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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with severe back pain that has been ongoing for several hours. He is an ex-smoker with a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia, and has undergone multiple surgeries for Crohn's disease in the past. An urgent abdominal ultrasound is ordered, which reveals a 5.1 cm infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Emergency open repair of the aneurysm
Correct Answer: Elective endovascular repair of the aneurysm
Explanation:Options for Treating an Unruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm in a Symptomatic Patient
When faced with an unruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) in a symptomatic patient, there are several treatment options to consider. In this case, the aneurysm is located infra-renally and is not large enough to warrant surgical intervention based on size alone. However, the patient’s symptoms require action.
Elective endovascular repair of the aneurysm is the best option in this scenario. The patient can be sent home with analgesia and scheduled for endovascular repair in approximately one week. This approach is particularly suitable for patients over 70 years old, who tend to have better outcomes with endovascular repair than with open surgery. Additionally, the patient’s history of Crohn’s surgery puts them at risk for abdominal adhesions, which could complicate open surgery.
Emergency repair of the aneurysm, whether endovascular or open, is generally not recommended in this case since the aneurysm has not ruptured. Monitoring the aneurysm with ultrasound scans at 3-monthly intervals is a reasonable option for asymptomatic patients, but surgical intervention is necessary for symptomatic patients.
Overall, elective endovascular repair is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient’s unruptured AAA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman is admitted to the Coronary Care Unit after being diagnosed with an inferior myocardial infarction. On day 2, she complains of sudden onset of severe pain in her left leg that started 30 minutes ago and is increasing in intensity. She has never had this kind of pain before and, prior to this admission, claims to have been extraordinarily well for her age. On examination, the leg is cool and pale in comparison to the right leg. Femoral pulses are present and of good volume; however, the pulse rhythm is noted to be irregular. The pulses in her right leg are all palpable. There are no pulses felt below the groin on the left leg.
Select the most appropriate diagnosis for this patient.Your Answer: Extensive deep vein thrombosis
Correct Answer: Acute ischaemic limb due to an embolus from a proximal site
Explanation:Causes of Acute Limb Ischaemia
Acute limb ischaemia is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. There are several possible causes of this condition, including embolism from a proximal site, muscle haematoma due to anticoagulant therapy, chronic ischaemic limb, acute ischaemia due to thrombosis of an atherosclerotic plaque, and extensive deep vein thrombosis.
The most common cause of acute limb ischaemia is embolism from a proximal site. This occurs when a clot forms in the heart or a blood vessel and travels down to block a smaller artery in the leg. The classical symptoms of acute limb ischaemia are known as the 6 Ps, which include sudden onset of severe pain, absence of pulses, paraesthesiae, paralysis, pain on passive movement, and a pale, cold limb. Urgent referral to vascular surgeons is required, and angiography should be performed to determine the site and extent of the obstruction. If the limb is threatened by severe ischaemia, urgent revascularisation within 4 hours is necessary.
Muscle haematoma due to anticoagulant therapy is another possible cause of limb ischaemia, but it would not present with sudden-onset pain and absence of pulses. Chronic limb ischaemia would not present with sudden-onset severe pain either. Acute ischaemia due to thrombosis of an atherosclerotic plaque typically gives a more gradual onset of increasing pain and may be preceded by a history of intermittent claudication. Finally, extensive deep vein thrombosis would cause a warm, swollen limb with pulses present.
In conclusion, acute limb ischaemia is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The underlying cause of the condition will determine the appropriate management, and urgent referral to vascular surgeons is necessary in most cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 3
Correct
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A 48-year-old man presents with constant abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The pain came on suddenly. Examination of the abdomen reveals a central mass. You note that he has become clinically shocked.
He has a blood pressure of 76/45, heart rate 150, respiratory rate 28.
Which of these is the most important step in the definitive management of this patient?Your Answer: Arrange for surgery
Explanation:Emergency Management of a Ruptured Aortic Aneurysm
When a patient presents with symptoms of a ruptured aortic aneurysm, immediate action is necessary to save their life. The first step is to prepare the patient for surgery by informing the theatre, a vascular surgeon, and an anaesthetist. Without surgery, the mortality rate for a ruptured aneurysm is 100%. During surgery, a Dacron graft is inserted after clamping the aorta above the rupture.
While waiting for surgery, a blood transfusion may be necessary to replace lost blood. However, surgery is the definitive treatment. It is also important to crossmatch blood and transfuse as needed.
A computed tomography (CT) scan may be useful in diagnosing the condition, but it should not be performed until the patient is haemodynamically stable. In the meantime, obtaining an amylase level is necessary to rule out acute pancreatitis, although the presence of a mass suggests an aneurysm.
In summary, emergency management of a ruptured aortic aneurysm requires prompt action to prepare the patient for surgery, administer blood transfusions, and obtain necessary diagnostic tests. Without immediate intervention, the patient’s life is at risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 4
Correct
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A 60-year-old woman without significant medical history experiences a paradoxical embolic stroke after developing a deep vein thrombosis.
