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Question 1
Correct
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At what age would a typical toddler develop the skill to walk without any support?
Your Answer: 13-15 months
Explanation:Gross Motor Developmental Milestones
Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones. The table below summarizes the major gross motor developmental milestones from 3 months to 4 years of age.
At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.
It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and knee pain following a minor fall from her bike. Upon examination, her knee appears normal but there is limited range of motion at the hip joint. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis: Symptoms and Risk Factors
Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that commonly affects obese adolescent boys with a positive family history. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head from the femoral neck, which can lead to a range of symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include an externally rotated hip and antalgic gait, decreased internal rotation, thigh atrophy (depending on the chronicity of symptoms), and hip, thigh, and knee pain.
It is important to note that 25% of cases are bilateral, meaning that both hips may be affected. This condition can be particularly debilitating for young people, as it can limit their mobility and cause significant discomfort.
Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis, as early diagnosis and treatment can help to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of central abdominal pain and haematuria that have been present for a week. He also reports experiencing pain in both knees. Upon examination, a non-blanching purpuric rash is observed on his legs and buttocks. Urine dipstick results show blood ++ and protein +. Additionally, his renal function is abnormal with urea levels at 26.3 mmol/l and creatinine levels at 289 ÎŒmol/l. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: HenochâSchönlein purpura
Explanation:Distinguishing Henoch-Schönlein Purpura from Other Conditions: A Brief Overview
Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a condition that can present with a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, non-blanching purpuric rash, arthralgia, haematuria, and renal impairment. It is important to distinguish HSP from other conditions that may have similar symptoms.
Nephrotic syndrome, for example, is characterized by significant proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema, which are not present in HSP. Urinary tract infection, on the other hand, is not associated with a purpuric rash and typically presents with urinary symptoms and positive nitrite and leukocyte dipstick tests.
Goodpasture’s syndrome is a systemic vasculitis that can cause acute renal failure and pulmonary haemorrhage, but it is not typically associated with a purpuric rash. Appendicitis, which can cause an acute abdomen, is unlikely to cause pain for a week and does not typically present with a rash.
In summary, recognizing the unique symptoms of HSP and distinguishing it from other conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Each one of the following statements regarding ADHD is correct, except:
Your Answer: Usually develops before 3 years of age
Correct Answer: The majority of children have normal or increased intelligence
Explanation:Understanding Autism Spectrum Disorder
Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behaviour. It is usually diagnosed during early childhood, but symptoms may manifest later. ASD can occur in individuals with any level of intellectual ability, and its manifestations range from subtle problems to severe disabilities. The prevalence of ASD has increased over time due to changes in definitions and increased awareness, with recent estimates suggesting a prevalence of 1-2%. Boys are three to four times more likely to be diagnosed with ASD than girls, and around 50% of children with ASD have an intellectual disability.
Individuals with ASD may exhibit a broad range of clinical manifestations, including impaired social communication and interaction, repetitive behaviours, interests, and activities, and associated conditions such as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and epilepsy. Although there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioural management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as early educational and behavioural interventions, pharmacological interventions for associated conditions, and family support and counselling. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life for individuals with ASD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. She has been experiencing pain in her left hip for the past two weeks and has been limping. Upon examination, there is a slight decrease in the range of motion in her left hip joint, but no signs of swelling or effusion. Her right hip appears normal. Blood tests, including cultures, are negative. What is the most suitable initial management option for the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reassurance and follow-up
Explanation:Perthes’ disease is a condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4 and 8. It is more common in boys and presents with symptoms such as hip pain, limping, and reduced range of motion. However, if Perthes’ disease occurs in children under the age of 6, it has a good prognosis and can be managed with observation and follow-up. Therefore, this is the preferred management choice. Open reduction and internal fixation, splinting, and the use of a Pavlik harness are not appropriate treatments for Perthes’ disease in children under 6 years old.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman gives birth to a 37-week gestational age male neonate. Within 6 hours after delivery, the neonate shows signs of excessive respiratory efforts and tachypnoea. There is grunting and intercostal retraction. A chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary oedema with a ground-glass appearance. What antenatal examination findings are most likely to have been observed in the mother?
