00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - Which one of the following statements regarding the FRAX risk score is accurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the FRAX risk score is accurate?

      Your Answer: Estimates the 20-year risk of a patient sustaining a fragility fracture

      Correct Answer: Valid for patients aged 40-90 years

      Explanation:

      Patients between the ages of 40 and 90 are eligible to use FRAX.

      Assessing Risk for Osteoporosis

      Osteoporosis is a concern due to the increased risk of fragility fractures. To determine which patients are at risk and require further investigation, NICE produced guidelines in 2012. They recommend assessing all women aged 65 years and above and all men aged 75 years and above. Younger patients should be assessed if they have risk factors such as previous fragility fracture, current or frequent use of oral or systemic glucocorticoid, history of falls, family history of hip fracture, other causes of secondary osteoporosis, low BMI, smoking, and alcohol intake.

      NICE suggests using a clinical prediction tool such as FRAX or QFracture to assess a patient’s 10-year risk of developing a fracture. FRAX estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and is valid for patients aged 40-90 years. QFracture estimates the 10-year risk of fragility fracture and includes a larger group of risk factors. BMD assessment is recommended in some situations, such as before starting treatments that may have a rapid adverse effect on bone density or in people aged under 40 years who have a major risk factor.

      Interpreting the results of FRAX involves categorizing the results into low, intermediate, or high risk. If the assessment was done without a BMD measurement, an intermediate risk result will prompt a BMD test. If the assessment was done with a BMD measurement, the results will be categorized into reassurance, consider treatment, or strongly recommend treatment. QFracture doesn’t automatically categorize patients into low, intermediate, or high risk, and the raw data needs to be interpreted alongside local or national guidelines.

      NICE recommends reassessing a patient’s risk if the original calculated risk was in the region of the intervention threshold for a proposed treatment and only after a minimum of 2 years or when there has been a change in the person’s risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      69.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old male presents concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.

    His family history...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male presents concerned about his risk of developing diabetes.

      His family history reveals that his mother and maternal uncle both have diabetes. He has central obesity with a waist measurement of 110 cm. On examination, his blood pressure is 130/82 mmHg, his BMI is 30.2 kg/m2.

      His investigations reveal:

      Fasting cholesterol 5.2 mmol/L (<5.2) 200 mg/dL (<200)

      Triglycerides 1.4 mmol/L (0.45-1.69) 124 mg/dL (40-150)

      HDL cholesterol 1.1 mmol/L (>1.55) 42 mg/dL (>60)

      Fasting glucose 6.2 mmol/L (3.0-6.0) 111 mg/dL (54-108)

      In addition to his waist measurement which one of this man's observations is a criterion for the diagnosis of the metabolic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Fasting plasma glucose of 6.2 mmol/L (110 mg/dL)

      Correct Answer: Triglyceride concentration of 1.4 mmol/L (124 mg/dL)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Metabolic Syndrome

      The metabolic syndrome is a group of features that increase the risk of cardiovascular disease and diabetes. The latest definition by the IDF includes central obesity (waist circumference of ≥94 cm for men and ≥80 cm for women) plus any two of the following: hypertriglyceridemia (>1.7 mmol/L), low HDL concentration (<1.03 mmol/L for males and <1.29 mmol/L for females), high blood pressure (≥130/85 mmHg or on treatment for hypertension), and fasting glucose (≥5.6 mmol/L or known to have type 2 diabetes). In our patient's case, the elevated fasting glucose of 6.2 mmol/L fulfills this diagnostic criterion. It is important to note that BMI is not a factor in the diagnostic criteria, as waist circumference is a more significant predictor of risk. Understanding the metabolic syndrome and its diagnostic criteria is crucial in identifying and managing individuals at risk for cardiovascular disease and diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old woman has had type 2 diabetes for six years.
    She is obese...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman has had type 2 diabetes for six years.
      She is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2. There is no family history of diabetes and she is otherwise well. She is highly motivated to gain control of her diabetes. She has managed to lose about 4 kg in weight over the last year with a combination of calorie restriction and exercise; she enjoys swimming and yoga.
      Her current medication is:
      Metformin 500 mg qds
      Gliclazide 80 mg daily
      Aspirin 75 mg OD
      She says she would prefer not to take any additional medication.
      Her BP is 135/90 mmHg. She has a good record of self-monitoring of blood glucose with an average fasting glucose of about 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL). She attends for review and her current HbA1c is 62 mmol/mol (7.8%).
      What would be the best advice for this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Management of Type 2 Diabetes in Adults

