loss. During the examination, a fine tremor of the outstretched hands, lid lag, and a moderate goitre with a bruit are observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hashimoto's thyroiditis

      Correct Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders and their Differentiation

      Thyroid disorders are a common occurrence, and their diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. One such disorder is Graves’ disease, which is characterized by a goitre with a bruit. Unlike MNG, Graves’ disease is associated with angiogenesis and thyroid follicular hypertrophy. Other signs of Graves’ disease include eye signs such as conjunctival oedema, exophthalmos, and proptosis. Additionally, pretibial myxoedema is a dermatological manifestation of this disease.

      DeQuervain’s thyroiditis is another thyroid disorder that follows a viral infection and is characterized by painful thyroiditis. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, on the other hand, is a chronic autoimmune degradation of the thyroid. Multinodular goitre (MNG) is the most common form of thyroid disorder, leading to the formation of multiple nodules over the gland. Lastly, a toxic thyroid nodule is a solitary lesion on the thyroid that produces excess thyroxine.

      In conclusion, the different types of thyroid disorders and their symptoms is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man has recently undergone parotidectomy on his left side due to...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man has recently undergone parotidectomy on his left side due to a malignant parotid gland tumor. He has been back on the surgical ward for a few hours when he reports feeling weakness on the left side of his mouth. Upon examination, you observe facial asymmetry and weakness on the left side. He is unable to hold air under pressure in his mouth and cannot raise his left lip to show his teeth. This complication is likely due to damage to which nerve?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve and innervates the muscles of facial expression. It runs through the parotid gland and can be injured during parotidectomy. The maxillary nerve is the second division of the trigeminal nerve and carries sensory fibres from the lower eyelid, cheeks, upper teeth, palate, nasal cavity, and paranasal sinuses. The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve and has various functions, including carrying taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue and supplying parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland. The mandibular nerve is the third division of the trigeminal nerve and carries sensory and motor fibres, supplying motor innervation to the muscles of mastication. The hypoglossal nerve is the twelfth cranial nerve and supplies the intrinsic muscles of the tongue.

      The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.

      The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      26.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 47-year-old man is under the care of an ophthalmologist for open angle...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is under the care of an ophthalmologist for open angle glaucoma. He visits his GP to express his worries about the medication prescribed after reading online information. What is the medication that the ophthalmologist has prescribed, which can function as a diuretic by acting on the proximal convoluted tubule of the kidney?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic)

      Correct Answer: Acetazolamide (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor)

      Explanation:

      Diuretic drugs are classified into three major categories based on the location where they inhibit sodium reabsorption. Loop diuretics act on the thick ascending loop of Henle, thiazide diuretics on the distal tubule and connecting segment, and potassium sparing diuretics on the aldosterone-sensitive principal cells in the cortical collecting tubule. Sodium is reabsorbed in the kidney through Na+/K+ ATPase pumps located on the basolateral membrane, which return reabsorbed sodium to the circulation and maintain low intracellular sodium levels. This ensures a constant concentration gradient.

      The physiological effects of commonly used diuretics vary based on their site of action. furosemide, a loop diuretic, inhibits the Na+/K+/2Cl- carrier in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle and can result in up to 25% of filtered sodium being excreted. Thiazide diuretics, which act on the distal tubule and connecting segment, inhibit the Na+Cl- carrier and typically result in between 3 and 5% of filtered sodium being excreted. Finally, spironolactone, a potassium sparing diuretic, inhibits the Na+/K+ ATPase pump in the cortical collecting tubule and typically results in between 1 and 2% of filtered sodium being excreted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 25-year-old man is scheduled for cardiac catheterisation to repair a possible atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is scheduled for cardiac catheterisation to repair a possible atrial septal defect. What is the typical oxygen saturation level in the right atrium for a person in good health?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Oxygen Saturation Levels in Cardiac Catheterisation

      Cardiac catheterisation and oxygen saturation levels can be confusing, but with a few basic rules and logical deduction, it can be easily understood. Deoxygenated blood returns to the right side of the heart through the superior and inferior vena cava with an oxygen saturation level of around 70%. The right atrium, right ventricle, and pulmonary artery also have oxygen saturation levels of around 70%. The lungs oxygenate the blood to a level of around 98-100%, resulting in the left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta having oxygen saturation levels of 98-100%.

      Different scenarios can affect oxygen saturation levels. For instance, in an atrial septal defect (ASD), the oxygenated blood in the left atrium mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right atrium, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right atrium onwards. In a ventricular septal defect (VSD), the oxygenated blood in the left ventricle mixes with the deoxygenated blood in the right ventricle, resulting in intermediate levels of oxygenation from the right ventricle onwards. In a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), the higher pressure aorta connects with the lower pressure pulmonary artery, resulting in only the pulmonary artery having intermediate oxygenation levels.

      Understanding the expected oxygen saturation levels in different scenarios can help in diagnosing and treating cardiac conditions. The table above shows the oxygen saturation levels that would be expected in different diagnoses, including VSD with Eisenmenger’s and ASD with Eisenmenger’s. By understanding these levels, healthcare professionals can provide better care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor gene? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor gene?

      Your Answer: APC

      Correct Answer: myc

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tumour Suppressor Genes

      Tumour suppressor genes are responsible for controlling the cell cycle and preventing the development of cancer. When these genes lose their function, the risk of cancer increases. It is important to note that both alleles of the gene must be mutated before cancer can occur. Examples of tumour suppressor genes include p53, APC, BRCA1 & BRCA2, NF1, Rb, WT1, and MTS-1. Each of these genes is associated with specific types of cancer, and their loss of function can lead to an increased risk of developing these cancers.

      On the other hand, oncogenes are genes that, when they gain function, can also increase the risk of cancer. Unlike tumour suppressor genes, oncogenes promote cell growth and division, leading to uncontrolled cell growth and the development of cancer. Understanding the role of both tumour suppressor genes and oncogenes is crucial in the development of cancer treatments and prevention strategies. By identifying and targeting these genes, researchers can work towards developing more effective treatments for cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following illnesses is not regarded as a risk factor for...

    Correct

    • Which of the following illnesses is not regarded as a risk factor for stomach cancer?

      Your Answer: Long term therapy with H2 blockers

      Explanation:

      Currently, the use of H2 blockers does not appear to increase the risk of gastric cancer, unlike certain acid lowering procedures that do.

      Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon type of cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over the age of 75, and is more common in males than females. Several risk factors have been identified, including Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, certain dietary habits, smoking, and blood group. Symptoms of gastric cancer can include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. In some cases, lymphatic spread may result in the appearance of nodules in the left supraclavicular lymph node or periumbilical area. Diagnosis is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy, and staging is done using CT. Treatment options depend on the extent and location of the cancer and may include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial or total gastrectomy, and chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 62-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of discomfort in his right upper quadrant. He has no prior hospital visits and generally enjoys good health. Recently retired from his job as a machinist in a PVC factory, he is concerned about his symptoms. A CT scan reveals an irregular tumor in the right lobe of his liver. What type of lesion is most probable?

      Your Answer: Hydatid liver disease

      Correct Answer: Angiosarcoma

      Explanation:

      Angiosarcoma of the liver is a tumor that is not commonly found. However, it has been associated with exposure to vinyl chloride, as seen in this instance. While current factories have taken measures to reduce exposure to this substance, this was not always the case.

      Occupational cancers are responsible for 5.3% of cancer deaths, with men being more affected than women. The most common types of cancer in men include mesothelioma, bladder cancer, non-melanoma skin cancer, lung cancer, and sino-nasal cancer. Occupations that have a high risk of developing tumors include those in the construction industry, coal tar and pitch workers, miners, metalworkers, asbestos workers, and those in the rubber industry. Shift work has also been linked to breast cancer in women.

      The latency period between exposure to carcinogens and the development of cancer is typically 15 years for solid tumors and 20 years for leukemia. Many occupational cancers are rare, such as sino-nasal cancer, which is linked to wood dust exposure and is not strongly associated with smoking. Another rare occupational tumor is angiosarcoma of the liver, which is linked to working with vinyl chloride. In non-occupational contexts, these tumors are extremely rare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department following an unobserved fall. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department following an unobserved fall. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation.

      During his lying and standing blood pressure test, there is a 30mmHg decrease, indicating postural hypotension.

      To increase his blood pressure, the emergency department administers an anti-hypotensive medication.

      Which receptor does the drug act on?

      Your Answer: α2 adrenergic receptors

      Correct Answer: α1 adrenergic receptors

      Explanation:

      The contraction of smooth muscle in blood vessels is controlled by α1 adrenergic receptors, which are responsible for vasoconstriction in peripheral blood vessels. α2 receptors, located on presynaptic nerves, regulate the release of neurotransmitters. β1 receptors in the heart increase inotropy and chronotropy, while β2 receptors in smooth muscle promote bronchodilation and vasodilation. β3 receptors in fat tissue stimulate lipolysis and thermogenesis.

      Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - When administering blood transfusions, certain patients may necessitate irradiated blood components to avoid...

    Incorrect

    • When administering blood transfusions, certain patients may necessitate irradiated blood components to avoid the development of transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GvHD).

      What distinguishes this specific blood product from standard blood products in terms of preventing TA-GvHD?

      Your Answer: They are depleted in B-lymphocytes

      Correct Answer: They are depleted in T-lymphocytes

      Explanation:

      Irradiated blood products are utilized because they have been stripped of T-lymphocytes, which can trigger severe reactions and even death if recognized as foreign agents by the host. This special requirement is particularly necessary for patients who are vulnerable to TA-GvHD, such as those with immune deficiencies or Hodgkin’s lymphoma. On the other hand, CMV negative blood products are used to minimize the risk of CMV transmission in neonates or immunocompromised individuals. In some cases, washed blood products may be ordered for patients who experience recurrent severe allergic transfusion reactions or urticarial reactions that are not prevented by pre-transfusion antihistamine and corticosteroid administration. It is important to note that the depletion of B-lymphocytes is not a primary reason for using irradiated blood products, and there is no evidence that irradiation reduces the risk of TA-GvHD by depleting eosinophil count.

      CMV Negative and Irradiated Blood Products

      Blood products that are CMV negative and irradiated are used in specific situations to prevent certain complications. CMV is a virus that is transmitted through leucocytes, but as most blood products are now leucocyte depleted, CMV negative products are not often needed. However, in situations where CMV transmission is a concern, such as in granulocyte transfusions, intra-uterine transfusions, neonates up to 28 days post expected date of delivery, bone marrow/stem cell transplants, immunocompromised patients, and those with/previous Hodgkin lymphoma, CMV negative blood products are used.

      On the other hand, irradiated blood products are depleted of T-lymphocytes and are used to prevent transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD) caused by engraftment of viable donor T lymphocytes. Irradiated blood products are used in situations such as granulocyte transfusions, intra-uterine transfusions, neonates up to 28 days post expected date of delivery, bone marrow/stem cell transplants, and in patients who have received chemotherapy or have congenital immunodeficiencies.

      In summary, CMV negative and irradiated blood products are used in specific situations to prevent complications related to CMV transmission and TA-GVHD. The use of these blood products is determined based on the patient’s medical history and condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 79-year-old man presents to a heart failure clinic with worsening peripheral oedema...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents to a heart failure clinic with worsening peripheral oedema and seeks advice on potential treatment options. The patient has a medical history of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction and chronic kidney disease. His current medication regimen includes ramipril, bisoprolol, atorvastatin, and furosemide.

      The patient's laboratory results show a sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135 - 145), potassium level of 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), bicarbonate level of 24 mmol/L (22 - 29), urea level of 7.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), creatinine level of 132 µmol/L (55 - 120), and an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 53 ml/min/1.73m2 (>60).

      What adjustments should be made to the patient's furosemide treatment?

      Your Answer: Stop immediately

      Correct Answer: Increase the dose

      Explanation:

      To ensure sufficient concentration of loop diuretics within the tubules, patients with poor renal function may require increased doses. This is because loop diuretics, such as furosemide, work by inhibiting the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle, which reduces the absorption of NaCl. As these diuretics work on the apical membrane, they must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Therefore, increasing the dose can help achieve the desired concentration within the tubules. The other options, such as changing to amlodipine, keeping the dose the same, or stopping immediately, are not appropriate in this scenario.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A middle-aged woman expresses concerns about her baby not receiving enough blood supply....

    Correct

    • A middle-aged woman expresses concerns about her baby not receiving enough blood supply. Her physician assures her that her blood volume will rise during pregnancy, resulting in a sufficient blood supply for her baby. What is the cause of this increased blood volume?

      Your Answer: Renin-angiotensin system

      Explanation:

      The renin-angiotensin system is responsible for increasing plasma volume by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin 2, which causes vasoconstriction and fluid retention. While increased ADH could theoretically raise plasma volume, it typically maintains the hypothalamic plasma volume set-point and reduces micturition rate, which is not consistent with pregnancy. Conversely, decreased ADH could increase micturition and decrease plasma volume. It is important to note that decreased GFR is not a factor in increasing plasma volume during pregnancy, as it actually increases.