Your Answer: Positive indirect Coombsâ test
Correct Answer: Fasting blood sugar of 14.0 mmol/l
Explanation:The neonate in question has a fasting blood sugar level of 14.0 mmol/l and is suffering from neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS). This is a common condition in premature infants, and those born to diabetic mothers are at an increased risk due to delayed lung maturation. An elevated total thyroxine concentration is a normal response to pregnancy and is not related to NRDS. Maternal hypocalcaemia also has no relation to NRDS. A positive indirect Coombs’ test indicates a risk of Rh isoimmunisation in the fetus, which can lead to complications such as erythroblastosis fetalis and jaundice, but is not directly related to NRDS. Elevated titres of anti-nuclear and anti-SSA antibodies are associated with maternal systemic lupus erythematosus and fetal conduction heart block, but again, this is not directly related to NRDS unless it leads to preterm birth. Overall, prematurity and maternal diabetes are the major risk factors for NRDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl comes to the GP with a sudden onset of limp. She appears to be in good health. During the examination, she displays an antalgic gait. An MRI scan reveals decreased blood flow to the left hip, leading the doctor to suspect Perthes' disease. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Surgical repair
Correct Answer: Observation
Explanation:Perthes’ disease has a favorable prognosis when it presents before the age of 6, and observation is the only necessary treatment. This question confirms the diagnosis of Perthes’ disease through MRI, which shows reduced blood flow to the hip joint and causes hip pain and limping. Surgical intervention is only necessary for children over the age of 6. Septic arthritis, which requires treatment with flucloxacillin, is not the diagnosis in this case as the patient is not showing systemic symptoms. The use of a Pavlik harness is reserved for developmental dysplasia of the hip.
Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes in for a postnatal check-up after an emergency C-section 10 weeks ago. She has also scheduled her baby's first set of routine immunizations for today. She inquires about the MenB vaccine and when it is typically administered. Can you provide this information?
Your Answer: At 2, 4 and 12-13 months
Explanation:The MenB vaccine is administered at 2, 4, and 12-13 months and has been included in the routine vaccination schedule in the UK, making it the first country to do so. The vaccine is given at 2 and 4 months, with a booster at 12 months, replacing the MenC vaccine that was previously given at 3 months. Additionally, individuals with certain long-term health conditions, such as asplenia or splenic dysfunction, sickle cell anaemia, coeliac disease, and complement disorders, are recommended to receive the MenB vaccine due to their increased risk of complications from meningococcal disease. It is important to note that the vaccine does not contain live bacteria and therefore cannot cause meningococcal disease.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.
It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Correct
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You are discussing conception with two parents who both have achondroplasia. They ask you what the chances are that a child of theirs would be of average height. What is the appropriate answer?
Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding Achondroplasia
Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by a mutation in the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR-3) gene, which leads to abnormal cartilage development. This results in short stature, with affected individuals having short limbs (rhizomelia) and shortened fingers (brachydactyly). They also have a large head with frontal bossing and a narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis.
In most cases, achondroplasia occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age at the time of conception being a risk factor. There is no specific therapy for achondroplasia, but some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures. These procedures involve the application of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures, with a clearly defined need and endpoint being essential for success.