What embryological issue is the most probable cause of this?Your Answer: Patent foramen ovale
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects and Their Risks
Congenital heart defects are abnormalities in the heart’s structure that are present at birth. These defects can cause serious health problems and even death if left untreated. Here are some common congenital heart defects and their associated risks:
Patent Foramen Ovale: This defect occurs when the septum primum and secundum fail to fuse, resulting in a hole in the heart. This can lead to paradoxical emboli, where venous thrombosis enter the systemic circulation and cause serious health problems.
Tetralogy of Fallot: This is a form of congenital cyanotic heart disease that can cause premature cardiac failure and death if not surgically corrected in childhood.
Bicuspid Aortic Valve: This defect is a common cause of premature aortic stenosis, but it cannot cause a venous thrombosis to enter the systemic circulation.
Transposition of the Great Arteries: This is another form of congenital cyanotic heart disease that can cause premature cardiorespiratory failure and death if not surgically corrected in childhood.
Tricuspid Atresia: This defect results in a hypoplastic right ventricle and requires both an atrial and ventricular septal defect to allow pulmonary and systemic blood flow. It must be corrected in childhood to prevent death.
It is important to diagnose and treat congenital heart defects early to prevent serious health problems and premature death.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner complaining of ‘bulging blue veins’ on her legs. While examining the patient’s legs, you note the presence of tortuous, dilated veins, accompanied by brown patches of pigmentation and dry, scaly plaques of skin. A diagnosis of varicose veins is made.
Which vein is most likely to be affected?Your Answer: Popliteal vein
Correct Answer: Long saphenous vein
Explanation:Understanding the Venous System and Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are a common condition that affects the superficial venous system. The long saphenous vein, which ascends the medial side of the leg and passes anteriorly to the medial malleolus of the ankle, is the most common cause of varicose veins. However, insufficiencies in the deep venous system, such as the femoral vein and popliteal vein, can also contribute to chronic venous insufficiency.
It is important to note that not all superficial veins are affected by varicose veins. The cephalic vein, for example, is an upper limb vein and is not likely to be affected. The short saphenous vein, which ascends the posterior side of the leg and passes posteriorly to the lateral malleolus of the ankle, can also cause varicose veins but is not the most common distribution.
Understanding the different veins in the venous system and their potential for insufficiency can help in the diagnosis and treatment of varicose veins and other venous conditions. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of a burning sensation in her legs. She reports that her legs are very sore and uncomfortable. Upon examination, there is a hard, tender, bulging of veins in both her thighs and the calf region, with hyperpigmentation and eczema of both the legs and an ulcer over the medial malleolus. What would prevent radiofrequency ablation from being performed as an initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Ulcer over the medial malleolus
Correct Answer: Pregnancy
Explanation:Interventional Treatment for Varicose Veins and Associated Complications
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence guidelines, interventional treatment for varicose veins during pregnancy is not recommended. However, compression hosiery can be used to alleviate leg swelling symptoms.
Eczema of the lower limbs in varicose veins may indicate chronic venous insufficiency. In such cases, immediate radiofrequency ablation is necessary.
Hard, painful veins are a sign of superficial venous thrombosis, a complication of varicose veins. Immediate intervention is required if there is evidence of this condition.
Hyperpigmentation of the lower limbs in varicose veins also suggests chronic venous insufficiency. In such cases, radiofrequency ablation is indicated.
An ulcer over the medial malleolus, particularly a chronic, non-healing ulcer in varicose veins, is a strong indication of chronic venous insufficiency. If eczema, non-healing leg ulcers, or hyperpigmentation are present, immediate radiofrequency ablation is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 7
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of painless, gradual, one-sided swelling in his right leg. He reports that this is more noticeable in the evenings. During clinical examination, the right leg is swollen, but there is no redness or excessive warmth upon touch. He is in good health otherwise. He had undergone surgery in the past to treat prostate cancer.
What is the initial investigation that should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Lymphoscintigram
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Lymphoedema: Choosing the Right One
Lymphoedema is a condition characterized by swelling in the limbs due to the accumulation of lymphatic fluid. While clinical examination can often diagnose lymphoedema, further investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other possible causes. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be requested and their relevance in diagnosing lymphoedema:
Lymphoscintigram: This is the first-line investigation to confirm lymphoedema. It involves injecting a radioactive tracer into the affected limb and then imaging the lymphatic system to assess the flow of lymphatic fluid.
Blood smear: A blood smear may be requested if filariasis is suspected as a cause of lymphoedema. This test involves examining a blood sample under a microscope to look for the presence of microfilariae, which are the larvae of filarial worms.
Computed tomography (CT) scan: CT scans are less useful in evaluating lymphoedema as they do not provide specific information about soft tissues.
Genetic testing: Genetic testing is useful in diagnosing primary lymphoedema, which can be caused by genetic mutations. However, it is less likely to be relevant in cases of secondary lymphoedema, which is more commonly caused by surgery, infection, or trauma.
