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  • Question 1 - A 41-year-old woman is worried that she may be experiencing premature ovarian failure...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old woman is worried that she may be experiencing premature ovarian failure as she has not had a period for the last six months. What is the definition of premature ovarian failure?

      Your Answer: The onset of menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels before the age of 45 years

      Correct Answer: The onset of menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels before the age of 40 years

      Explanation:

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 2 - A 27 year old pregnant woman is currently experiencing a prolonged second stage...

    Correct

    • A 27 year old pregnant woman is currently experiencing a prolonged second stage of labour due to cephalopelvic disproportion. The midwife is aware of the potential risks to both the mother and foetus and calls for an obstetrician. The obstetrician performs a perineal incision in a mediolateral direction. What is the name of this procedure?

      Your Answer: Episiotomy

      Explanation:

      The procedure being performed is called an episiotomy, which can be done using various techniques. In this case, the medio-lateral approach is being used, which involves making a cut at either the 7 o’clock or 5 o’clock positions. The main reasons for performing this procedure are twofold. Firstly, it helps to prevent the vagina from tearing during childbirth, particularly in cases where the baby’s head is too large for the mother’s pelvis. By making a controlled incision, the risk of the tear extending towards the anus and surrounding muscles is reduced, which could lead to long-term problems such as fecal incontinence. Secondly, the episiotomy creates more space for the baby to pass through, making delivery easier and safer for both the mother and child.

      Understanding Episiotomy

      Episiotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the posterior wall of the vagina and perineum during the second stage of labor. This procedure is done to make it easier for the baby to pass through the birth canal. The incision is made in the area between the vagina and anus, and it can be either midline or mediolateral.

      Episiotomy is usually performed when the baby is in distress, and there is a need to speed up the delivery process. It can also be done to prevent tearing of the perineum, which can be more difficult to repair than an episiotomy. However, the procedure is not without risks, and it can lead to complications such as pain, infection, and bleeding.

      In recent years, there has been a decline in the use of episiotomy, as studies have shown that it does not necessarily reduce the risk of tearing or improve healing time. Many healthcare providers now only perform episiotomy when it is medically necessary. It is important for expectant mothers to discuss the use of episiotomy with their healthcare provider and understand the risks and benefits before making a decision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 3 - A 22-year-old female comes in for a check-up. She is currently 16 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female comes in for a check-up. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has already had her booking visit with the midwives. So far, there have been no complications related to her pregnancy. The tests conducted showed that she has a blood group of A and is Rhesus negative. What is the best course of action for managing her rhesus status?

      Your Answer: No action required

      Correct Answer: Give first dose of anti-D at 28 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old female patient, 14 weeks pregnant, comes in for a routine scan...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient, 14 weeks pregnant, comes in for a routine scan and agrees to have her baby screened for chromosomal disorders using the 'combined test'. The scan and blood test are performed, and a few days later, she is informed that the results indicate a higher likelihood of her baby having Down's syndrome. She is asked to come to the hospital to discuss the results and what to do next.

      What specific combination of results from the combined test would have indicated an increased risk of Down's syndrome for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thickened nuchal translucency, increased B-HCG, reduced PAPP-A

      Explanation:

      To detect Down’s syndrome, doctors recommend the combined test which involves measuring the thickness of the nuchal translucency during the 12-week scan, as well as conducting blood tests for B-HCG and PAPP-A. This test can only be done between 11 and 13+6 weeks of pregnancy. If the nuchal translucency is thickened, B-HCG levels are high, and PAPP-A levels are low, there is an increased likelihood of Down’s syndrome. The other options listed are incorrect. If a woman misses the window for the combined test, she may be offered the triple or quadruple test between 15-20 weeks, which includes AFP as a marker for Down’s syndrome. Low levels of AFP indicate a higher risk of Down’s syndrome.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman visits a sexual health clinic with a concern about a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits a sexual health clinic with a concern about a lesion on her vulva that has been present for 2 weeks. She has no medical history, takes no regular medications, and has no known allergies. On examination, a single ulcer is found on the left labia majora, but the patient reports no pain and the rest of the examination is unremarkable. She has been having regular, unprotected oral and vaginal intercourse with her husband of 4 years. What is the most suitable management for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IM benzathine benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      The correct treatment for primary syphilis, which is often associated with painless ulceration, is IM benzathine benzylpenicillin. This patient’s presentation of a single painless ulcer on a background of unprotected intercourse is consistent with primary syphilis, and it is important to not rule out sexually transmitted infections even if the patient has a regular partner. IM ceftriaxone, oral aciclovir, and oral azithromycin are all incorrect treatment options for primary syphilis.