Overall, understanding achondroplasia is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. While there is no cure, there are treatment options available that can improve quality of life for those living with achondroplasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 3-month-old infant is presented to the emergency department with abdominal distension and tenderness. The parents report observing a small amount of blood in the diaper and some bilious vomit. They have also noticed reduced movement and difficulty feeding over the past few days. The infant was born prematurely at 29 weeks after premature rupture of membranes. What investigation is most likely to provide a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stool sample
Correct Answer: Abdominal x-ray
Explanation:The definitive test for diagnosing necrotising enterocolitis is an abdominal x-ray. If the x-ray shows pneumatosis intestinalis (gas in the gut wall), it confirms the presence of NEC. Treatment involves stopping oral feeds, providing barrier nursing, and administering antibiotics such as cefotaxime and vancomycin. In severe cases, a laparotomy may be necessary, but this is a poor prognostic indicator and is not performed for diagnostic purposes. While a stool culture is often performed in cases of NEC, it is not a definitive test. It is important not to confuse NEC with intussusception, which typically affects older children (5-12 months) and presents with a distended abdomen and the passage of red currant jelly stool. In such cases, an ultrasound scan is usually the initial investigation and will show a target sign. A digital rectal exam is not a diagnostic test and only confirms the presence of feces in the rectum.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 6-week-old baby girl starts to experience forceful vomiting after every feeding. She had been gaining weight normally prior to this. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:There are several medical conditions that can affect newborns and infants, including pyloric stenosis, congenital duodenal atresia, Hirschsprung’s disease, tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF), and necrotising enterocolitis (NEC). Pyloric stenosis is a condition where the circular pyloric muscle becomes hypertrophied, leading to non-bilious, projectile vomiting and constipation. Congenital duodenal atresia is the absence or closure of a portion of the lumen of the duodenum, causing bile-stained vomiting, abdominal distension, and inability to pass meconium. Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital defect where ganglion cells fail to migrate into the hindgut, leading to functional intestinal obstruction and failure to pass meconium. TOF is a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia, causing choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding. NEC is a condition primarily seen in premature infants, where portions of the bowel undergo necrosis, causing bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, and bloody stools. It is important to recognize the symptoms of these conditions early on to ensure prompt treatment and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl visits your GP practice seeking contraception. After counseling her, you both agree that the implant would be the most suitable option. You believe that she has the ability to make this decision and give her consent for the insertion. However, during previous consultations, you have found her to lack capacity for certain decisions and have involved her parents. According to the GMC, what is necessary to proceed with the implant insertion?
Your Answer: Just the patient's consent.
Explanation:Capacity to make decisions is dependent on both time and the individual’s ability to make decisions. If the patient did not have the capacity to make a decision in the past, but currently has the capacity to do so, their consent is the only one required. It is advisable to involve parents in the decision-making process for pediatric patients, especially in cases involving contraception. However, if the patient is not convinced, the treatment can still proceed as long as they have the capacity to make the decision. If there are doubts, it is good practice to involve another healthcare team member, but if the patient is deemed capable of making the decision, their capacitous consent is sufficient according to the GMC. There is no requirement for a time gap between consultations to allow for decision-making.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A child is born at 28 weeks gestation and is transferred to the neonatal unit. After a few hours, the child shows signs of nasal flaring, chest wall indrawing, and appears to have jaundice. The observations show a heart rate of 75/min, a respiratory rate of 68/min, and a temperature of 38.2ÂșC. What is the most common organism responsible for the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Group A streptococcus
Correct Answer: Group B streptococcus
Explanation:The leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is infection by group B streptococcus.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and common presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli, accounting for approximately two-thirds of cases. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can vary from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
Neonatal Sepsis: Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Neonatal sepsis is a serious infection that affects newborn babies within the first 28 days of life. It can be caused by a variety of bacteria and viruses, with GBS and E. coli being the most common. Premature and low birth weight babies, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy, are at higher risk. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and diagnosis is usually established through blood culture. Treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics, with duration depending on ongoing investigations and clinical picture. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid and electrolyte status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 14
Correct
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You are an FY1 on the neonatal ward round with your consultant. Whilst seeing a newborn that has been admitted with respiratory distress, the consultant you're with decides to quiz you on the pathophysiology.
'What is the most likely organism to cause respiratory distress syndrome in premature infants?Your Answer: Parainfluenza virus
Explanation:The majority of croup cases are caused by the parainfluenza virus, while bronchiolitis is commonly caused by RSV. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is associated with pseudomonas, and Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought to the GP by concerned parents who have noticed swelling of the foreskin during urination and inability to retract it. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage this condition?
Your Answer: Reassure parents and review in 6-months
Explanation:Forcible retraction should be avoided in younger children with phimosis, as it can lead to scar formation. It is important to note that phimosis is normal in children under the age of 2 and typically resolves on its own over time. Therefore, there is no urgent need for referral to paediatrics or paediatric surgeons. While lubricant is not helpful in managing phimosis, topical steroids have been found to be beneficial.