      According to NICE guidelines, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be based on the effectiveness, safety, and tolerability of drug treatment, as well as the individual’s clinical circumstances, preferences, and needs. In the case of a patient who has had success with lifestyle changes, adding anti-obesity treatment may not be the most appropriate option. Instead, strategies for maintaining the changes already made should be considered. Increasing the dosage of gliclazide may be a better option than increasing Metformin, which can often be difficult for patients to tolerate. However, careful monitoring is necessary as gliclazide can increase weight. Insulin is also an option, but only if the patient is not on maximum oral hypoglycaemic agents. Overall, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be tailored to the individual’s specific circumstances and needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old man is discharged from hospital after suffering an acute coronary syndrome....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man is discharged from hospital after suffering an acute coronary syndrome. He has type 2 diabetes and takes metformin. Diabetic control had previously been good.
      What is the most appropriate statement to make regarding this patient's management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Statins should always be started unless they are contraindicated

      Explanation:

      Correct Management of Type 2 Diabetes and Cardiovascular Disease: Common Misconceptions

      There are several misconceptions regarding the management of type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease that need to be addressed. One common misconception is that statins should only be started if a formal risk assessment is conducted. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence recommends that statin treatment with atorvastatin 80 mg should always be started for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease, unless contraindicated.

      Another misconception is that blood pressure should be 150/80 mmHg or less. The target for blood pressure in type 2 diabetes is actually 140/90 mmHg, and following a myocardial infarction, it may be prudent to aim even lower.

      It is also incorrect to assume that insulin should be started for all patients with type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. Insulin should only be used if clinically indicated due to poor diabetic control.

      Contrary to popular belief, the usual cardiac rehabilitation program is not contraindicated for patients with type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease. All patients should be given advice about and offered a cardiac rehabilitation program with an exercise component.

      Finally, the use of angiotensin-converting-enzyme (ACE) inhibition is not contraindicated in the first six weeks after a myocardial infarction. In fact, people who have had a myocardial infarction with or without diabetes should normally be discharged from the hospital with ACE inhibitor treatment, provided there are no contraindications.

      In summary, it is important to dispel these common misconceptions and ensure that patients with type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease receive appropriate and evidence-based management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old female who saw the nurse a few days ago complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female who saw the nurse a few days ago complaining of longstanding lethargy and vague abdominal pains comes to see you. She has lost a little weight and has also been feeling tearful and 'not herself'. The nurse arranged some blood tests and booked her in with you for review.

      She has a past medical history of asthma, migraine and vitiligo. She doesn't take any regular medications and her only recent prescription is for a salbutamol inhaler which she uses infrequently.

      On examination, you notice that her palmar creases are pigmented as is her buccal mucosa. Her blood pressure is 108/88 mmHg sitting and 88/62 mmHg standing. Otherwise you cannot elicit any other focal findings.

      The blood tests show:
      Sodium 131 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 5.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 11.1 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 96 µmol/L (60-110)
      Random glucose 3.1

      What is the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cushing's syndrome

      Explanation:

      A 45-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently taking sulfasalazine, paracetamol, and ibuprofen for their condition. They have been experiencing low mood and have tried non-pharmaceutical interventions with little success. The patient now reports that their depressive symptoms are worsening, prompting the GP to consider starting them on an antidepressant.

      Which antidepressant would pose the highest risk of causing a GI bleed in this patient, necessitating the use of a protein pump inhibitor as a precautionary measure?

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32 year old Welsh woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old Welsh woman presents to her GP complaining of fatigue and depression that has been ongoing for a month. During her visit, her blood pressure is measured at 126/82 mmHg while lying down and 94/60 mmHg while standing up. Blood tests reveal mild hyponatremia and mild hyperkalemia. The GP orders a short synacthen test, which yields the following results: (expected 30 minute level >580 nmol/l)

      Baseline cortisol 300 nmol/l
      30 minute cortisol 350 nmol/L

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely underlying cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune adrenalitis

      Explanation:

      This individual’s diagnosis of Addison’s disease is confirmed by a failed short synacthen test, which measures the adrenal glands’ response to synthetic adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) analogue.

      Autoimmune disease is the leading cause of Addison’s disease in developed countries, while tuberculosis (TB) is the most prevalent cause globally. However, given the patient’s Welsh heritage and lack of TB risk factors, TB is less probable in this scenario. Metastatic disease, amyloidosis, and Waterhouse Friderichsen syndrome are all less frequent causes of Addison’s disease.

      Addison’s disease is the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, with autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands being the main culprit, accounting for 80% of cases. This results in reduced production of cortisol and aldosterone. Symptoms of Addison’s disease include lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, and salt-craving. Hyperpigmentation, especially in palmar creases, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycemia, and hyponatremia and hyperkalemia may also be observed. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, leading to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.

      Other primary causes of hypoadrenalism include tuberculosis, metastases (such as bronchial carcinoma), meningococcal septicaemia (Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome), HIV, and antiphospholipid syndrome. Secondary causes include pituitary disorders, such as tumours, irradiation, and infiltration. Exogenous glucocorticoid therapy can also lead to hypoadrenalism.