      Understanding Syphilis: Symptoms and Stages

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through three stages: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The incubation period can range from 9 to 90 days.

      During the primary stage, a painless ulcer called a chancre appears at the site of sexual contact. Local lymph nodes may also become swollen, but this symptom may not be visible in women if the lesion is on the cervix.

      The secondary stage occurs 6 to 10 weeks after the primary infection and is characterized by systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy. A rash may appear on the trunk, palms, and soles, along with buccal ulcers and painless warty lesions on the genitalia.

      In the tertiary stage, granulomatous lesions called gummas may develop on the skin and bones, and there may be an ascending aortic aneurysm. Other symptoms include general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil.

      Congenital syphilis can also occur if a pregnant woman is infected. Symptoms include blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.

      Understanding the symptoms and stages of syphilis is important for early detection and treatment. It is a treatable infection, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with syphilis during...

    Correct

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant has been diagnosed with syphilis during her routine booking visit bloods. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: IM benzathine penicillin G

      Explanation:

      Management of Syphilis

      Syphilis can be effectively managed with intramuscular benzathine penicillin as the first-line treatment. In cases where penicillin cannot be used, doxycycline may be used as an alternative. After treatment, nontreponemal titres such as rapid plasma reagin (RPR) or Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) should be monitored to assess the response. A fourfold decline in titres is often considered an adequate response to treatment.

      It is important to note that the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur following treatment. This reaction is characterized by fever, rash, and tachycardia after the first dose of antibiotic. Unlike anaphylaxis, there is no wheezing or hypotension. The reaction is thought to be due to the release of endotoxins following bacterial death and typically occurs within a few hours of treatment. However, no treatment is needed other than antipyretics if required.

      In summary, the management of syphilis involves the use of intramuscular benzathine penicillin or doxycycline as an alternative. Nontreponemal titres should be monitored after treatment, and the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur but does not require treatment unless symptomatic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old woman receives a Nexplanon implant. What is the duration of its...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman receives a Nexplanon implant. What is the duration of its contraceptive effectiveness?

      Your Answer: 3 years

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP on a Friday afternoon with concerns about...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP on a Friday afternoon with concerns about her chances of getting pregnant. She engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) on Sunday at 9 pm, which was five days ago. The patient has no medical history of note and is not taking any regular medications. However, she reports experiencing abnormal discharge and intermenstrual bleeding for the past two weeks. What emergency contraception method would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Copper coil

      Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate

      Explanation:

      Ulipristal, also known as EllaOne, is a form of emergency hormonal contraception that can be taken within 120 hours after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 9 - A 39-year-old female has been diagnosed with Trichomonas vaginalis. What is the best...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old female has been diagnosed with Trichomonas vaginalis. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Oral metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Oral metronidazole is the recommended treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis.

      Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.

      To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.

      When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old woman who has just discovered that she is pregnant visits you...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who has just discovered that she is pregnant visits you for her initial appointment. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and has no medical history. She reports feeling well so far. During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be 165/100 mmHg. You repeat the measurement twice and observe her blood pressure to be 170/110 and then 160/95 mmHg. You inform her that medication may be necessary to lower her blood pressure. What is the first-line medication for hypertension during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Labetalol is the preferred initial medication for treating hypertension during pregnancy. While methyldopa is an option, it is not recommended as the first choice due to its association with a higher risk of postpartum depression. Ramipril, irbesartan, and bendroflumethiazide should be avoided during pregnancy as they can cause birth defects.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 11 - A 24-year-old teacher attends her first cervical smear appointment. She has never been...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old teacher attends her first cervical smear appointment. She has never been pregnant before, but she had pelvic inflammatory disease that was treated 3 years ago. Currently, she has an intrauterine device in place. She has no other significant medical or social history. During the appointment, she asks what the test is for.
      How would you explain it to her?

      Your Answer: The sample is tested for high-risk HPV first

      Explanation:

      The human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common sexually transmitted infection that can lead to cervical cancer. There are over 100 types of HPV, with types 16 and 18 being high-risk types that are responsible for the majority of cervical cancers. Types 6 and 11 are low-risk types that typically cause benign genital warts. Although not part of the screening process, the Gardasil vaccine can protect against both HPV types 6 and 11.

      Contrary to popular belief, not all samples undergo both HPV testing and cytology. Only samples that test positive for high-risk HPV undergo cytology testing. Samples that test negative for high-risk HPV do not require further testing.