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A study is conducted to evaluate the association between gender and systolic blood...

    Correct

    • A study is conducted to evaluate the association between gender and systolic blood pressure. Which of the following statements about calculating the correlation coefficient, r, is not accurate?

      Your Answer: May be used to predict systolic blood pressure for a given age

      Explanation:

      Systolic blood pressure can be predicted using linear regression in this scenario.

      Understanding Correlation and Linear Regression

      Correlation and linear regression are two statistical methods used to analyze the relationship between variables. While they are related, they are not interchangeable. Correlation is used to determine if there is a relationship between two variables, while regression is used to predict the value of one variable based on the value of another variable.

      The degree of correlation is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can range from -1 to +1. A coefficient of 1 indicates a strong positive correlation, while a coefficient of -1 indicates a strong negative correlation. A coefficient of 0 indicates no correlation between the variables. However, correlation coefficients do not provide information on how much the variable will change or the cause and effect relationship between the variables.

      Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable will change when another variable is changed. A regression equation can be formed to calculate the value of the dependent variable based on the value of the independent variable. The equation takes the form of y = a + bx, where y is the dependent variable, a is the intercept value, b is the slope of the line or regression coefficient, and x is the independent variable.

      In summary, correlation and linear regression are both useful tools for analyzing the relationship between variables. Correlation determines if there is a relationship, while regression predicts the value of one variable based on the value of another variable. Understanding these concepts can help in making informed decisions and drawing accurate conclusions from data analysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 44-year-old heavy smoker presents with a productive cough and progressively worsening shortness...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old heavy smoker presents with a productive cough and progressively worsening shortness of breath on exertion. The patient's spirometry results are forwarded to you in clinic for review.

      Tidal volume (TV) = 400 mL.
      Vital capacity (VC) = 3,300 mL.
      Inspiratory capacity (IC) = 2,600 mL.
      FEV1/FVC = 60%

      Body plethysmography is undertaken, demonstrating a residual volume (RV) of 1,200 mL.

      What is this patient's total lung capacity (TLC)?

      Your Answer: 4,500 mL

      Explanation:

      To calculate the total lung capacity, one can add the vital capacity and residual volume. For example, if the vital capacity is 3300 mL and the residual volume is 1200 mL, the total lung capacity would be 4500 mL. It is important to note that tidal volume, inspiratory capacity, and the FEV1/FVC ratio are other measurements related to lung function. Residual volume refers to the amount of air left in the lungs after a maximal exhalation, while total lung capacity refers to the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inhalation.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      109.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Mrs Green is admitted via the emergency department and found to have a...

    Correct

    • Mrs Green is admitted via the emergency department and found to have a large liver abscess. She undergoes CT guided aspiration and the fluid is sent off for analysis. Initial microscopy demonstrates a large population of neutrophils.

      Which of the following cytokines is likely to have been responsible for this cell infiltration?

      Your Answer: Interleukin-8

      Explanation:

      Interleukins (IL) are cytokines that have various important roles in the immune system. One such IL is IL-8, which is produced by macrophages and is responsible for the chemotaxis of neutrophils. This is crucial in the acute inflammatory response, as neutrophils are recruited to areas of inflammation.

      Another important IL is IL-2, which is produced by T helper 1 cells and stimulates the growth and development of various immune cells, including T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells. This makes it essential for fighting infections.

      IL-4, produced by T helper 2 cells, activates B cells and can also induce the differentiation of CD4+ T cells into T helper 2 cells. It plays a crucial role in dealing with infections.

      IL-5, also produced by T helper 2 cells, primarily stimulates the production of eosinophils.

      Finally, IL-10 is produced by both macrophages and T helper 2 cells. It is an anti-inflammatory cytokine that inhibits cytokine production from T helper 1 cells.

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      24.2
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the infectious diseases clinic with a recent diagnosis of HIV. She reports feeling healthy and has no significant medical history. Her CD4 count is 300 cells/µL and viral load is 25,000 copies/mL.

      What is the optimal timing for initiating antiretroviral therapy?

      Your Answer: At the time of diagnosis

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral therapy should be initiated immediately upon diagnosis of HIV, regardless of the CD4 count, according to the BNF. Waiting for symptoms to appear before starting treatment is not recommended, as symptoms may indicate a need to adjust the antiretroviral therapy. A CD4 count of less than 200 cells/µL indicates that HIV has progressed to AIDS. Previously, a CD4 count of less than 500 was recommended for starting treatment, but this is no longer the case. The viral load is primarily used to monitor the response to antiretroviral therapy, with the goal of achieving an undetectable level.

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 69 year old patient is admitted to the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 69 year old patient is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected digoxin overdose. The individual has a medical history of hypertension, hyperthyroidism, atrial fibrillation, and eczema. The ECG reveals sinus bradycardia. The medical team administers IV digibind and implements measures to safeguard the heart against any electrolyte imbalances.

      What is the correct application of digoxin in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Digoxin causes a decrease in intracellular calcium by inhibiting Na+/K+ ATPase

      Correct Answer: Digoxin overdose can cause hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia can be caused by an overdose of digoxin.

      Digoxin is known to inhibit the Na+/K+ ATPase, which is responsible for transporting sodium ions out of cells and promoting potassium influx. This inhibition leads to an accumulation of sodium inside the cell, which is then exchanged for calcium via the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger. In the heart, this increased intracellular calcium results in more calcium being released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum, making more calcium available to bind to troponin-C and increasing contractility (inotropy).

      However, an overdose of digoxin can cause widespread inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase, leading to reduced potassium influx into cells and resulting in hyperkalaemia. This is a common occurrence in cases of acute digoxin toxicity.

      In addition, digoxin has been found to increase vagal efferent activity to the heart, which has a parasympathomimetic effect and reduces the firing rate of the sinoatrial node, resulting in a decrease in heart rate (negative chronotropy).

      It is important to note that digoxin has a long half-life of 40 hours.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.

      Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.

      If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone does not determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - In which part of the gastrointestinal system is water mainly taken up? ...

    Correct

    • In which part of the gastrointestinal system is water mainly taken up?

      Your Answer: Small intestine

      Explanation:

      The Function of the Large Intestine

      Although many people believe that the primary function of the large intestine is to absorb water, this is not entirely accurate. In fact, the majority of water and fluids that are ingested or secreted are actually reabsorbed in the small intestine, which is located before the large intestine in the digestive tract. While the large intestine does play a role in absorbing some water and electrolytes, its primary function is to store and eliminate waste products from the body. This is achieved through the formation of feces, which are then eliminated through the rectum and anus. Overall, while the large intestine is an important part of the digestive system, its function is more complex than simply absorbing water.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - What is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the rate limiting step in glycolysis?...

    Correct

    • What is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the rate limiting step in glycolysis?

      Your Answer: Phosphofructokinase

      Explanation:

      The Rate Limiting Step of Glycolysis

      The conversion of fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 1,6,bisphosphate is the main rate limiting step of the glycolysis pathway. This conversion is catalysed by the enzyme phosphofructokinase in the presence of ATP. However, excessive cellular concentrations of ATP can inhibit the activity of phosphofructokinase. This inhibition encourages the storage of excess glucose as glycogen instead of making excessive ATP in times of abundance. On the other hand, when there is cellular abundance of ATP but it is undergoing rapid degradation to AMP, the rising levels of AMP reduce the effect of high concentrations of ATP on the inhibition of the enzyme. Although several other steps in the glycolysis pathway are under control or inhibition in times of cellular ATP abundance or due to an accumulation of the products of glycolysis, phosphofructokinase is considered the main rate limiting step of glycolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - What is the function of aldosterone in the kidney? ...

    Correct

    • What is the function of aldosterone in the kidney?

      Your Answer: Retain sodium and excrete potassium

      Explanation:

      The Role of Aldosterone in Sodium and Potassium Balance

      Aldosterone is a hormone that plays a crucial role in regulating the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. It is the final stage of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis, which is triggered by reduced flow to the kidneys. The main function of aldosterone is to retain sodium at the expense of potassium. This helps to increase fluid volume by retaining water, which is important for maintaining blood pressure and electrolyte balance.

      To maintain electrochemical balance, potassium has to be excreted to retain sodium. This means that when aldosterone levels are high, the body will excrete more potassium in the urine. Conversely, when aldosterone levels are low, the body will retain more potassium and excrete more sodium. This delicate balance is essential for proper functioning of the body’s cells and organs.

      In summary, aldosterone is a hormone that helps to regulate the balance of sodium and potassium in the body. It is triggered by reduced flow to the kidneys and works to retain sodium at the expense of potassium. This helps to increase fluid volume and maintain electrolyte balance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 67-year-old widower is brought to the acute psychiatric ward due to treatment-resistant...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old widower is brought to the acute psychiatric ward due to treatment-resistant severe depression. Upon physical examination, the patient displays slow movements and rigid limbs. Their body is bent, and they have a sad expression on their face with slow speech. All tests show no evidence of organic disorder, and the patient is not taking any psychotropic medication. What term best describes this presentation?

      Your Answer: Catatonia

      Correct Answer: Psychomotor retardation

      Explanation:

      Psychomotor Retardation in Depression

      Psychomotor retardation is a common manifestation of depression, characterized by slow movement, speech, and rigidity in limbs. Patients may also exhibit a bent body posture and feelings of emptiness and hopelessness. It is crucial to rule out other potential causes, such as medication side effects or neurological disorders like Parkinson’s disease.

      In severe cases, psychomotor retardation can progress to catatonia, where the patient is unresponsive to external stimuli despite being awake. It is essential to recognize and address these symptoms promptly to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. By the signs and symptoms of psychomotor retardation, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care and support to individuals experiencing depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 10-year-old girl is brought in by her father as she is having...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought in by her father as she is having an acute exacerbation of her asthma. While you are giving her a salbutamol nebuliser, you notice signs that make you suspicious of abuse. What is the most common form of child abuse?

      Your Answer: Neglect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Child Abuse and the Legal Framework for Child Protection

      Child abuse is a serious issue that can take many forms, including neglect, emotional abuse, physical abuse, and sexual abuse. Neglect occurs when a child’s basic needs, such as food, shelter, and medical care, are not met. Emotional abuse involves behaviors that harm a child’s self-esteem, such as constant criticism or belittling. Physical abuse involves any intentional harm to a child’s body, such as hitting or shaking. Sexual abuse involves any sexual activity with a child, including touching, penetration, or exposure to sexual content.

      To protect children from abuse, the legal framework in the UK is governed by the Children’s Act of 1989 and 2004. These laws outline the responsibilities of local authorities, courts, and other agencies in safeguarding children from harm. The Children’s Act of 1989 established the principle that the welfare of the child is paramount and that children have the right to be protected from harm. The Act also created the role of the Independent Reviewing Officer (IRO), who is responsible for ensuring that the child’s welfare is being safeguarded.

      The Children’s Act of 2004 built on the 1989 Act and introduced new measures to improve child protection. These included the creation of the Children and Family Court Advisory and Support Service (CAFCASS), which provides advice to courts on the welfare of children, and the establishment of Local Safeguarding Children Boards (LSCBs), which bring together local agencies to coordinate their efforts to protect children.

      In summary, child abuse is a serious issue that can take many forms, and the legal framework in the UK is governed by the Children’s Act of 1989 and 2004. These laws aim to protect children from harm and outline the responsibilities of local authorities, courts, and other agencies in safeguarding children’s welfare.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 28-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe headache and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe headache and abdominal pain that started 2 hours ago. Upon assessment, the patient's blood pressure is measured at 210/115 mmHg and heart rate at 140 beats per minute.

      Further tests reveal elevated levels of urinary metanephrines and serum noradrenaline. A CT scan of the abdomen confirms the presence of a pheochromocytoma in the right adrenal gland.

      In which part of the nervous system is this neurotransmitter secreted?

      Your Answer: preganglionic neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system

      Correct Answer: postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is that noradrenaline is the postganglionic neurotransmitter of the sympathetic nervous system. It is secreted by postsynaptic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system and acts on effector organs such as vascular smooth muscle and sweat glands. The other options provided are incorrect as they refer to different neurotransmitters and nervous systems.

      Understanding Norepinephrine: Its Synthesis and Effects on Mental Health

      Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is synthesized in the locus ceruleus, a small region in the brainstem. This neurotransmitter plays a crucial role in the body’s fight or flight response, which is activated in response to stress or danger. When released, norepinephrine increases heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate, preparing the body to respond to a perceived threat.

      In terms of mental health, norepinephrine levels have been linked to anxiety and depression. Elevated levels of norepinephrine have been observed in individuals with anxiety, which can lead to symptoms such as increased heart rate, sweating, and trembling. On the other hand, depleted levels of norepinephrine have been associated with depression, which can cause feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and low energy.