Ultrasound: While not useful in diagnosing lymphoedema, ultrasound may be helpful in ruling out other possible causes of limb swelling, such as deep vein thrombosis.
In summary, the choice of diagnostic test for lymphoedema depends on the suspected cause and the clinical presentation of the patient. A lymphoscintigram is the most useful test for confirming lymphoedema, while other tests may be requested to rule out other possible causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old postal worker underwent a routine screening appointment for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) and was diagnosed with an AAA measuring 4.2 cm at its widest diameter. What would be the appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Annual monitoring with ultrasound scanning
Explanation:Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that affects men aged 65 and over, putting them at risk of developing an enlarged aorta. To manage this condition, different approaches are taken depending on the size of the aneurysm.
Annual Monitoring with Ultrasound Scanning
Men aged 65 and over are offered screening via ultrasound scanning during the year they turn 65. Patients diagnosed with a small AAA (3.0-4.4 cm in diameter) are invited to return annually for monitoring. They are also given lifestyle advice, including smoking cessation, diet, and exercise.Discharge with Reassurance
Patients with a normal result (measurement of <3 cm in diameter) are discharged and do not require further screening tests as the condition is unlikely to progress to a dangerous extent. Three-Monthly Monitoring with Ultrasound Scanning
Patients with a medium-sized AAA (4.5-5.4 cm in diameter) are offered three-monthly ultrasound scanning.Referral to a Specialist Surgeon within Two Weeks for Further Assessment
Patients with a large AAA (5.5 cm or more in diameter) are referred to a specialist surgeon to be seen within two weeks to discuss treatment options. Surgical repair is usually advised, as long as there are no contraindications to surgery.Immediate Admission under a Surgical Team for Surgical Repair
Emergency repair is not indicated for an aneurysm measuring 4.2 cm. Emergency repair is usually only indicated if a patient has a leaking or ruptured aortic aneurysm.Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) According to Size
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 9
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to the vascular clinic with a complaint of leg pain during exercise. He reports that the pain occurs in both calves, with the left side being slightly worse than the right. The pain starts after walking a few meters and subsides when he sits down. The patient has a medical history of type II diabetes mellitus, hypercholesterolemia, hypertension, and glaucoma. He has a 40 pack-year smoking history but quit smoking ten years ago when he was diagnosed with diabetes.
You conduct an Ankle: Brachial Pressure Index (ABPI) test on the man and find that his left leg ABPI is 0.8, while his right leg ABPI is 0.9. What would be your initial approach to managing this patient?Your Answer: Optimise control of diabetes, ensure he is compliant with his statin, supervised exercise programme for 3 month and prescribe 75 mg of clopidogrel daily
Explanation:Management of Intermittent Claudication in a Patient with Multiple Risk Factors
Intermittent claudication is a common symptom of arterial disease and can be caused by multiple risk factors, including smoking, diabetes, and hypercholesterolaemia. In managing a patient with intermittent claudication, it is important to first assess their ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) measurement to determine the severity of their arterial disease.
For patients with ABPI measurements between 0.6-0.9, first-line treatment involves managing risk factors and encouraging supervised exercise for three months. This patient should be optimally controlled for diabetes and compliant with their statin medication. Additionally, they should be prescribed 75 mg of clopidogrel daily to reduce the risk of blood clots.
A duplex USS arteriogram of both legs should be conducted to assess the extent of arterial disease. If necessary, a contrast-enhanced MRI may be used to plan revascularisation. However, surgery is typically only considered as a third-line treatment option.
It is important to note that analgesia is not the first-line treatment for intermittent claudication. Instead, addressing risk factors and enrolling in a supervised exercise programme for three months should be prioritised. Patients should be encouraged to exercise for two hours a week, to the maximum point of pain.
In summary, managing intermittent claudication in a patient with multiple risk factors involves a comprehensive approach that addresses risk factors, encourages exercise, and may involve further diagnostic testing and medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presented to the clinic with occasional abdominal pain, for which his general practitioner could find no reason. After your assessment, you organise an ultrasound scan of the abdomen to rule out any pathology and incidentally find out that the patient has an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
Which statement best applies to an AAA?Your Answer: Patients presenting with a leak should be taken to theatre immediately without assessment by computed tomography (CT) scan
Correct Answer: Surveillance is carried out with CT scanning or ultrasound
Explanation:Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Diagnosis, Monitoring, and Treatment
Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious medical condition that require careful monitoring and prompt treatment. Diagnosis is typically done through ultrasound screening, with men being invited for screening during their 65th year. Once an AAA is detected, monitoring is done through CT scanning or ultrasound, with the frequency of scans increasing as the aneurysm grows in size. If a leak is suspected, immediate surgical intervention is necessary, although a CT scan may be performed first to assess the extent of the leak. Surgery is typically done when the aneurysm reaches a diameter of 5.5 cm or greater, with repair options including open surgery with a synthetic graft or endovascular repair. Patients may present with central and upper abdominal pain radiating to their back, and misdiagnosis as renal colic can be fatal. Understanding the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of AAAs is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Vascular
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