Phimosis in Children: When to Seek Treatment
Phimosis is a condition where the foreskin of the penis cannot be retracted. In children under two years old, this may be a normal physiological process that will resolve on its own. The British Association of Paediatric Urologists recommends an expectant approach in such cases, as forcible retraction can lead to scarring. However, personal hygiene is important to prevent infections. If the child is over two years old and experiences recurrent balanoposthitis or urinary tract infections, treatment can be considered.
It is important to note that parents should not attempt to forcibly retract the foreskin in young children. This can cause pain and scarring, and may not even be necessary. Instead, parents should focus on teaching their child good hygiene habits to prevent infections. If the child is experiencing recurrent infections or other symptoms, it may be time to seek medical treatment. By following these guidelines, parents can help their child manage phimosis and maintain good health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth before goes into spontaneous labour and you are assisting in the vaginal delivery of a baby girl weighing 3.2 kg. To assess the newborn's health, you use the Apgar score. Can you provide the correct components of the Apgar score?
Your Answer: Pulse, respiratory effort, O2 saturation, muscle tone, colour
Correct Answer: Pulse, respiratory effort, colour, muscle tone, reflex irritability
Explanation:To evaluate the well-being of a newborn, medical professionals use the Apgar scoring system. This system takes into account the infant’s pulse, respiratory function, skin color, muscle tone, and reflex response.
The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy visited his doctor last week due to recurring nosebleeds and bruises on his sides. Upon examination, his clotting was found to be prolonged. The following are his test results, along with the normal ranges for a 5-year-old:
- Hemoglobin: 80g/l (115-135)
- Platelets: 100 * 109/l (150-450)
- White blood cells: 10.0 * 109/l (5.0-17.0)
- Neutrophils: 1.0 * 109/l (1.5-8.5)
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Explanation:Leukaemia is the most probable diagnosis given the presence of epistaxis and bruising, along with anaemia and low platelets. The prolonged prothrombin time and low platelets suggest disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is consistent with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Acute myeloid leukaemia is unlikely due to the patient’s age. The normal white blood cell count rules out a chronic infection. Aplastic anaemia and myelodysplasia would not account for the symptoms of epistaxis and bruising.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.
There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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As an F1 doctor on a paediatric ward, you come across a 9-year-old girl with her parents. She has been diagnosed with West syndrome and is part of a research trial that requires regular EEG recordings. While discussing her progress during the ward round, the girl interrupts and expresses her dislike for the 'horrible head stickers'. She becomes visibly upset when the trial is mentioned. What would be the best course of action in this situation?
Your Answer: Raise your concerns with your consultant about the child's obvious objections in being involved with the trial
Explanation:It is unprofessional to disregard the concerns regarding the patient’s participation in the trial. As an F1 doctor, it would be an extreme measure to remove the child from the trial or report the matter to the GMC without consulting a senior colleague first. It would be advisable to discuss the parents’ comprehension of the trial, but it would be more appropriate to approach the consultant initially, as they would have more knowledge of the research being conducted. The GMC guidelines also state that children and young people should not be involved in research if they object or appear to object, even if their parents provide consent.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl is presented by her father with concerns about a rash that appeared after a recent fever, just as she was starting to recover. During the examination, you observe numerous pink-red papules and macules (2-5 mm in size) spread across her trunk, which disappear when touched. The child does not seem bothered by the rash and appears to be in good health with normal vital signs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Roseola
Explanation:Roseola infantum, also known as ‘sixth disease’, is a common illness among children aged 6 months to 2 years. It is characterized by a fever followed by a non-itchy, painless, maculopapular rash that mainly affects the trunk. Febrile seizures are also common. The illness is caused by the human herpes virus type 6B or 7, and no treatment is required. Long-term complications are rare.
Chickenpox, hand, foot and mouth disease, measles, and rubella are all differential diagnoses that can be ruled out based on the specific characteristics of their respective rashes and accompanying symptoms.