      It is important to note that norepinephrine is just one of many neurotransmitters that play a role in mental health. However, understanding its synthesis and effects can provide insight into the complex interplay between brain chemistry and mental health. By studying neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, researchers can develop new treatments and therapies for individuals struggling with anxiety, depression, and other mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      27.5
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 48-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of persistent, dull discomfort...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of persistent, dull discomfort in the upper right quadrant of her abdomen. Upon examination, an ultrasound reveals the presence of a mass in her gallbladder. Subsequent biopsy results confirm the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma, a cancerous tumour that originates from the epithelial cells of the gallbladder.

      How would you characterize these epithelial cells?

      Your Answer: Simple columnar

      Explanation:

      The lining of the gallbladder is composed of simple columnar epithelium, which is also found in other parts of the gastrointestinal tract such as the small intestine, stomach, and large intestine. Simple cuboidal epithelium is rare and is mainly found in the renal tubules and on the surface of the ovaries. Simple squamous epithelium is present in areas where rapid diffusion of small molecules is necessary, such as in alveoli and capillaries, as well as in glomeruli where ultra-filtration occurs. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is primarily found in the upper respiratory tract.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A father brings his 15-year-old son to the general practice. Over the last...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 15-year-old son to the general practice. Over the last month, he has been experiencing epistaxis, lethargy and mouth ulcers. As well as this, he has noticed small amounts of blood mixed in with the toothpaste after brushing. The father explains how his son has struggled with anorexia in the past and that he is very selective about the foods he eats.

      On examination, there is conjunctival pallor and his gingiva are inflamed.

      Which protein(s) lack production due to this patient's vitamin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Proline and lysine

      Explanation:

      Marfan’s syndrome is linked to mutations in genes related to fibrillin, a glycoprotein that plays a role in connective tissue formation. In contrast, a deficiency in ascorbic acid (vitamin C) can lead to scurvy, which is characterized by gingival inflammation, excessive bleeding, and iron deficiency anemia. Ascorbic acid is a cofactor for enzymes involved in the production of proline and lysine, which are essential for collagen synthesis.

      Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is an essential nutrient found in various fruits and vegetables such as citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, and leafy greens. When there is a deficiency of this vitamin, it can lead to a condition called scurvy. This deficiency can cause impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue as ascorbic acid is a cofactor for enzymes used in the production of proline and lysine. Scurvy is commonly associated with severe malnutrition, drug and alcohol abuse, and poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.

      The symptoms and signs of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage, ecchymosis, easy bruising, poor wound healing, gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums, Sjogren’s syndrome, arthralgia, oedema, impaired wound healing, and generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia, and depression. It is important to consume a balanced diet that includes sources of vitamin C to prevent scurvy and maintain overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - After the passing of a dear friend, a 22-year-old male comes in with...

    Correct

    • After the passing of a dear friend, a 22-year-old male comes in with symptoms of confusion and auditory hallucinations. He appears to be in great distress and has developed a belief that he is a malevolent sorcerer. It is suspected that he may be experiencing brief psychotic disorder.

      What are some characteristics of this disorder?

      Your Answer: It often results in a return to baseline functioning

      Explanation:

      Brief psychotic disorder is a condition characterized by a sudden onset of psychotic symptoms, such as hallucinations or delusions, that typically occurs in response to a stressful event. Individuals with a pre-existing personality disorder may be more susceptible to this condition. However, the good news is that brief psychotic disorder often resolves within a month, and patients typically return to their normal level of functioning. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their 20s, 30s, and 40s, and patients may not always be aware of the changes in their behavior.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 36-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of vertigo. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of vertigo. He reports that he has been experiencing constant dizziness for the past 2 days, which has prevented him from going to work. He also reports hearing difficulties and tinnitus in his right ear, as well as nausea and difficulty with balance. He notes that these symptoms are not related to changes in position. He has no significant medical history, except for a recent bout of flu that resolved on its own.

      During the examination, the man is observed to sway to the right while attempting to walk in a straight line. He also has a positive head thrust test to the right side. A complete neurological examination is performed, and aside from mild sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear, his neurological function is normal.

      Which structures are most likely involved in this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Vestibular nerve and labyrinth

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms of labyrinthitis, which affects both the vestibular nerve and labyrinth, resulting in vertigo and hearing impairment. In contrast, pure vestibular neuritis only causes vestibular symptoms without affecting hearing. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) involves otolith displacement and is triggered by head position changes, which is not the case for this patient’s constant vertigo. Facial nerve palsy primarily causes facial drooping and does not affect hearing or vestibular function, making it an unlikely diagnosis for this patient.

      Understanding Viral Labyrinthitis

      Labyrinthitis is a condition that affects the membranous labyrinth, which includes the vestibular and cochlear end organs. It can be caused by a viral or bacterial infection, or it may be associated with systemic diseases. Viral labyrinthitis is the most common form of the condition.

      It’s important to distinguish labyrinthitis from vestibular neuritis, which only affects the vestibular nerve and doesn’t cause hearing impairment. Labyrinthitis, on the other hand, affects both the vestibular nerve and the labyrinth, resulting in both vertigo and hearing loss.

      The condition typically affects people between the ages of 40 and 70 and is characterized by an acute onset of symptoms, including vertigo, nausea and vomiting, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Patients may also experience gait disturbance and fall towards the affected side.

      Diagnosis is based on a patient’s history and examination, which may reveal spontaneous unidirectional horizontal nystagmus towards the unaffected side, sensorineural hearing loss, and an abnormal head impulse test.

      While episodes of labyrinthitis are usually self-limiting, medications like prochlorperazine or antihistamines may help reduce the sensation of dizziness. Understanding the symptoms and management of viral labyrinthitis can help patients seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 55-year-old male patient complains of sudden chest pain and is being evaluated...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male patient complains of sudden chest pain and is being evaluated for acute coronary syndrome. Upon fasting, his serum cholesterol level was found to be 7.1 mmol/L (<5.2). What is the best initial course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Statin Therapy for Hypercholesterolemia in Acute Coronary Syndrome

      Hypercholesterolemia is a common condition in patients with acute coronary syndrome. The initial treatment approach for such patients is statin therapy, which includes drugs like simvastatin, atorvastatin, and rosuvastatin. Statins have been proven to reduce mortality in both primary and secondary prevention studies. The target cholesterol concentration for patients with hypercholesterolemia and acute coronary syndrome is less than 5 mmol/L.

      According to NICE guidance, statins should be used more widely in conjunction with a QRISK2 score to stratify risk. This will help prevent cardiovascular disease and improve patient outcomes. The guidance recommends that statins be used in patients with a 10% or greater risk of developing cardiovascular disease within the next 10 years. By using statins in conjunction with risk stratification, healthcare professionals can provide more targeted and effective treatment for patients with hypercholesterolemia and acute coronary syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - What is the epithelial lining of the ectocervix? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the epithelial lining of the ectocervix?

      Your Answer: Simple columnar

      Correct Answer: Stratified squamous

      Explanation:

      The human body is composed of approximately 50-60% total body water, with men having a higher percentage of water at around 60%. This means that a 70Kg man would have approximately 42 litres of total body water.

      This water is divided into two main categories: extracellular fluid and intracellular fluid. Extracellular fluid makes up one third of the total body water and is further divided into four subcategories: plasma, interstitial fluid, lymph, and transcellular fluid.

      Plasma makes up 3.5 litres, interstitial fluid makes up 8.5 litres, while lymph and transcellular fluid each make up 1.5 litres. The remaining two thirds of the total body water is intracellular fluid.

      It is important to note that the concentration of electrolytes, such as potassium, in the extracellular fluid is crucial for maintaining proper bodily function. In fact, an extracellular fluid concentration of 12 mmol/L of potassium is incompatible with life.

      The body’s fluid composition is essential for maintaining overall health and wellness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Histology
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 45-year-old woman comes in with urinary incontinence. Where is Onuf's nucleus expected...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes in with urinary incontinence. Where is Onuf's nucleus expected to be located?

      Your Answer: Medulla oblongata

      Correct Answer: Anterior horn of S2 nerve roots

      Explanation:

      The Onufs nucleus, which is responsible for providing neurons to the external urethral sphincter, is located in the anterior horn of S2. In females, the sphincter complex at the bladder neck is not well-developed, making the external sphincter complex more important. It is innervated by the pudendal nerve, and damage to this nerve due to obstetric events can lead to stress urinary incontinence. The bladder is innervated by the pudendal, hypogastric, and pelvic nerves, which also carry autonomic nerves. Sympathetic nerves cause detrusor relaxation and sphincter contraction during bladder filling, while parasympathetic nerves cause detrusor contraction and sphincter relaxation. The Pons is responsible for centrally mediating control of micturition.

      Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects approximately 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. There are several risk factors that can contribute to the development of urinary incontinence, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. The condition can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of urinary incontinence involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, performing a vaginal examination to exclude pelvic organ prolapse, and conducting urine dipstick and culture tests. Urodynamic studies may also be necessary. Management of urinary incontinence depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures may be necessary. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be offered to women who decline surgical procedures.

      In summary, urinary incontinence is a common condition that can be caused by various risk factors. It can be classified into different types, and management depends on the predominant type of incontinence. Initial investigation involves completing bladder diaries, performing a vaginal examination, and conducting urine tests. Treatment options include bladder retraining, bladder stabilizing drugs, pelvic floor muscle training, surgical procedures, and duloxetine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: Psoriatic arthropathy may occur prior to the development of skin lesions

      Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is caused by type 1 helper T cells that participate in the cellular immune response, as opposed to type 2 helper T cells.

      Psoriasis: A Chronic Skin Disorder with Various Subtypes and Complications

      Psoriasis is a prevalent chronic skin disorder that affects around 2% of the population. It is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, but it is now known that patients with psoriasis are at an increased risk of arthritis and cardiovascular disease. The pathophysiology of psoriasis is multifactorial and not yet fully understood. It is associated with genetic factors such as HLA-B13, -B17, and -Cw6, and abnormal T cell activity that stimulates keratinocyte proliferation. Environmental factors such as skin trauma, stress, streptococcal infection, and sunlight exposure can worsen, trigger, or improve psoriasis.

      There are several recognized subtypes of psoriasis, including plaque psoriasis, flexural psoriasis, guttate psoriasis, and pustular psoriasis. Each subtype has its own unique characteristics and affects different areas of the body. Psoriasis can also cause nail signs such as pitting and onycholysis, as well as arthritis.

      Complications of psoriasis include psoriatic arthropathy, metabolic syndrome, cardiovascular disease, venous thromboembolism, and psychological distress. It is important for patients with psoriasis to receive proper management and treatment to prevent these complications and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 65-year-old man presents with abdominal tenderness, steatorrhoea, and jaundice. Upon investigation, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with abdominal tenderness, steatorrhoea, and jaundice. Upon investigation, a somatostatinoma of the pancreas is discovered. What is the probable cell type from which this neoplasm originated?

      Your Answer: Beta-cells

      Correct Answer: Delta-cells

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin is secreted by the delta cells located in the pancreas. These cells are also present in the stomach, duodenum, and jejunum. In the pancreas, somatostatin plays a role in inhibiting the release of exocrine enzymes, glucagon, and insulin. In rare cases of large somatostatinomas, patients may experience mild diabetes mellitus.

      The answer choices of alpha-cells, beta-cells, and S-cells are incorrect as they secrete glucagon, insulin, and secretin, respectively.

      Somatostatin: The Inhibitor Hormone

      Somatostatin, also known as growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH), is a hormone produced by delta cells found in the pancreas, pylorus, and duodenum. Its main function is to inhibit the secretion of growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon. It also decreases acid and pepsin secretion, as well as pancreatic enzyme secretion. Additionally, somatostatin inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      Somatostatin analogs are commonly used in the management of acromegaly, a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone secretion. These analogs work by inhibiting growth hormone secretion, thereby reducing the symptoms associated with acromegaly.

      The secretion of somatostatin is regulated by various factors. Its secretion increases in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen, as well as glucagon. On the other hand, insulin decreases the secretion of somatostatin.

      In summary, somatostatin plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of various hormones and enzymes in the body. Its inhibitory effects on growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon make it an important hormone in the management of certain medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 30-year-old man arrived at the emergency department following a syncopal episode during...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man arrived at the emergency department following a syncopal episode during a game of basketball. He is typically healthy with no prior medical history, but he does mention experiencing occasional palpitations, which he believes may be due to alcohol or caffeine consumption. Upon further inquiry, he reveals that his father passed away suddenly at the age of 40 due to a heart condition. What is the underlying pathophysiological alteration in this patient?

      Your Answer: Accessory pathway

      Correct Answer: Asymmetric septal hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      When a young patient presents with symptoms of syncope and chest discomfort, along with a family history of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM), it is important to consider the possibility of this condition. Asymmetric septal hypertrophy and systolic anterior movement (SAM) of the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve on echocardiogram or cMR are supportive of HOCM. This condition is caused by a genetic defect in the beta-myosin heavy chain protein gene. While Brugada syndrome may also be a consideration, it is not listed as a possible answer due to its underlying mechanism of sodium channelopathy.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A patient in his 60s has just been released from the hospital following...