      It is important to note that primary Addison’s disease is associated with hyperpigmentation, while secondary adrenal insufficiency is not.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine check-up. During the examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine check-up. During the examination, the GP observes truncal obesity, skin striae, and extensive bruising on her arms. The GP suspects Cushing syndrome.
      What is the most probable cause of Cushing syndrome in this patient? Choose ONE answer.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She is taking steroids

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Cushing Syndrome

      Cushing syndrome is a condition characterized by an abnormally high level of cortisol in the body, leading to various symptoms such as thin skin, easy bruising, osteoporosis, central obesity, hypertension, muscle wasting, fatigue, and diabetes. The most common cause of Cushing syndrome is the use of exogenous glucocorticoids, which are prescribed for respiratory, oncological, and rheumatological conditions. Endogenous causes, which are rare, can be corticotropin-dependent or corticotropin-independent. Corticotropin-independent causes are usually due to a unilateral tumour, such as an adrenal adenoma, while corticotropin-dependent causes are often caused by a pituitary adenoma, known as Cushing’s disease. In rare cases, patients may develop tumours that secrete ectopic corticotropin, such as small-cell lung cancer. Understanding the various causes of Cushing syndrome is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found in a coma....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus is found in a coma. He is given intravenous glucose to revive him. He tells the physician that he was unaware that he had hypoglycaemia.
      Select from this list the single correct statement about hypoglycaemia in a diabetic patient.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemic unawareness is a contraindication to driving

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemic unawareness, where a person with diabetes is unable to recognize the symptoms of low blood sugar, is a reason why they should not drive according to the Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency (DVLA). To be considered fit to drive, a person with diabetes must have experienced no more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia in the past year and be aware of the symptoms. Symptoms of mild hypoglycaemia include hunger, anxiety, irritability, palpitations, sweating, and tingling lips. As blood glucose levels drop further, symptoms may progress to weakness, lethargy, impaired vision, confusion, and irrational behavior. Severe hypoglycaemia can result in seizures and loss of consciousness, and between 4 and 10% of deaths in people with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus are due to hypoglycaemia. Recurrent exposure to hypoglycaemia can lead to a loss of early warning symptoms, making it more difficult for a person to recognize when their blood sugar is low. While most patients with impaired awareness of hypoglycaemia can recognize their symptoms and correct the hypoglycaemia with a small amount of fast-acting carbohydrate taken by mouth, severe hypoglycaemia occurs when patients require treatment by another person because they are incapable of self-management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell with increased respiratory rate, drowsiness and thirst.

      On examination she is pyrexial 38°C, just about communicating, and smells of acetone. Her BP is 100/60 mmHg with a pulse of 105, her glucose is 27.5.

      How would you manage her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review next day

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Ketoacidosis: A Serious Condition Requiring Hospital Management

      Diabetic ketoacidosis is a life-threatening condition that occurs due to absolute insulin deficiency, which is almost exclusively seen in type 1 diabetes. It carries a mortality rate of up to 5% and requires immediate hospital management.

      The accumulation of ketones in the body leads to metabolic acidosis, which is compensated for by respiratory mechanisms. Hyperkalaemia is often present at the time of presentation, but it can be resolved quickly with insulin therapy and fluid resuscitation.

      It is important to note that starting antibiotics or increasing insulin in a domiciliary setting is not appropriate for managing diabetic ketoacidosis. This condition requires prompt medical attention and close monitoring to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are a healthcare professional working in a general practice. Your next patient is a 70-year-old man who has come for a follow-up appointment to review his recent blood test results. During his last visit, you had expressed concern about his elevated plasma glucose levels and advised him to make some lifestyle changes. He informs you that he has made some dietary modifications and has started walking to the nearby stores instead of driving.

      The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease, osteoarthritis, and chronic kidney disease. His fasting blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 146 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 235 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400)
      - White blood cells (WBC): 7.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0)
      - Sodium (Na+): 139 mmol/L (normal range: 135-145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.4 mmol/L (normal range: 3.5-5.0)
      - Urea: 10.4 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 216 µmol/L (normal range: 55-120)
      - Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR): 28 ml/minute
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): <5 mg/L (normal range: <5)
      - Plasma glucose: 7.3 mmol/L (normal range: <6 mmol/L)
      - Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): 54 mmol/mol

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's HbA1c levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sitagliptin

      Explanation:

      This individual has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, as evidenced by elevated blood glucose levels on two separate occasions and an HbA1c measurement of >48 mmol/mol. Despite receiving lifestyle advice, medication is necessary for treatment.

      Due to an eGFR of <30ml/minute, metformin is not a suitable treatment option. Instead, sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is the most appropriate choice. While DESMOND, an NHS course aimed at educating individuals with type 2 diabetes and their families, may be beneficial for ongoing management, it doesn’t replace the need for medication in this case. Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/2) 0%
Passmed