Understanding Roseola Infantum
Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.
In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.
It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
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You are working in the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit and currently assessing a 3-day-old boy with respiratory distress due to meconium aspiration. The mother is visibly upset and asks if there was anything she could have done to prevent this.
After reviewing the medical history, you find that the baby was conceived through in vitro fertilization, there were no complications during the pregnancy, but he was delivered via C-section at 41 weeks with a birth weight of 2.6kg.
What is the most significant risk factor for meconium aspiration in this particular case?Your Answer: Post-term delivery
Explanation:Post-term delivery is a major risk factor for meconium aspiration, which is why women are induced following term. Placental insufficiency, not low birth weight, is a consequence of meconium aspiration. The sex of the child and assisted reproduction are not considered independent risk factors. While meconium aspiration may cause distress during labor and potentially result in a Caesarean section, it is not a risk factor on its own.
Understanding Meconium Aspiration Syndrome
Meconium aspiration syndrome is a condition that affects newborns and causes respiratory distress due to the presence of meconium in the trachea. This condition typically occurs in the immediate neonatal period and is more common in post-term deliveries, with rates of up to 44% reported in babies born after 42 weeks. The severity of the respiratory distress can vary, but it can be quite severe in some cases.
There are several risk factors associated with meconium aspiration syndrome, including a history of maternal hypertension, pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, smoking, or substance abuse. These risk factors can increase the likelihood of a baby developing this condition. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to monitor newborns closely for signs of respiratory distress.
Overall, meconium aspiration syndrome is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. With proper management and treatment, however, most babies are able to recover fully and go on to lead healthy lives. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with this condition, healthcare providers can help ensure that newborns receive the care they need to thrive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
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A 6-week-old girl is brought to the hospital and placed under the care of the paediatric surgeons due to her parents' concern about her symptoms. She has been experiencing projectile vomiting, weight loss, and constant hunger. The doctors have made a preliminary diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is the probable biochemical abnormality associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis
Explanation:Pyloric Stenosis: Characteristics and Biochemical Abnormalities
Pyloric stenosis is a condition commonly observed in male infants at around 5 weeks old, with an incidence rate of approximately 4 per 1000. It is often seen in first-born babies. The condition is characterized by the narrowing of the pylorus, the opening between the stomach and the small intestine, which causes difficulty in food passage.
One of the typical biochemical abnormalities observed in patients with pyloric stenosis is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis, which is caused by the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit. This results in an acidic urine. The imbalance of electrolytes in the body can lead to dehydration, weakness, and other complications. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 22
Correct
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After an emergency Caesarian-section for foetal distress, the consultant obstetrician hands the paediatrician a normal term female infant. You observe that the infant is apnoeic, floppy and blue in colour.
What would be your initial step?Your Answer: Dry the neonate
Explanation:According to UK resuscitation guidelines, the first step in neonatal resuscitation is to dry the baby, remove any wet towels, and note the time. Within 30 seconds, an Apgar assessment should be conducted to evaluate the baby’s tone, breathing, and heart rate. If the baby is gasping or not breathing, the airway should be opened, and 5 inflation breaths should be given within 60 seconds. If there is no increase in heart rate, chest movement should be checked. If the chest is not moving, the head position should be rechecked, and other airway maneuvers should be considered. Inflation breaths should be repeated, and a response should be looked for. If there is still no increase in heart rate, chest compressions should be started with 3 compressions to each breath. The heart rate should be reassessed every 30 seconds. If the heart rate is still slow or undetectable, venous access and drugs should be considered. Atropine and intubation are later steps in the management.
The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl with cerebral palsy comes to the GP with her father for a check-up. Upon examination, she has a delay in her overall development. She is not yet able to walk or crawl, but she can use her fingers to pick up objects and is happily playing with toys during the visit. She can say a few words, such as mom and dad. During the examination, you notice some bruises on her abdomen, left elbow, and right forearm. Her father explains that these bruises are due to her clumsiness and he is concerned that she will continue to hurt herself. He mentions that her mother had a similar condition that required oral steroids and wonders if his daughter has developed the same condition.