    Correct

    • A patient in his 60s has just been released from the hospital following a STEMI. As part of his new medication regimen, he has been instructed to take an antiplatelet, commonly known as aspirin, on a daily basis for the remainder of his life. The doctor has informed him that this will lower his chances of developing blood clots that could be fatal.

      What is the mode of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Inhibits the formation of thromboxane A2

      Explanation:

      Aspirin reduces platelet aggregation by decreasing the formation of thromboxane A2, which is a potent vasoconstrictor and facilitates platelet aggregation. This is achieved by irreversibly binding to cyclooxygenase (COX), an enzyme that converts arachidonic acid into various prostaglandin molecules, including thromboxane A2.

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs), such as rivaroxaban, work by directly inhibiting clotting factor Xa. They are effective anticoagulants that require less monitoring than warfarin, which inhibits the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factor II, factor VII, factor IX, and factor X. Warfarin also inhibits some pro-thrombotic molecules, which initially increases the risk of thrombosis.

      Dabigatran is a thrombin inhibitor and is another form of DOAC. It is currently the only DOAC with a reversal agent.

      Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that prevents the activation of the glycoprotein GPIIb/IIIa complex, which is an essential mechanism for platelet aggregation.

      How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease

      Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.

      Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      85.6
      Seconds
  • Question 51 - A 70-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of tearing chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of tearing chest pain that radiates to his back. He has a history of uncontrolled hypertension. During auscultation, a diastolic murmur is heard, which is most audible over the 2nd intercostal space, right sternal border. What chest radiograph findings are expected from this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Calcification of the arch of the aorta

      Correct Answer: Widened mediastinum

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection can cause a widened mediastinum on a chest x-ray. This condition is characterized by tearing chest pain that radiates to the back, hypertension, and aortic regurgitation. It occurs when there is a tear in the tunica intima of the aorta’s wall, creating a false lumen that fills with a large volume of blood.

      Calcification of the arch of the aorta, cardiomegaly, displacement of the trachea from the midline, and enlargement of the aortic knob are not commonly associated with aortic dissection. Calcification of the walls of arteries is a chronic process that occurs with age and is more likely in men. Cardiomegaly can be caused by various conditions, including ischaemic heart disease and congenital abnormalities. Displacement of the trachea from the midline can result from other pathologies such as a tension pneumothorax or an aortic aneurysm. Enlargement of the aortic knob is a classical finding of an aortic aneurysm.

      Aortic dissection is classified according to the location of the tear in the aorta. The Stanford classification divides it into type A, which affects the ascending aorta in two-thirds of cases, and type B, which affects the descending aorta distal to the left subclavian origin in one-third of cases. The DeBakey classification divides it into type I, which originates in the ascending aorta and propagates to at least the aortic arch and possibly beyond it distally, type II, which originates in and is confined to the ascending aorta, and type III, which originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally but will extend distally.

      To diagnose aortic dissection, a chest x-ray may show a widened mediastinum, but CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is the investigation of choice. However, the choice of investigations should take into account the patient’s clinical stability, as they may present acutely and be unstable. Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE) is more suitable for unstable patients who are too risky to take to the CT scanner.

      The management of type A aortic dissection is surgical, but blood pressure should be controlled to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg while awaiting intervention. On the other hand, type B aortic dissection is managed conservatively with bed rest and IV labetalol to reduce blood pressure and prevent progression. Complications of a backward tear include aortic incompetence/regurgitation and MI, while complications of a forward tear include unequal arm pulses and BP, stroke, and renal failure. Endovascular repair of type B aortic dissection may have a role in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 33-year-old individual presents to the emergency department in an intoxicated state after...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old individual presents to the emergency department in an intoxicated state after a night of drinking. Although there are no immediate medical concerns, the patient is visibly under the influence of alcohol, exhibiting unsteady gait, reduced social inhibition, and mild slurring of speech. Additionally, the patient is observed to be urinating frequently.

      What is the probable mechanism behind the increased frequency of urination in this patient?

      Your Answer: Suppression of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release from the posterior pituitary gland

      Explanation:

      Polyuria, or excessive urination, can be caused by a variety of factors. A recent review in the BMJ categorizes these causes by their frequency of occurrence. The most common causes of polyuria include the use of diuretics, caffeine, and alcohol, as well as diabetes mellitus, lithium, and heart failure. Less common causes include hypercalcaemia and hyperthyroidism, while rare causes include chronic renal failure, primary polydipsia, and hypokalaemia. The least common cause of polyuria is diabetes insipidus, which occurs in less than 1 in 10,000 cases. It is important to note that while these frequencies may not align with exam questions, understanding the potential causes of polyuria can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of weight loss and...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of weight loss and frequent loose, greasy stool for the past 6 months. He has a history of heavy alcohol use and has been admitted to the hospital multiple times for acute pancreatitis. Upon examination, the patient appears malnourished, and there is mild tenderness in the epigastric region. What hormone is likely to be significant in the investigation of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Incretin

      Correct Answer: Secretin

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest pancreatic insufficiency, possibly due to chronic pancreatitis and alcohol misuse, as evidenced by weight loss and steatorrhea. To test pancreatic function, secretin stimulation test can be used as it increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from pancreas and hepatic duct cells. Gastrin, on the other hand, increases HCL production, while incretin stimulates insulin secretion after food intake. Although insulin and glucagon are pancreatic hormones, they are not primarily involved in the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from pancreas and hepatic duct cells, but rather in regulating glucose levels.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath following a 4-day febrile illness. On initial assessment, his oxygen saturation is 70% on room air with a PaO2 of 4.2kpa on an arterial blood gas.

      What would be the anticipated physiological response in this patient?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      When faced with hypoxia, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction, which redirects blood flow away from poorly oxygenated areas of the lungs and towards well-oxygenated regions. In cases where patients remain hypoxic despite optimal mechanical ventilation, inhaled nitric oxide can be used to induce pulmonary vasodilation and reverse this response.

      The statement that increased tidal volume with decreased respiratory rate is a response to hypoxia is incorrect. While an increase in tidal volume may occur, it is typically accompanied by an increase in respiratory rate.

      Pulmonary artery vasodilation is also incorrect. Hypoxia actually induces vasoconstriction in the pulmonary vasculature, as explained above.

      Similarly, reduced tidal volume with increased respiratory rate is not a direct response to hypoxia. While respiratory rate may increase, tidal volumes typically increase in response to hypoxia.

      In contrast to the pulmonary vessels, the systemic vasculature vasodilates in response to hypoxia.

      The Effects of Hypoxia on Pulmonary Arteries

      When the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood decreases, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels narrow, allowing blood to be redirected to areas of the lung that are better aerated. This response is a natural mechanism that helps to improve the efficiency of gaseous exchange in the lungs. By diverting blood to areas with more oxygen, the body can ensure that the tissues receive the oxygen they need to function properly. Overall, hypoxia triggers a physiological response that helps to maintain homeostasis in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 35-year-old male vegan athlete visits the clinic complaining of muscle spasms and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male vegan athlete visits the clinic complaining of muscle spasms and tingling on his lips and tongue. During a blood pressure measurement, his hand involuntarily spasms.

      The following are the results of his blood tests:

      Calcium 1.7 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Parathyroid hormone 90 pg/mL (16 - 65)
      Vitamin D 12 nmol/L (30 - 50)

      What is the probable cause of this patient's electrolyte imbalance?

      Your Answer: Increased secretion of calcium in the kidney due to less vitamin D

      Correct Answer: Reduced gut absorption of serum calcium due to less vitamin D

      Explanation:

      The primary reason for the patient’s hypocalcemia is likely reduced gut absorption of serum calcium due to a deficiency in vitamin D. This deficiency may be caused by insufficient sunlight or dietary intake, leading to inadequate stimulation of calcium absorption in the gut.

      It is unlikely that vitamin D deficiency would result in increased secretion of calcium in the kidney, as vitamin D is not heavily involved in this process. Parathyroid hormone is responsible for regulating calcium levels by modulating phosphate absorption in the kidney.

      While parathyroid hormone-induced osteoclast activity can lead to hypercalcemia, this patient has hypocalcemia. Therefore, parathyroid hormone would induce osteoclast activity to compensate for the low calcium levels, as evidenced by the raised serum parathyroid hormone.

      Low vitamin D levels do not stimulate osteoclast activity. Instead, this patient would have increased osteoclast activity due to parathyroid hormone, not reduced osteoclast activity due to low vitamin D.

      Understanding Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.

      The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.

      A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      37
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 54-year-old man from Afganistan is staying with his relatives in the UK....

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man from Afganistan is staying with his relatives in the UK. He has been experiencing occasional tingling and numbness in his feet and is worried about it. He has a medical history of tuberculosis and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which medication he is taking could be causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The standard quadruple therapy for tuberculosis consists of ethambutol, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and rifampicin.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 45-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sudden headache....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sudden headache. The doctor is evaluating her condition. Her BMI is 33 kgm2.

      During the cranial nerve examination, the doctor observes papilloedema on fundoscopy. The patient also reports a loss of taste in the back third of her tongue. Which of the following nerves could be responsible for this loss?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The glossopharyngeal nerve mediates taste and sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, while the anterior two-thirds of the tongue receive taste input from the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve and sensation input from the lingual branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. The base of the tongue receives taste and sensation input from the internal branch of the superior laryngeal nerve, which is a branch of the vagus nerve.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 58 - A 20-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of right arm weakness...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of right arm weakness that he noticed upon waking up after a night out. He is concerned that he may be experiencing a stroke, as his uncle had died from one.

      During the examination, the doctor observes that the patient's right arm is drooping to the side. There is a decrease in power for elbow and wrist extension, but elbow and wrist flexion remain intact.

      Which anatomical structure is most likely damaged, resulting in this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A research lab investigating new tests for Alzheimer's disease reports that a positive...

    Incorrect

    • A research lab investigating new tests for Alzheimer's disease reports that a positive test has a likelihood ratio of 6.2.

      What is the precise interpretation of this measure?

      Your Answer: Proportion of patients without the condition who have a negative test result

      Correct Answer: How much the odds of the disease increase when a test is positive

      Explanation:

      The likelihood ratio for a positive test result refers to the extent to which the odds of having the disease increase when a test comes back positive. Sensitivity is defined as the proportion of patients with the condition who test positive, while specificity is the proportion of patients without the condition who test negative. On the other hand, the likelihood ratio for a negative test result refers to how much the odds of having the disease decrease when a test comes back negative.

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 28-year-old rugby player complains of polyuria and polydipsia. He reports being hospitalized...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old rugby player complains of polyuria and polydipsia. He reports being hospitalized 5 months ago due to a head injury sustained while playing rugby. Central diabetes insipidus is confirmed through biochemistry and a water-deprivation test. A pituitary MRI reveals a thickened pituitary stalk, supporting the diagnosis. What is the appropriate medication for this patient?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin

      Explanation:

      Desmopressin is an effective treatment for central diabetes insipidus, which is a rare condition caused by damage or dysfunction of the posterior pituitary gland resulting in a lack of ADH production. Carbimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism, while goserelin is used to treat prostate cancer. Indapamide, a thiazide-like diuretic, is used to manage hypertension and heart failure.

      Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 25-year-old male is undergoing treatment for a complex skin infection that has...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male is undergoing treatment for a complex skin infection that has not improved with flucloxacillin and vancomycin. You contact microbiology for advice on the best antimicrobial therapy, and they suggest daptomycin due to its effective coverage against gram-positive bacteria.

      What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer: Interferes with the outer membrane of gram positive bacteria resulting in cell death

      Explanation:

      Daptomycin causes cell death in gram-positive bacteria by interfering with their outer membrane. Aminoglycosides are bactericidal antibiotics that bind to the 30s ribosome subunit, leading to the misreading of mRNA and the synthesis of abnormal peptides that accumulate intracellularly, ultimately resulting in cell death. Quinolones inhibit bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating by blocking DNA topoisomerase. Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis by binding to dihydrofolate reductase and preventing the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF), which is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway. Terbinafine blocks the biosynthesis of ergosterol, a crucial component of fungal cell membranes, by inhibiting squalene epoxidase.

      The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      15.7
      Seconds
  • Question 62 - A 55-year-old man is scheduled for CABG surgery and your consultant has tasked...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is scheduled for CABG surgery and your consultant has tasked you, a foundation doctor on the surgical ward, with explaining the procedure to him. You are aware that the bypass will involve using the left internal thoracic artery to supply the affected coronary vessel. Can you identify the artery from which the left internal thoracic artery arises?

      Your Answer: Left thyrocervical trunk

      Correct Answer: Left subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The left internal thoracic artery originates from the left subclavian artery near its source and runs down the chest wall beneath the ribs to supply blood to the front of the chest and breasts. During coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG), the proximal portion of the ITA is preserved while the distal end is grafted beyond the atherosclerotic segment of the affected coronary vessel to restore blood flow to the heart.

      The left axillary artery is a continuation of the left subclavian artery and is referred to as the axillary artery beyond the lateral border of the first rib. It becomes the brachial artery after passing the lower border of the teres major muscle.