      In the past, samples were first examined under a microscope (cytology) before HPV testing. However, research has shown that testing for high-risk HPV first is more effective. If a woman tests positive for HPV, she will receive a single letter informing her of her HPV status and whether any abnormal cells were detected.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman seeks guidance on the Mirena (intrauterine system). What impact is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman seeks guidance on the Mirena (intrauterine system). What impact is expected on her menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Amenorrhoea in > 90% after 2 months

      Correct Answer: Initially irregular bleeding later followed by light menses or amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 13 - You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to...

    Correct

    • You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to her irregular menstrual cycle and hot flashes. Which of the following situations would provide evidence for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patient age 39 with raised FSH/LH and low oestradiol

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is characterized by irregular menstrual cycles occurring before the age of 45, along with elevated FSH/LH levels and low oestradiol levels in blood tests. The pituitary gland releases more hormones in an attempt to stimulate the failing ovary to produce oestrogen, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, options 1, 3, 4, and 5 are incorrect. Option 5 depicts primary pituitary failure.

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old woman complains of abdominal bloating and is found to have shifting...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of abdominal bloating and is found to have shifting dullness on examination. What is a risk factor for ovarian cancer?

      Your Answer: BRCA2 gene

      Explanation:

      The risk factors for ovarian cancer are associated with a higher frequency of ovulations.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old female, who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first child, arrives...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female, who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first child, arrives at the emergency department. She attended a friend's gathering yesterday. Her friend's child, who was also present at the gathering, has been diagnosed with chickenpox this morning. The patient is uncertain if she has ever had chickenpox before, but reports feeling well at present.

      Upon examination, the patient's vital signs and physical exam are unremarkable, and there is no evidence of chickenpox rash. The patient had a routine appointment with her midwife the day before the gathering, and there were no concerns regarding her pregnancy.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Administer varicella zoster immunoglobulin prophylaxis

      Correct Answer: Check varicella zoster immunoglobulin G levels

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, the first step is to check for antibodies. Chickenpox is caused by a virus called varicella-zoster and can cause a range of symptoms including myalgia and headache, followed by a rash of small macules, clear vesicles, and pustules. The disease can be more severe in adults and can lead to complications such as pneumonia and secondary bacterial infections. In pregnant women, there is a risk of complications for the fetus, particularly after 36 weeks gestation. If a child is born within 7 days of the mother developing the rash, they are at increased risk of severe chickenpox and may require treatment. Significant exposure to chickenpox is defined as being in the same room for 15 minutes or more with someone who has the disease. If a pregnant woman is unsure of their chickenpox exposure, they should be tested for varicella-zoster IgG levels. If positive, they are immune, but if negative, further advice should be sought from obstetrics and gynecology. It is important to act promptly and seek medical advice if a pregnant woman displays any symptoms of chickenpox.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department worried about potential exposure to...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department worried about potential exposure to chickenpox. Earlier today, she had contact with a child who had a fever, sore throat, and itchy blisters on their face. The patient is currently 20 weeks pregnant and is uncertain if she has ever had chickenpox or received the vaccine.
      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Check maternal blood for varicella zoster antibodies

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a non-painful, partially rigid...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a non-painful, partially rigid erection. He mentions noticing it after playing at school in the morning but did not inform anyone. His mother noticed the erection while helping him get ready for his evening soccer practice. The child has no medical or surgical history and is not on any regular medications. What is the initial investigation that should be performed in this case?

      Your Answer: Clotting screen

      Correct Answer: Cavernosal blood gas

      Explanation:

      Cavernosal blood gas analysis is a crucial investigation for patients presenting with priapism. In this case, the patient has a partially erect, non-painful penis that has persisted for over 4 hours, indicating non-ischaemic priapism. This type of priapism is caused by large volume arterial inflow to the penis from trauma or congenital malformation. Confirming whether the priapism is ischaemic or non-ischaemic through cavernosal blood gas analysis is essential for appropriate management. Ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency that requires aspiration of blood from the cavernosa, while non-ischaemic priapism can be managed with observation initially. In paediatric patients, a doppler ultrasound may be a better alternative to cavernosal blood gases due to the potential trauma of the procedure.

      A CT pelvis is not recommended in this case as it would expose the child to unnecessary radiation. Instead, a doppler ultrasound can be used to investigate the arterial/venous blood flow in the penis. A clotting screen may be useful if the patient has a history of bleeding problems or a family history of haemoglobinopathies. However, it should not delay cavernosal blood gas analysis as it is crucial to confirm the type of priapism. Testicular ultrasound is not a useful imaging modality for investigating priapism. If an imaging modality is required to assess penile blood flow, a doppler ultrasound is the preferred option.