What is the next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Same-day paediatric assessment
Explanation:Immediate paediatric assessment is necessary for a non-mobile infant with multiple bruises, as this could indicate non-accidental injury. Bruising near the trunk, cheeks, ears, or buttocks should also be considered red flags. Coagulation screen and coagulopathy testing may be performed later, but the priority is to assess for potential abuse. Oral prednisolone is not first-line for children with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and reassurance and discharge are not appropriate in this situation.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the doctor's office with his mother. His father passed away two weeks ago. He is feeling very emotional and is hesitant to return to school. He has no known risk factors for depression.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing his situation?Your Answer: Supportive chat, provide resources and arrange follow-up
Explanation:Managing Traumatic Life Events in Children: Appropriate Interventions and Referrals
When a child experiences a traumatic life event, it is important to provide appropriate interventions and referrals to prevent the development of depression. For children with low risk of developing depression, a supportive chat, resource provision, and follow-up should be the first line of management. Urgent referral to Child and Adolescent Mental Health Services (CAMHS) is only necessary if the child has two or more risk factors for depression or is currently displaying signs of depression.
Encouraging the child to return to school as soon as possible is also crucial. The school can offer support and help the child maintain contact with peers. Referral to CAMHS should only be considered if the child meets the criteria mentioned above.
Initiating antidepressant medication such as fluoxetine should be done in secondary care and is not recommended for this child at present. By following appropriate interventions and referrals, we can help children cope with traumatic life events and prevent the development of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
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A 35-year-old mother had a natural birth at home. Ten days later, she brought her newborn to the Emergency Department, complaining of a musty odour of the skin and urine. Examination reveals hypopigmentation and eczema. Genetic testing revealed an autosomal recessive genetic disorder.
Which of the following is most likely linked to the condition of the newborn?Your Answer: Defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase
Explanation:Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Defects and Their Characteristics
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is caused by a defect in phenylalanine hydroxylase, leading to an excess of phenylalanine and phenylketones in the urine. A musty odour of the skin and hair is a common symptom.
Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD) is characterized by decreased α-ketoacid dehydrogenase, which can cause brain damage and is often fatal in infants.
Cystinuria is caused by a defect in the transporter for cysteine, leading to persistent kidney stones.
Alkaptonuria is caused by a deficiency in homogentisic acid oxidase, which can cause brown or black coloration of urine upon exposure to air.
Albinism is caused by a defect in tyrosinase, resulting in a partial or complete absence of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes, leading to a characteristic pale appearance.
These inherited metabolic disorders have distinct defects and characteristics that can aid in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 26
Correct
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A mother brings her 6-week-old son to your GP. Her son has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past three weeks. He has now developed a cough which had caused concern. The mother describes coughing followed by periods in which the child stops breathing and turns blue. The child appears lethargic.
What is the most probable pathogen responsible for this illness?Your Answer: Bordetella pertussis
Explanation:When infants have whooping cough, they may not have the typical whoop sound due to their inability to take a deep breath after coughing. Instead, they may experience apnoeas and cyanosis. Based on the symptoms of coryza followed by severe coughing fits, it is likely that the cause of this child’s condition is Bordetella pertussis. Klebsiella pneumoniae is an unlikely cause as it typically affects patients in healthcare settings. Staphylococcus aureus commonly causes skin infections and pneumonia from this bacteria is more common after surgery. While Streptococcus pneumoniae can cause pneumococcal disease, which is a possibility in this case, it typically presents with sudden onset fever, malaise, and a cough with purulent or bloody sputum.
Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.
Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.
Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.
To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.
Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.
Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 27
Correct
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A parent brings their 3-week-old girl, who was diagnosed prenatally with Down's syndrome, to hospital. She has been feeding poorly and has been constipated.
On examination, her abdomen is distended.
A colonic biopsy shows absence of ganglion cells in the submucosa.