      The left common carotid artery emerges from the aortic arch and divides into the internal and external carotid arteries at the fourth cervical vertebrae.

      The aortic arch is a continuation of the ascending aorta and branches off into the right brachiocephalic trunk, the left common carotid artery, and the left subclavian artery before continuing as the descending aorta.

      The thyrocervical trunk, which arises from the subclavian artery, is a brief vessel that gives rise to four branches: the inferior thyroid artery, suprascapular artery, ascending cervical artery, and transverse cervical artery.

      Coronary Artery Bypass Grafting (CABG)

      Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG) is a surgical procedure commonly used to treat coronary artery disease. The procedure involves using multiple grafts, with the internal mammary artery being increasingly used instead of the saphenous vein due to its lower likelihood of narrowing. The surgery requires the use of a heart-lung bypass machine and systemic anticoagulation. Suitability for the procedure is determined by cardiac catheterisation or angiography. The surgery is carried out under general anaesthesia, and patients typically stay in the hospital for 7-10 days, with a return to work within 3 months.

      Complications of CABG include atrial fibrillation (30-40% of cases, usually self-limiting) and stroke (2%). However, the prognosis for the procedure is generally positive, with 90% of operations being successful. Further revascularisation may be needed in 5-10% of cases after 5 years, but the mortality rate is low, at 1-2% at 30 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      22
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - What is the name of the zoonotic organism that can lead to the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the zoonotic organism that can lead to the development of a rash, meningitis, arthritis, and neuropathies?

      Your Answer: Yersinia pestis

      Correct Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi

      Explanation:

      Lyme Disease and Other Tick-Borne Illnesses

      Lyme disease is a type of tick-borne illness that is caused by a zoonotic organism called Borrelia burgdorferi. This disease typically develops in three stages, with the first stage characterized by a rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is often referred to as erythema migrans and has a distinctive bulls eye appearance with central clearing. During the second stage of the disease, patients may develop carditis, lymphocytic meningitis, or neuropathies, including bilateral VII palsy. In the third stage, patients may experience a range of vague symptoms, such as malaise, fatigue, and arthralgia or arthritis. Most patients remember the tick bite, which can help with diagnosis.

      Lyme disease is typically diagnosed using serology for Borrelia and is treated with tetracycline. Other tick-borne illnesses include cat scratch fever, which is caused by Bartonella henselae and is characterized by lymphadenopathy with pyrexia. Brucella and Coxiella can cause brucellosis and Q-fever, respectively, which can lead to fever of unknown origin with arthritis. Finally, Yersinia pestis is the cause of bubonic plague. these different tick-borne illnesses and their symptoms can help with early diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A teenage girl is hospitalized for a gynaecological infection and is given a...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage girl is hospitalized for a gynaecological infection and is given a prescription for a cephalosporin antibiotic. Can you explain the mechanism of action for this class of antibiotics and its related categories?

      Your Answer: Bacterial protein synthesis inhibition

      Correct Answer: Bacterial cell wall synthesis inhibition

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics involves the inhibition of cell wall synthesis. Cephalosporins, along with penicillins and carbapenems, belong to this class of antibiotics. By preventing the production of peptido-glycan cell walls in bacteria, these antibiotics cause the death of the bacterial cells.

      The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 65 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling increasingly unwell for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of feeling increasingly unwell for the past few weeks. He reports experiencing heavy night sweats, fatigue, and shortness of breath. Upon further questioning, he reveals a history of intravenous drug use for many years and has been using methadone exclusively for the last 2 months. During the physical examination, the GP observes splinter haemorrhages. What is the probable causative organism?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms that are indicative of infective endocarditis and has a past of using intravenous drugs. Infective endocarditis can be caused by various factors, but in developed countries, S. aureus is the most prevalent cause. This is especially true for individuals who use intravenous drugs, as in this case.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.

      Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 67-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about a lump he...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits the clinic with a concern about a lump he has noticed at the corner of his jaw. Apart from this, he reports feeling well. During the examination, there is no visible swelling, but on palpation, you detect a hard, immovable mass located about 2 cm above the angle of the mandible. Based on your assessment, you suspect that the patient may have a parotid gland tumor. If this is the case, the tumor may cause additional symptoms if it affects the cranial nerve that passes through the parotid gland. Which cranial nerve has a path that runs through the substance of the parotid gland?

      Your Answer: Mandibular nerve

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The parotid gland contains the facial nerve, which divides into five branches: the temporal, zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical branches. The mandibular nerve, a division of the trigeminal nerve, carries both sensory and motor fibers, providing sensation to the lower lip, lower teeth and gums, chin, and jaw, and motor innervation to muscles involved in chewing and other functions. The glossopharyngeal nerve, the ninth cranial nerve, has various functions, including carrying taste and sensation from the back of the tongue, pharyngeal wall, tonsils, middle ear, external auditory canal, and auricle, as well as supplying the parotid gland with parasympathetic fibers. The maxillary nerve, another division of the trigeminal nerve, carries only sensory fibers, providing sensation to the lower eyelid and cheeks, upper teeth and gums, palate, nasal cavity, and certain paranasal sinuses. The hypoglossal nerve, the twelfth cranial nerve, supplies the intrinsic muscles of the tongue and most of the extrinsic muscles, except for the palatoglossus. A parotid tumor, which is usually benign, can cause symptoms such as a mass, tenderness of the gland, facial nerve palsy, or lymphatic infiltration.

      The facial nerve is responsible for supplying the muscles of facial expression, the digastric muscle, and various glandular structures. It also contains a few afferent fibers that originate in the genicular ganglion and are involved in taste. Bilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by conditions such as sarcoidosis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, Lyme disease, and bilateral acoustic neuromas. Unilateral facial nerve palsy can be caused by these conditions as well as lower motor neuron issues like Bell’s palsy and upper motor neuron issues like stroke.

      The upper motor neuron lesion typically spares the upper face, specifically the forehead, while a lower motor neuron lesion affects all facial muscles. The facial nerve’s path includes the subarachnoid path, where it originates in the pons and passes through the petrous temporal bone into the internal auditory meatus with the vestibulocochlear nerve. The facial canal path passes superior to the vestibule of the inner ear and contains the geniculate ganglion at the medial aspect of the middle ear. The stylomastoid foramen is where the nerve passes through the tympanic cavity anteriorly and the mastoid antrum posteriorly, and it also includes the posterior auricular nerve and branch to the posterior belly of the digastric and stylohyoid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 67 - A child psychologist creates a new survey for use in schools that aims...

    Incorrect

    • A child psychologist creates a new survey for use in schools that aims to detect students with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). What term refers to the degree to which the survey accurately identifies those with ADHD?

      Your Answer: Specificity

      Correct Answer: Validity

      Explanation:

      Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 68 - A 65-year-old man has been experiencing acute breathlessness and fatigue alongside his pre-existing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man has been experiencing acute breathlessness and fatigue alongside his pre-existing myelodysplastic syndrome. Upon initial blood tests, a significantly elevated white cell count with a high percentage of blast cells was observed. A subsequent bone marrow biopsy has confirmed a transformation to acute myeloid leukemia.

      In order to gain a better understanding of his prognosis, what biochemical technique can be utilized to identify mutated oncogenes?

      Your Answer: Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test

      Correct Answer: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      Polymerase chain reactions are commonly utilized to identify mutated oncogenes. This technique involves the use of specific primers that bind to a particular segment of genetic material. If the targeted sequence is present, the DNA is amplified, doubling in quantity during each cycle. Various methods are then employed to determine whether the target DNA sequence has indeed been amplified and is present.

      Absorption spectroscopy is a technique that utilizes light absorption to measure the concentrations of absorptive substances in a solution. It does not play a role in detecting oncogenes.

      Emulsion tests are used to detect lipids, not DNA.

      ELISA testing is an immunological technique that can identify various peptides, proteins, antibodies, and antigens. It is notably used to diagnose HIV through the detection of antibodies.

      Similarly, western blotting is a technique used to detect proteins, not DNA.

      Reverse Transcriptase PCR

      Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) is a molecular genetic technique used to amplify RNA. This technique is useful for analyzing gene expression in the form of mRNA. The process involves converting RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase. The resulting DNA can then be amplified using PCR.

      To begin the process, a sample of RNA is added to a test tube along with two DNA primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq). The mixture is then heated to almost boiling point, causing denaturing or uncoiling of the RNA. The mixture is then allowed to cool, and the complimentary strands of DNA pair up. As there is an excess of the primer sequences, they preferentially pair with the DNA.

      The above cycle is then repeated, with the amount of DNA doubling each time. This process allows for the amplification of the RNA, making it easier to analyze gene expression. RT-PCR is a valuable tool in molecular biology and has many applications in research, including the study of diseases and the development of new treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 69 - To which major food group does the molecule CH3CH(NH2)COOH belong? ...

    Incorrect

    • To which major food group does the molecule CH3CH(NH2)COOH belong?

      Your Answer: Mineral

      Correct Answer: Protein

      Explanation:

      The Basics of Amino Acids and Alanine

      Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which are essential for the functioning of living organisms. One such amino acid is alanine, also known as CH3CH(NH2)COOH. The basic structure of an amino acid consists of an amine group (NH2) and a carboxylic acid group (COOH), which are both acidic and basic, respectively. These groups combine to give proteins a unique set of characteristics.

      Alanine is a simple amino acid with a methyl group in its R region. The formula for proteins is R-CH-NH2COOH, where R is a variable region. Amino acids combine to form dipeptides and polypeptides, which make up proteins. the basics of amino acids and their structures is crucial in the complex nature of proteins and their functions in living organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 70 - A researcher is creating a method in which they warm up a DNA...

    Correct

    • A researcher is creating a method in which they warm up a DNA sample to 96ºC and then cool it down to 56ºC while introducing primers to particular sequences. After each primer, heat-resistant DNA polymerase is included, and the process is repeated.

      What is the name of the molecular procedure being discussed?

      Your Answer: Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      PCR is a widely used method for amplifying a specific segment of DNA through denaturation, annealing, and elongation processes. Southern blotting is utilized for DNA detection, while Western blotting is used for RNA detection. SDS-PAGE is a technique for separating proteins through electrophoresis.

      Reverse Transcriptase PCR

      Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) is a molecular genetic technique used to amplify RNA. This technique is useful for analyzing gene expression in the form of mRNA. The process involves converting RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase. The resulting DNA can then be amplified using PCR.

      To begin the process, a sample of RNA is added to a test tube along with two DNA primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq). The mixture is then heated to almost boiling point, causing denaturing or uncoiling of the RNA. The mixture is then allowed to cool, and the complimentary strands of DNA pair up. As there is an excess of the primer sequences, they preferentially pair with the DNA.

      The above cycle is then repeated, with the amount of DNA doubling each time. This process allows for the amplification of the RNA, making it easier to analyze gene expression. RT-PCR is a valuable tool in molecular biology and has many applications in research, including the study of diseases and the development of new treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 71 - Which of the following would not increase the rate of diffusion of a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would not increase the rate of diffusion of a substance across a lipid membrane such as the cell wall?

      Your Answer: Area of the membrane

      Correct Answer: Thickness of the membrane

      Explanation:

      Diffusion and Fick’s Law

      Diffusion is a natural process that occurs when molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. This process is passive and random, meaning that it does not require any external energy input. Fick’s Law states that diffusion occurs more quickly across a large, permeable, and thin membrane. For example, in lung disease, the thickening of the alveolar epithelial barrier can lead to a poor carbon monoxide transfer coefficient because the thicker membrane slows down the diffusion process. the principles of diffusion and Fick’s Law can help us better understand how molecules move and interact in various biological and chemical processes. By optimizing the conditions for diffusion, we can improve the efficiency of many natural and artificial systems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 72 - Which one of the following is not produced by the parietal cells? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not produced by the parietal cells?

      Your Answer: Magnesium

      Correct Answer: Mucus

      Explanation:

      The chief cells responsible for producing Pepsi cola are not to be confused with the chief cells found in the stomach. In the stomach, chief cells secrete pepsinogen, while parietal cells secrete HCl, Ca, Na, Mg, and intrinsic factor. Additionally, surface mucosal cells secrete mucus and bicarbonate.

      Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures

      A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.

      There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.

      The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.

      In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 73 - You are requested to assess a 45-year-old man who was previously healthy but...

    Correct

    • You are requested to assess a 45-year-old man who was previously healthy but has been stabbed in the back after an attack. A puncture wound measuring 3 cm is observed just to the right of the T5 vertebrae. During the examination, a reduction in fine touch sensation is detected on the right side.

      Where would you anticipate detecting a decrease in temperature sensation, if any?

      Your Answer: Left side, below the lesion

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract crosses over at the same level where the nerve root enters the spinal cord, while the corticospinal tract, dorsal column medial lemniscus, and spinocerebellar tracts cross over at the medulla within the brain. Quick response stimuli such as pain and temperature cross over first.

      Brown-Sequard syndrome is a result of the body’s unique anatomy. Understanding which types of nerve fibers cross over at the spinal level versus within the brain is crucial in diagnosing this syndrome.