      Understanding Priapism: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Priapism is a medical condition characterized by a persistent penile erection that lasts longer than four hours and is not associated with sexual stimulation. There are two types of priapism: ischaemic and non-ischaemic, each with a different pathophysiology. Ischaemic priapism is caused by impaired vasorelaxation, resulting in reduced vascular outflow and trapping of de-oxygenated blood within the corpus cavernosa. Non-ischaemic priapism, on the other hand, is due to high arterial inflow, often caused by fistula formation due to congenital or traumatic mechanisms.

      Priapism can affect individuals of all ages, with a bimodal distribution of age at presentation, with peaks between 5-10 years and 20-50 years of age. The incidence of priapism has been estimated at up to 5.34 per 100,000 patient-years. There are various causes of priapism, including idiopathic, sickle cell disease or other haemoglobinopathies, erectile dysfunction medication, trauma, and drug use (both prescribed and recreational).

      Patients with priapism typically present acutely with a persistent erection lasting over four hours and pain localized to the penis. A history of haemoglobinopathy or medication use may also be present. Cavernosal blood gas analysis and Doppler or duplex ultrasonography can be used to differentiate between ischaemic and non-ischaemic priapism and assess blood flow within the penis. Treatment for ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency and includes aspiration of blood from the cavernosa, injection of a saline flush, and intracavernosal injection of a vasoconstrictive agent. Non-ischaemic priapism, on the other hand, is not a medical emergency and is usually observed as a first-line option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A 36-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She has a medical history of complicated pelvic inflammatory disease that resulted in scarring of her right fallopian tube. Her last menstrual period was six weeks ago. Upon examination, her heart rate is 93 bpm, and her blood pressure is 136/76 mmHg. Palpation of the left iliac fossa causes pain. A urinary pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy, and further investigations reveal a 45 mm left adnexal mass with no heartbeat detected. Her serum b-hCG level is 5200 IU/L. What is the most appropriate course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic salpingotomy and monitoring

      Explanation:

      For women with risk factors for infertility, such as contralateral tube damage, salpingotomy should be considered as the preferred surgical management for ectopic pregnancy. In the case of this patient, who presented with acute-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding 6-8 weeks after her last period, a positive pregnancy test, and ultrasound findings confirming ectopic pregnancy, surgical intervention is necessary. Given the size of the ectopic pregnancy and beta-hCG levels, either laparoscopic salpingectomy or salpingotomy is appropriate. However, since the patient has a history of PID and scarring of the contralateral tube, salpingotomy is the preferred option as it preserves the affected tube and her fertility. Expectant management, laparoscopic salpingectomy, and medical management with methotrexate are not appropriate for this patient’s case.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 19 - Which one of the following statements regarding the typical menstrual cycle is inaccurate?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the typical menstrual cycle is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: A surge of FSH causes ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ovulation is caused by the LH surge.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium begins to proliferate. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol.

      During ovulation, the mature egg is released from the dominant follicle and triggers the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH). This phase occurs on day 14 of the menstrual cycle. Following ovulation, the luteal phase begins, during which the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. This hormone causes the endometrium to change into a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall.

      The cervical mucus also changes throughout the menstrual cycle. Following menstruation, the mucus is thick and forms a plug across the external os. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, and low viscosity. It also becomes ‘stretchy’ – a quality termed spinnbarkeit. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky.

      Basal body temperature is another indicator of the menstrual cycle. It falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the different phases of the menstrual cycle can help individuals track their fertility and plan for pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of thick, white vaginal discharge...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of thick, white vaginal discharge that is causing itchiness and hindering her ability to focus on her studies. She reveals that she has previously attempted to treat these symptoms with over-the-counter remedies, as she has experienced two similar episodes within the past five months. The patient is sexually active and uses both condoms and oral contraceptives. During her visit, a urine dip test is conducted, which yields negative results for pregnancy, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites. What would be the most effective course of action for managing this patient's recurring symptoms?

      Your Answer: Oral fluconazole

      Explanation:

      For patients experiencing recurrent vaginal candidiasis, it is recommended to consider an induction-maintenance regime of oral fluconazole. Over the counter antifungal treatments, such as clotrimazole cream, are typically effective for one-off episodes of thrush. However, in cases of recurrent symptoms, a more comprehensive treatment plan may be necessary. It is important to ensure that the patient is not taking SSRI medications or has hypersensitivity to ‘azole’ antifungal medications before prescribing fluconazole. It should be noted that IM ceftriaxone and oral ciprofloxacin are used to manage Neisseria gonorrhoea, not thrush, and oral metronidazole is used to manage bacterial vaginosis, not thrush.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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