      Pain and temperature are carried in the spinothalamic tract, which crosses over at the spinal level it enters at. Therefore, a hemisection of the cord will result in contralateral loss of these functions. On the other hand, the corticospinal tract, dorsal column medial lemniscus pathway, and spinocerebellar tract all cross over above the spinal cord, resulting in ipsilateral loss of these functions with a hemisection.

      In the case of a puncture wound on the right side, the contralateral loss would present on the left side below the lesion, as the fibers run in a caudocranial direction. Bilateral loss would only occur with a complete severing of the cord.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 74 - A 27-year-old man comes to his doctor for a routine check-up before participating...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man comes to his doctor for a routine check-up before participating in a local 20-mile cycling race. He has been training for over a year and is determined to win. He has been experiencing occasional headaches on both sides of his head for the past three weeks, but they come and go and are not accompanied by aura, photophobia, or phonophobia. He has some redness and tenderness on his abdomen, but no masses are felt. His bowel and bladder function are normal. He had flu-like symptoms last week but is feeling much better now. His blood test results are as follows, and his hematocrit level is higher than normal:

      Hemoglobin: 198 g/L
      Platelets: 250 * 10^9/L
      White blood cells: 6 * 10^9/L

      Which of the following best explains his symptoms and blood test results?

      Your Answer: Secondary polycythemia due to erythropoietin use

      Explanation:

      Athletes who use EPO are at risk of developing polycythemia. Cyclists are known to frequently use EPO, which can cause localized erythema on the abdomen from repeated injections. The patient’s headaches are not migrainous as they lack associated symptoms such as aura, photophobia, or phonophobia. Renal cell carcinoma is the primary type of kidney cancer in adults and typically presents with flank pain, haematuria, and a flank mass. Other symptoms may include weight loss, night sweats, fever, and malaise.

      Polycythaemia is a condition that can be classified as relative, primary (polycythaemia rubra vera), or secondary. Relative polycythaemia can be caused by dehydration or stress, such as in Gaisbock syndrome. Primary polycythaemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the bone marrow to produce too many red blood cells. Secondary polycythaemia can be caused by conditions such as COPD, altitude, obstructive sleep apnoea, or excessive erythropoietin production due to certain tumors or growths. To distinguish between true polycythaemia and relative polycythaemia, red cell mass studies may be used. In true polycythaemia, the total red cell mass in males is greater than 35 ml/kg and in women is greater than 32 ml/kg. Uterine fibroids may also cause polycythaemia indirectly by causing menorrhagia, but this is rarely a clinical problem.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      27.3
      Seconds
  • Question 75 - A 17-year-old female is seeking a termination and she is currently 16 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 17-year-old female is seeking a termination and she is currently 16 weeks pregnant.
      At what point in the pregnancy does the law impose more restrictions on obtaining a termination?

      Your Answer: 24 weeks

      Explanation:

      Abortion Law in the UK

      The Abortion Act 1967, which was amended by the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Act 1990, governs the law on abortion in the UK. According to this law, an abortion can be carried out until 24 weeks of pregnancy if two doctors agree that continuing with the pregnancy would pose a risk to the physical or psychological health of the mother or her existing children.

      If the pregnancy has progressed beyond 24 weeks, an abortion can only be carried out if two doctors agree that the woman’s health is gravely threatened by the pregnancy or if the infant is likely to be born with severe physical or mental abnormalities. It is important to note that there is no time limit on procuring an abortion if these criteria are met.

      In summary, the law on abortion in the UK allows for abortions to be carried out up to 24 weeks if there is a risk to the mother’s health or the health of her existing children. After 24 weeks, an abortion can only be carried out if the woman’s health is at risk or if the infant is likely to be born with severe physical or mental abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      4.3
      Seconds
  • Question 76 - A 67-year-old female smoker with a two-month history of worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female smoker with a two-month history of worsening shortness of breath presents for evaluation. On examination, she appears comfortable at rest with a regular pulse of 72 bpm, respiratory rate of 16/min, and blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg. Physical findings include reduced expansion on the left lower zone, dullness to percussion over this area, and absent breath sounds over the left lower zone with bronchial breath sounds just above this region. What is the likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pneumothorax

      Correct Answer: Pleural effusion

      Explanation:

      Pleural Effusion and its Investigation

      Pleural effusion is a condition where there is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This can be caused by various factors such as post-infection, carcinoma, or emboli. To determine the cause of the pleural effusion, a pleural tap is the most appropriate investigation. The sample obtained from the pleural tap is sent for cytology, protein concentration, and culture.

      A normal pleural tap would have clear appearance, pH of 7.60-7.64, protein concentration of less than 2%, white blood cells count of less than 1000/mm³, glucose level similar to that of plasma, LDH level of less than 50% of plasma concentration, amylase level of 30-110 U/L, triglycerides level of less than 2 mmol/l, and cholesterol level of 3.5-6.5 mmol/l.

      A transudative tap is associated with conditions such as congestive heart failure, liver cirrhosis, severe hypoalbuminemia, and nephrotic syndrome. On the other hand, an exudative tap is associated with malignancy, infection (such as empyema due to bacterial pneumonia), trauma, pulmonary infarction, and pulmonary embolism.

      In summary, pleural effusion can be caused by various factors and a pleural tap is the most appropriate investigation to determine the cause. The results of the pleural tap can help differentiate between transudative and exudative effusions, which can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 77 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with her parents, who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with her parents, who are concerned about her extremely swollen legs. The patient reports feeling fine and has no significant medical history.

      Upon examination, there is pitting edema that extends to the lower abdominal wall. Laboratory tests confirm hypoalbuminemia.

      A urine dipstick reveals ++++ proteinuria and no red blood cells.

      What is the probable result of electron microscopy of a renal biopsy?

      Your Answer: Kimmelstiel-wilson lesions

      Correct Answer: Effacement of podocyte foot processes

      Explanation:

      Effacement of podocyte foot processes is observed in minimal change disease on electron microscopy, indicating fusion of podocytes. This condition is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, which is characterized by hypoalbuminemia, edema, and marked proteinuria. Although normal glomerular architecture may be observed in minimal change disease when viewed with a light microscope, electron microscopy is necessary to detect the effacement of podocyte foot processes. Kimmelstiel-Wilson lesions are not a feature of minimal change disease, as they are commonly observed in diabetic nephropathy. Similarly, mesangial cell proliferation is not a hallmark of minimal change disease, as it is typically observed in membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, which presents as a nephritic syndrome and is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Overall, minimal change disease is typically responsive to steroid treatment and has a favorable prognosis.

      Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.

      The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.

      Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      20.2
      Seconds
  • Question 78 - The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right in which of the...

    Incorrect

    • The oxygen-haemoglobin dissociation curve is shifted to the right in which of the following situations?

      Your Answer: Hypothermia

      Correct Answer: Chronic iron deficiency anaemia

      Explanation:

      A helpful mnemonic to remember the causes of a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve is CADET face RIGHT. This stands for C O2, Acidosis, 2,3-DPG, Exercise, and Temperature. A right shift in the curve indicates an increased oxygen demand by the tissues, which can be caused by factors such as higher temperatures, acidosis, and increased levels of DPG. DPG is a molecule found in red blood cells that is elevated during glycolysis and can bind to hemoglobin, releasing oxygen to the tissues. Conditions associated with poor oxygen delivery, such as anemia and high altitude, can also lead to increased DPG levels.

      Oxygen Transport and Factors Affecting Haemoglobin Saturation

      Oxygen transport in the body is mainly carried out by erythrocytes, with only 1% of oxygen being transported as a solution due to its limited solubility. The amount of oxygen transported depends on the concentration of haemoglobin and its degree of saturation. Haemoglobin is a globular protein composed of four subunits, with two alpha and two beta subunits forming globin. Haem, which surrounds an iron atom in its ferrous state, can form two additional bonds with oxygen and a polypeptide chain. The oxygenation of haemoglobin is a reversible reaction, and the molecular shape of haemoglobin facilitates the binding of subsequent oxygen molecules.

      The oxygen dissociation curve describes the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and partial pressure of oxygen in the blood, and it is not affected by haemoglobin concentration. The curve can be shifted to the right or left by various factors. Chronic anaemia, for example, causes an increase in 2,3 DPG levels, which shifts the curve to the right, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. The Haldane effect causes a shift to the left, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues, while the Bohr effect causes a shift to the right, resulting in enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues. Factors that shift the curve to the left include low levels of H+, pCO2, 2,3-DPG, and temperature, as well as the presence of HbF, methaemoglobin, and carboxyhaemoglobin. Factors that shift the curve to the right include raised levels of H+, pCO2, and 2,3-DPG, as well as increased temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 79 - Emergency medical services are summoned to attend to a 44-year-old motorcyclist who collided...

    Correct

    • Emergency medical services are summoned to attend to a 44-year-old motorcyclist who collided with a vehicle. The patient is alert but has sustained a fracture to the shaft of his right humerus. He is experiencing difficulty with extending his wrist and elbow. Which nerve is most likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve is the most probable nerve to have been affected.

      Understanding the anatomical pathway of the major nerves in the upper limb is crucial. The radial nerve originates from the axilla, travels down the arm through the radial groove of the humerus, and then moves anteriorly to the lateral epicondyle in the forearm. It primarily supplies motor innervation to the posterior compartments of the arm and forearm, which are responsible for extension.

      The radial nerve is commonly damaged due to mid-humeral shaft fractures, shoulder dislocation, and lateral elbow injuries.

      The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage

      The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.

      The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.

      Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 80 - A 16-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a shoulder injury following...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male comes to the emergency department with a shoulder injury following a football tackle.

      During the examination, it is discovered that he has a dislocated shoulder, weakness in elbow flexion, weakness in supination, and a loss of sensation on the lateral side of his forearm.

      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer: Axillary nerve

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      When the musculocutaneous nerve is injured, it can cause weakness in elbow flexion and supination, as well as sensory loss on the outer side of the forearm. Other nerves in the arm have different functions, such as the median nerve which controls many of the flexor muscles in the forearm and provides sensation to the palm and fingers, the radial nerve which controls the triceps and extensor muscles in the back of the forearm and provides sensation to the back of the arm and hand, and the axillary nerve which controls the deltoid and teres minor muscles and provides sensation to the lower part of the deltoid muscle. The musculocutaneous nerve also has a branch that provides sensation to the outer part of the forearm.

      Understanding the Brachial Plexus and Cutaneous Sensation of the Upper Limb

      The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that originates from the anterior rami of C5 to T1. It is divided into five sections: roots, trunks, divisions, cords, and branches. To remember these sections, a common mnemonic used is Real Teenagers Drink Cold Beer.

      The roots of the brachial plexus are located in the posterior triangle and pass between the scalenus anterior and medius muscles. The trunks are located posterior to the middle third of the clavicle, with the upper and middle trunks related superiorly to the subclavian artery. The lower trunk passes over the first rib posterior to the subclavian artery. The divisions of the brachial plexus are located at the apex of the axilla, while the cords are related to the axillary artery.

      The branches of the brachial plexus provide cutaneous sensation to the upper limb. This includes the radial nerve, which provides sensation to the posterior arm, forearm, and hand; the median nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and half of the ring finger; and the ulnar nerve, which provides sensation to the palmar and dorsal aspects of the fifth finger and half of the ring finger.

      Understanding the brachial plexus and its branches is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the upper limb, such as nerve injuries and neuropathies. It also helps in understanding the cutaneous sensation of the upper limb and how it relates to the different nerves of the brachial plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 81 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of vision difficulty. She is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of vision difficulty. She is experiencing peripheral vision loss and feels nauseous and dizzy when attempting to look towards the sides. Two months ago, she had a tingling sensation in her left foot. During physical examination, there is a limitation in adduction of both eyes and nystagmus with lateral gaze. An MRI of the brain is scheduled.

      Based on the current clinical presentation and likely diagnosis, what is the expected location of lesions on the MRI scan?

      Your Answer: Paramedian area of midbrain & pons

      Explanation:

      The medial longitudinal fasciculus is located in the midbrain and pons and connects cranial nerves III, IV, and VI to facilitate eye movements. Multiple sclerosis can affect this area, causing episodic neurological symptoms and bilateral internuclear ophthalmoplegia, which is characterized by the inability to adduct the affected eye and results in nystagmus and double vision.

      The oculomotor nucleus, located in the midbrain, controls the movement of several eye muscles. A lesion here can cause the eye to point downward and outward, resulting in diplopia and difficulty accommodating.

      The trochlear nerve nucleus, also located in the midbrain, controls the superior oblique muscle. A lesion here can cause diplopia, especially on downward gaze, and a characteristic head tilt towards the unaffected side.

      The abducens nerve nucleus, located in the pons, controls the lateral rectus muscle. A lesion here can cause the affected eye to be unable to abduct, resulting in nystagmus and diplopia.

      The facial nerve nucleus, located in the pons, controls the muscles of the face. A lesion here can cause facial muscle palsies.

      Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.

      The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      100.2
      Seconds
  • Question 82 - A 25-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of shoulder pain. He...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of shoulder pain. He denies any history of shoulder dislocation and regularly attends the gym for five days a week, performing overhead pressing movements. He is a first-year physiotherapy student and has a good understanding of shoulder anatomy.

      During the examination, the patient exhibits a positive 'empty can' test, indicating supraspinatus tendonitis. A focused ultrasound scan of the shoulder joint confirms inflammation at the point of insertion of the supraspinatus tendon.

      What is the precise location of the inflammation?

      Your Answer: Superior facet of the greater tubercle of the humerus

      Explanation:

      The insertion site of the supraspinatus tendon is the superior facet of the greater tubercle of the humerus, while the teres major and coracobrachialis muscles insert into the medial border. The subscapularis muscle inserts into the lesser tubercle, and the infraspinatus muscle inserts into the middle facet of the greater tubercle. The teres minor muscle’s insertion site is not specified.

      The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      61.2
      Seconds
  • Question 83 - A 31-year-old woman visits her doctor with her 3-month-old son for a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman visits her doctor with her 3-month-old son for a routine check-up. During the visit, the woman expresses her concern about her inability to breastfeed her baby, despite several attempts.

      The woman has a medical history of sensorineural deafness, which she acquired after contracting bacterial meningitis as a child.

      Her serum prolactin levels are within the normal range at 250 g/L (34-386 ng/mL). The doctor explains that the milk let-down reflex also requires the hormone oxytocin.

      Can you identify the part of the brain where oxytocin is synthesized?

      Your Answer: Edinger-Westphal nucleus

      Correct Answer: Paraventricular nucleus

      Explanation:

      The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus is responsible for producing oxytocin. This hormone is synthesized in the periventricular nucleus and then secreted into the posterior pituitary gland, where it is stored and eventually released into the systemic circulation. Oxytocin plays a crucial role in the milk let-down reflex, causing the myoepithelial cells of the breast to contract and release milk. However, this patient may have difficulty breastfeeding due to complications from her childhood meningitis. It is important to note that oxytocin is not synthesized or released from the arcuate nucleus, Edinger-Westphal nucleus, or pineal gland.

      The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s internal balance, or homeostasis. It is located in the diencephalon and is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. The hypothalamus is composed of several nuclei, each with its own specific function. The anterior nucleus, for example, is involved in cooling the body by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. The lateral nucleus, on the other hand, is responsible for stimulating appetite, while lesions in this area can lead to anorexia. The posterior nucleus is involved in heating the body and stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in poikilothermia. Other nuclei include the septal nucleus, which regulates sexual desire, the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which regulates circadian rhythm, and the ventromedial nucleus, which is responsible for satiety. Lesions in the paraventricular nucleus can lead to diabetes insipidus, while lesions in the dorsomedial nucleus can result in savage behavior.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      24.6
      Seconds
  • Question 84 - A 20-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a dislocated right shoulder....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a dislocated right shoulder. During neurological examination, it is found that the patient is unable to abduct her right arm beyond 15 degrees. However, she has full range of motion in terms of flexion, extension, internal and external rotation at the shoulder. Which nerve compression is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Musculocutaneous

      Correct Answer: Axillary

      Explanation:

      The deltoid muscle is responsible for shoulder abduction and is innervated by the axillary nerve, which originates from the C5 and C6 nerve roots. Compression of this nerve can result in limited ability to raise the affected arm beyond 15 degrees and loss of sensation in the skin overlying the inferior deltoid muscle. Common causes of axillary nerve injury include shoulder dislocation, humeral neck fracture, and shoulder surgery.

      In contrast, median nerve palsy typically presents with symptoms of carpal tunnel syndrome or weakness and sensory loss in the forearm and hand, rather than the shoulder and upper arm. Musculocutaneous nerve damage is rare and usually occurs due to direct injury to the axilla. Signs of this type of nerve damage include weakened flexion at the shoulder and elbow, weakened supination of the forearm, and loss of sensation over the lateral forearm.

      The radial nerve is responsible for innervating much of the posterior arm and forearm, and symptoms of radial nerve damage depend on the location of the injury. Suprascapular nerve damage may also affect shoulder abduction, but other shoulder movements are typically affected as well.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 85 - Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of muscle weakness...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of muscle weakness and blurred vision. She works as a librarian, drinks about 15 units of alcohol per week, and has smoked about 25 cigarettes a day for 35 years.

      During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be elevated at 152/98 mmHg. There are reduced breath sounds over the area of the right lower lobe. Some of her blood test results are as follows:

      - Hb 120 g/L (Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets 420 * 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC 9.1 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Na+ 148 mmol/L (135-145)
      - K+ 3.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      - Urea 8.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine 150 µmol/L (55-120)
      - 24-hour urine free cortisol 260 ug/l (10-100)
      - Glucose 17.8 mmol/l (4.0-7.0)

      She mentions that, aside from a persistent cough due to smoking, which occasionally produces blood, she feels fine.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell lung carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Small cell lung carcinoma

      Explanation:

      A small cell lung carcinoma that secretes ACTH can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, as seen in this patient. The history and examination findings suggest lung cancer, and the raised cortisol level can be explained by the paraneoplastic syndrome caused by ACTH release. Muscle weakness and blurred vision are typical symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome. Squamous cell lung carcinoma and adrenal adenoma are less likely causes, while Cushing’s disease is not applicable in this case.

      Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 86 - An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe chest pain that spreads to his left arm. He also experiences nausea and excessive sweating. After conducting an ECG, you observe ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF, leading to a diagnosis of an inferior ST-elevation MI. Can you identify the primary coronary vessel that supplies blood to the base of the heart?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      The heart has several arteries that supply blood to different areas. The right coronary artery supplies the right side of the heart and can cause a heart attack in the lower part of the heart, which can lead to abnormal heart rhythms. The left anterior descending artery and left circumflex artery supply the left side of the heart and can cause heart attacks in different areas, which can be detected by changes in specific leads on an ECG. The left marginal artery branches off the left circumflex artery and supplies blood to the outer edge of the heart.

      The following table displays the relationship between ECG changes and the affected coronary artery territories. Anteroseptal changes in V1-V4 indicate involvement of the left anterior descending artery, while inferior changes in II, III, and aVF suggest the right coronary artery is affected. Anterolateral changes in V4-6, I, and aVL may indicate involvement of either the left anterior descending or left circumflex artery, while lateral changes in I, aVL, and possibly V5-6 suggest the left circumflex artery is affected. Posterior changes in V1-3 may indicate a posterior infarction, which is typically caused by the left circumflex artery but can also be caused by the right coronary artery. Reciprocal changes of STEMI are often seen as horizontal ST depression, tall R waves, upright T waves, and a dominant R wave in V2. Posterior infarction is confirmed by ST elevation and Q waves in posterior leads (V7-9), usually caused by the left circumflex artery but also possibly the right coronary artery. It is important to note that a new LBBB may indicate acute coronary syndrome.

      Diagram showing the correlation between ECG changes and coronary territories in acute coronary syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 87 - A 55-year-old man comes in for his regular check-up with his GP. He...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man comes in for his regular check-up with his GP. He has a medical history of chronic pancreatitis and diabetes mellitus and is currently taking the maximum doses of metformin and gliclazide. During a random plasma glucose test, his levels show 18.0 mmol/l and his urinalysis reveals glycosuria with minimal ketones. The GP suspects that his body is not producing enough insulin and decides to initiate insulin therapy. Can you identify the location in the body where insulin is produced?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic beta cells

      Explanation:

      Diabetes mellitus in this patient is most likely caused by chronic pancreatitis, which has resulted in the destruction of the pancreatic endocrine cells responsible for producing endogenous insulin. These cells are located in the Islets of Langerhans and are known as pancreatic beta cells (β-cells). Other cells in the pancreas, such as alpha cells (which secrete glucagon) and delta cells (which secrete somatostatin), do not produce insulin. Similarly, gastric G cells secrete gastrin and are not involved in insulin production.

      Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 88 - A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a forehead laceration caused...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a forehead laceration caused by a blunt object. His neurological examination is normal and CT scan of the head is unremarkable. The wound needs stitches and you clean it before administering lidocaine to numb the area.

      What is the intended effect of lidocaine in this scenario?

      Your Answer: G protein coupled receptor (GPCR)

      Correct Answer: Ion channels

      Explanation:

      Lidocaine is a drug that affects ion channels, specifically sodium ion channels. Its mechanism of action involves reducing the frequency of action potentials in neurons that transmit pain signals.

      Other drugs that act on ion channels include amlodipine, while adenosine and oxymetazoline are examples of drugs that work on G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs). Insulin and levothyroxin are drugs that act on tyrosine kinase receptors.

      Adrenoreceptors are a type of GPCR, and drugs such as bisoprolol and doxazosin work on these receptors. Bisoprolol is a beta-blocker, while doxazosin is an alpha-blocker.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 89 - A 25-year-old male is scheduled for hernia repair surgery where the mesh will...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male is scheduled for hernia repair surgery where the mesh will be sutured to the inguinal ligament. What is the origin of the inguinal ligament?

      Your Answer: Internal oblique

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The external oblique aponeurosis forms the inguinal ligament, which extends from the pubic tubercle to the anterior superior iliac spine.

      Muscles and Layers of the Abdominal Wall

      The abdominal wall is composed of various muscles and layers that provide support and protection to the organs within the abdominal cavity. The two main muscles of the abdominal wall are the rectus abdominis and the quadratus lumborum. The rectus abdominis is located anteriorly, while the quadratus lumborum is located posteriorly.

      The remaining abdominal wall is made up of three muscular layers, each passing from the lateral aspect of the quadratus lumborum to the lateral margin of the rectus sheath. These layers are muscular posterolaterally and aponeurotic anteriorly. The external oblique muscle lies most superficially and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs, inserting into the anterior half of the outer aspect of the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubic tubercle. The internal oblique arises from the thoracolumbar fascia, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 2/3 of the inguinal ligament, while the transversus abdominis is the innermost muscle, arising from the inner aspect of the costal cartilages of the lower 6 ribs, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 1/3 of the inguinal ligament.

      During abdominal surgery, it is often necessary to divide either the muscles or their aponeuroses. It is desirable to divide the aponeurosis during a midline laparotomy, leaving the rectus sheath intact above the arcuate line and the muscles intact below it. Straying off the midline can lead to damage to the rectus muscles, particularly below the arcuate line where they may be in close proximity to each other. The nerve supply for these muscles is the anterior primary rami of T7-12.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 90 - What is the hormone responsible for promoting glycogen synthesis? ...

    Correct

    • What is the hormone responsible for promoting glycogen synthesis?

      Your Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      The Role of Hormones in Glycogen Production and Blood Sugar Regulation

      Glycogen is a complex glucose polymer that serves as a storage form of glucose in the body. When insulin levels are high, such as after a meal rich in carbohydrates, glycogen production is stimulated, leading to a decrease in blood sugar levels. However, when insulin levels are low and glucagon and cortisol levels are high, glycogen degradation is stimulated, releasing glucose into the bloodstream to maintain blood sugar levels until the next meal.

      Insulin is a hormone that helps to lower blood sugar levels, while glucagon and cortisol work to increase blood sugar levels. ACTH, a hormone released by the pituitary gland, stimulates the release of cortisol from the adrenal glands, which can also contribute to an increase in blood sugar levels.

      Antidiuretic hormone, on the other hand, plays a role in the production of concentrated urine but does not have any direct effect on glycogen production or blood sugar regulation.

      In summary, the regulation of blood sugar levels and glycogen production is a complex process that involves the interplay of various hormones, including insulin, glucagon, cortisol, and ACTH. the role of these hormones can help to better manage conditions such as diabetes and hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      5.7
      Seconds
  • Question 91 - A 36 year old man presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old man presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain. He reports experiencing colicky pain for the past 12 hours along with nausea. He also mentions that he has not had a bowel movement and cannot recall passing gas.

      The patient has a history of undergoing an emergency laparotomy due to a stabbing incident 8 years ago.

      Upon examination, the abdomen is tender throughout but feels soft to the touch and produces a tympanic sound when percussed. High-pitched bowel sounds are audible upon auscultation.

      An abdominal X-ray reveals multiple dilated small bowel loops.

      What is the most probable cause of this patient's bowel obstruction?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Correct Answer: Small bowel adhesions

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is a common cause of bowel obstruction in children under the age of two. Although most cases are asymptomatic, symptoms may occur and include rectal bleeding, volvulus, intussusception, bowel obstruction, or a presentation similar to acute appendicitis.

      While a malignancy in the small bowel is a potential cause of obstruction in this age group, it is extremely rare and therefore less likely in this particular case.

      Imaging for Bowel Obstruction

      Bowel obstruction is a condition that requires immediate medical attention. One of the key indications for performing an abdominal film is to look for small and large bowel obstruction. The maximum normal diameter for the small bowel is 35 mm, while for the large bowel, it is 55 mm. The valvulae conniventes extend all the way across the small bowel, while the haustra extend about a third of the way across the large bowel.

      A small bowel obstruction can be identified through distension of small bowel loops proximally, such as the duodenum and jejunum, with an abrupt transition to an intestinal segment of normal caliber. There may also be a small amount of free fluid intracavity. On the other hand, a large bowel obstruction can be identified through the presence of haustra extending about a third of the way across and a maximum normal diameter of 55 mm.

      Imaging for bowel obstruction is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition promptly. It is important to note that early detection and intervention can prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 92 - A father brings his 4-year-old son to a dermatologist concerned about his dry...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old son to a dermatologist concerned about his dry skin. The child was also born via spontaneous vaginal delivery at term without any complications. He has always had dry skin, but it has become more severe lately. He has a past medical history of eczema.

      What clinical feature could have aided in the diagnosis of ichthyosis based on the history and examination?

      Your Answer: Raised, shiny, dome-shaped nodule

      Correct Answer: 'fish-scale' skin

      Explanation:

      Ichthyosis is characterized by the presence of dry, scaly skin resembling fish scales.

      Understanding Acquired Ichthyosis

      Acquired ichthyosis is a skin condition characterized by dry and scaly skin, often referred to as crocodile skin. Unlike congenital ichthyosis, which is present at birth, acquired ichthyosis develops later in life and can be caused by various factors. Some of the known causes of acquired ichthyosis include lymphoma, particularly Hodgkin’s lymphoma, other malignancies such as Kaposi’s sarcoma, leprosy, and malnutrition.

      It is important to note that acquired ichthyosis is a rare condition and is often associated with underlying medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 93 - A 28-year-old man has a glomerular filtration rate of 110ml / minute at...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man has a glomerular filtration rate of 110ml / minute at a systolic blood pressure of 120/80. If his blood pressure were to decrease to 100/70, what would be his glomerular filtration rate?

      Your Answer: 110ml / minute

      Explanation:

      The suggested decrease in blood pressure is within the kidney’s autoregulatory range for blood supply, so the GFR will remain unaffected.

      The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology

      The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 94 - A 32-year-old man with a submandibular gland stone is undergoing excision of the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with a submandibular gland stone is undergoing excision of the submandibular gland. The incision is sited transversely approximately 4 cm below the mandible. After incising the skin, platysma and deep fascia which of the following structures is most likely to be encountered.

      Your Answer: Facial vein

      Explanation:

      When accessing the submandibular gland, the facial vein and submandibular lymph nodes are the structures that are most easily visible. The gland is divided into a superficial and deep part by the mylohyoid muscle. The facial artery runs along the surface of the gland and can be seen in a groove. It then passes between the gland and the mandible before emerging on the face. During surgery, the facial vein is encountered first as the incision is made 4 cm below the mandible to prevent damage to the marginal mandibular nerve.

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland

      The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.

      The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

      The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 95 - A 52-year-old woman visited her family physician with complaints of pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman visited her family physician with complaints of pain in her wrist and small joints of the hand. She mentioned that her joints felt stiff in the morning but improved throughout the day. The doctor prescribed glucocorticoids and methotrexate, which helped alleviate her symptoms. After a year, she returned to her doctor with a dry cough and shortness of breath that had been bothering her for a month. She denied any recent weight loss or coughing up blood. She is a non-smoker and drinks alcohol moderately. The woman has no significant medical or surgical history and has been a homemaker while her husband works in a shipyard. Her father died of a heart attack at the age of 77. What is the most likely finding on her chest X-ray?

      Your Answer: Central bronchial opacity around the hilar region

      Correct Answer: Intrapulmonary nodules

      Explanation:

      1. Caplan syndrome is a condition characterized by intrapulmonary nodules found peripherally and bilaterally in individuals with both pneumoconiosis and rheumatoid arthritis. The immune system changes associated with rheumatoid arthritis are thought to affect the body’s response to coal dust particles, leading to the development of nodules.
      2. A normal chest X-ray does not rule out the possibility of underlying respiratory disease. If there is a high clinical suspicion, further investigation should be pursued to confirm or rule out potential diagnoses, such as asthma.
      3. Chronic obstructive respiratory disease, which includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema, is characterized by hyperinflated lungs and a flattened diaphragm on chest X-ray. This is due to the loss of elastic recoil in the lungs and airway obstruction caused by inflammation of the bronchi.
      4. Silicosis is a restrictive lung disease that develops in individuals exposed to silica, such as sandblasters and those working in silica mines. Eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes is a characteristic finding on chest X-ray.
      5. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lungs, a non-small cell type of lung cancer, is associated with a central bronchial opacity around the hilar region on chest X-ray. This type of cancer is more common in smokers and may be accompanied by hypercalcemia as a paraneoplastic syndrome.

      Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Patients with rheumatoid arthritis may experience a range of respiratory problems. These can include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, pulmonary nodules, bronchiolitis obliterans, and pleurisy. Additionally, drug therapy for rheumatoid arthritis, such as methotrexate, can lead to complications like pneumonitis. In some cases, patients may develop Caplan’s syndrome, which involves the formation of massive fibrotic nodules due to occupational coal dust exposure. Finally, immunosuppression caused by rheumatoid arthritis treatment can increase the risk of infection, including atypical infections. Overall, it is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential respiratory complications in patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 96 - A 16-year-old male is suspected to have testicular torsion and requires scrotal exploration...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male is suspected to have testicular torsion and requires scrotal exploration surgery. After making an incision in the skin and dartos muscle, what is the next layer of tissue that the surgeon will encounter during dissection?

      Your Answer: External spermatic fascia

      Explanation:

      The layers that will be encountered in the given scenario are as follows, in sequential order:

      1. The skin layer
      2. The dartos fascia and muscle layer
      3. The external spermatic fascia layer
      4. The cremasteric muscle and fascia layer
      5. (Unknown or unspecified layer)

      Anatomy of the Scrotum and Testes

      The scrotum is composed of skin and dartos fascia, with an arterial supply from the anterior and posterior scrotal arteries. It is also the site of lymphatic drainage to the inguinal lymph nodes. The testes are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis, a closed peritoneal sac, with the parietal layer adjacent to the internal spermatic fascia. The testicular arteries arise from the aorta, just below the renal arteries, and the pampiniform plexus drains into the testicular veins. The left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drains into the inferior vena cava. Lymphatic drainage occurs to the para-aortic nodes.

      The spermatic cord is formed by the vas deferens and is covered by the internal spermatic fascia, cremasteric fascia, and external spermatic fascia. The cord contains the vas deferens, testicular artery, artery of vas deferens, cremasteric artery, pampiniform plexus, sympathetic nerve fibers, genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, and lymphatic vessels. The vas deferens transmits sperm and accessory gland secretions, while the testicular artery supplies the testis and epididymis. The cremasteric artery arises from the inferior epigastric artery, and the pampiniform plexus is a venous plexus that drains into the right or left testicular vein. The sympathetic nerve fibers lie on the arteries, while the parasympathetic fibers lie on the vas. The genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve supplies the cremaster. Lymphatic vessels drain to lumbar and para-aortic nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 97 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman undergoes an ABG test. What is the anticipated outcome...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman undergoes an ABG test. What is the anticipated outcome for a healthy pregnant woman?

      Your Answer: Compensated metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Compensated respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, a woman’s increased tidal volume leads to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels, resulting in alkalosis. This is because carbon dioxide generates acid, and reduced levels of it lead to a decrease in acid. The kidneys eventually adapt to this change by reducing the amount of alkaline bicarbonate in the body. Therefore, pregnancy causes a compensated respiratory alkalosis.

      If a woman’s bicarbonate levels remain normal, she would have simple respiratory alkalosis.

      On the other hand, if a woman produces excess acid, she would have metabolic acidosis, which is the opposite of what occurs during pregnancy.

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation: A 5-Step Approach

      Arterial blood gas interpretation is a crucial aspect of patient care, particularly in critical care settings. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a 5-step approach to interpreting arterial blood gas results. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, with a PaO2 on air of less than 10 kPa. The third step is to assess if the patient is acidaemic (pH <7.35) or alkalaemic (pH >7.45).

      The fourth step is to evaluate the respiratory component of the arterial blood gas results. A PaCO2 level greater than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth step is to assess the metabolic component of the arterial blood gas results. A bicarbonate level less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess less than -2mmol/l suggests metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level greater than 26 mmol/l or a base excess greater than +2mmol/l suggests metabolic alkalosis.

      To remember the relationship between pH, PaCO2, and bicarbonate, the acronym ROME can be used. Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis is opposite to the pH level, while metabolic acidosis or alkalosis is equal to the pH level. This 5-step approach and the ROME acronym can aid healthcare professionals in interpreting arterial blood gas results accurately and efficiently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 98 - A 3-year-old child is experiencing recurrent infections that are difficult to clear, leading...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old child is experiencing recurrent infections that are difficult to clear, leading to suspicion of an immunodeficiency. The clinical immunologist orders an immunological profile, which reveals low CD3+ cells, normal CD20+ cells, and normal CD68+ cells. The child's medical history includes surgical repair of a cleft palate and Tetralogy of Fallot within the first year of life. Which pharyngeal pouches are involved in the development of the structure implicated in this child's immunodeficiency?

      Your Answer: Third and fourth

      Explanation:

      The thymus is derived from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches during development.

      In a child with normal levels of B-cells and monocytes but no T-cells, the underlying issue is likely located in the thymus as this is where T-cells are produced. This suggests that the thymus is the structure responsible for the child’s condition.

      The child’s medical history, including a conotruncal heart defect and cleft palate, suggests a possible diagnosis of DiGeorge syndrome.

      During development, the first pouch gives rise to the Eustachian tube, middle ear, mastoid antrum, and inner tympanic membrane. The second pouch forms the middle ear and palatine tonsils. The third pouch develops into the thymus and inferior parathyroid glands, while the fourth pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands, thymus, thyroid C-cells, muscles, and cartilage of the larynx. The fifth pouch is a rudimentary structure that becomes part of the fourth pouch, and the sixth pouch forms the muscles and cartilage of the larynx.

      The Thymus Gland: Development, Structure, and Function

      The thymus gland is an encapsulated organ that develops from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches. It descends to the anterior superior mediastinum and is subdivided into lobules, each consisting of a cortex and a medulla. The cortex is made up of tightly packed lymphocytes, while the medulla is mostly composed of epithelial cells. Hassall’s corpuscles, which are concentrically arranged medullary epithelial cells that may surround a keratinized center, are also present.

      The inferior parathyroid glands, which also develop from the third pharyngeal pouch, may be located with the thymus gland. The thymus gland’s arterial supply comes from the internal mammary artery or pericardiophrenic arteries, while its venous drainage is to the left brachiocephalic vein. The thymus gland plays a crucial role in the development and maturation of T-cells, which are essential for the immune system’s proper functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 99 - A man in his early 40s complains of numbness in his feet. Upon...

    Correct

    • A man in his early 40s complains of numbness in his feet. Upon examination, there is a decrease in sensation and a positive Romberg's test. The source of the problem is determined to be a sexually transmitted infection. What is the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      Tabes dorsalis, a dysfunction of the dorsal column, is a symptom of syphilis in its tertiary stage. It can be identified through a positive Romberg’s test, where the patient may lose balance and fall backwards when standing with their eyes closed. However, this symptom is not linked to Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, or trichomoniasis.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with an incubation period of 9-90 days. The primary stage is characterized by a painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact, along with local lymphadenopathy. Women may not always exhibit visible symptoms. The secondary stage occurs 6-10 weeks after primary infection and presents with systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy, as well as a rash on the trunk, palms, and soles. Other symptoms may include buccal ulcers and genital warts. Tertiary syphilis can lead to granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones, ascending aortic aneurysms, general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil. Congenital syphilis can cause blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 100 - A 45-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon ruling out any musculoskeletal issues, a blood test is conducted which reveals hyperparathyroidism and low serum phosphate levels. It is suspected that the low phosphate levels are due to the inhibitory effect of parathyroid hormone on renal phosphate reabsorption. Which site in the kidney is most likely affected by parathyroid hormone to cause these blood results?

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      The proximal convoluted tubule is responsible for the majority of renal phosphate reabsorption. This occurs through co-transport with sodium and up to two thirds of filtered water. The thin ascending limb of the Loop of Henle is impermeable to water but highly permeable to sodium and chloride, while reabsorption of these ions occurs in the thick ascending limb. Parathyroid hormone is most effective at the proximal convoluted tubule due to its role in regulating phosphate reabsorption.

      The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology

      The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      35.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal System And Skin (3/8) 38%
Neurological System (9/15) 60%
Cardiovascular System (1/9) 11%
Clinical Sciences (5/7) 71%
Gastrointestinal System (3/6) 50%
General Principles (10/22) 45%
Haematology And Oncology (2/8) 25%
Endocrine System (1/3) 33%
Renal System (4/6) 67%
Respiratory System (3/7) 43%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Histology (0/1) 0%
Reproductive System (1/2) 50%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Basic Sciences (0/1) 0%
Passmed