What is the initial management for this condition?Your Answer: Rectal washouts/bowel irrigation
Explanation:Rectal washouts/bowel irrigation is the initial management for Hirschsprung’s disease. The absence of ganglion cells in the submucosa is a diagnostic criterion, and serial rectal irrigation should be performed before surgery to prevent enterocolitis. Conservative management is not recommended according to current guidelines, and high dose steroids have no role in this scenario. Surgery is the definitive treatment, but serial rectal irrigation should be performed beforehand to prevent enterocolitis. Laxatives are not appropriate for medical management in Hirschsprung’s disease.
Understanding Hirschsprung’s Disease
Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that affects 1 in 5,000 births. It is caused by a developmental failure of the parasympathetic Auerbach and Meissner plexuses, resulting in an aganglionic segment of bowel. This leads to uncoordinated peristalsis and functional obstruction, which can present as constipation and abdominal distension in older children or failure to pass meconium in the neonatal period.
Hirschsprung’s disease is three times more common in males and is associated with Down’s syndrome. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. Treatment involves initial rectal washouts or bowel irrigation, followed by surgery to remove the affected segment of the colon.
In summary, Hirschsprung’s disease is a rare condition that can cause significant gastrointestinal symptoms. It is important to consider this condition as a differential diagnosis in childhood constipation, especially in male patients or those with Down’s syndrome. Early diagnosis and treatment can improve outcomes and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician by her mother. The mother is concerned as she has noticed some hair growing in her daughter's armpits, and although she has not shown any distress or had any other noticeable symptoms, the mother is worried that something is wrong as she is too young to begin going through puberty. On examination, the child has axillary hair growth bilaterally, and her breasts are of appropriate size for her age.
Gonadotrophin assays show the following:
FSH 0.2 IU/L Age 6 months - 10 years old: (1 - 3)
LH 0.1 IU/L Age 6 months - 10 years old: (1 - 5)
What is the most likely cause of this child's axillary hair growth?Your Answer: Adrenal hyperplasia
Explanation:In cases of gonadotrophin independent precocious puberty (GIPP), both FSH and LH levels are low. This is in contrast to gonadotrophin dependent precocious puberty (GDPP), where FSH and LH levels are high and testes are larger than expected for age. GIPP is caused by increased levels of sex hormones, such as testosterone, which suppress LH and FSH. This can be due to ovarian, testicular, or adrenal causes, such as congenital adrenal hyperplasia. In boys with GIPP, testicular volume is typically normal or small. Adrenal hyperplasia is the only cause of GIPP, as all other causes would result in GDPP and increased levels of FSH and LH.
Understanding Precocious Puberty
Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 2-month-old infant is scheduled for a hearing screening test. She was born at 38 weeks without any pregnancy complications and delivered vaginally. Which hearing test would be most suitable for this child?
Your Answer: Distraction testing
Correct Answer: Automated otoacoustic emissions
Explanation:The otoacoustic emission test is specifically designed to screen newborns for hearing issues. Different hearing tests are available for different age groups, but in the UK, newborns are typically screened using the automated otoacoustic emissions test or the evoked otoacoustic emissions test. If any abnormalities are detected, the automated auditory brainstem response test is used as a follow-up. The other hearing tests mentioned are more appropriate for older children. This information is provided by the NHS in the UK.
Hearing Tests for Children
Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.
For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.
In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Correct
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A 3-year-old child has a 24-hour history of being generally unwell with a barking cough. Their parent says they make a loud noise when they breathe in and their symptoms are worse at night. They have a temperature of 38.5 °C.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Croup
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Inspiratory Stridor and Barking Cough
Croup is a common respiratory illness in children under 2 years old, characterized by inspiratory stridor and a barking cough. Other symptoms include hoarseness, fever, and dyspnea, which are usually worse at night. The illness can last up to 7 days, with the first 24-48 hours being the most severe.
Asthma, on the other hand, presents differently with wheezing and chest tightness, rather than inspiratory stridor. While shortness of breath, especially at night, is a common symptom, it does not account for the fever.
Simple viral cough is a possible differential, but the absence of other systemic symptoms makes croup more likely.
Whooping cough is not indicated by this history.
Bronchiolitis usually presents less acutely, with difficulty feeding and general malaise during the incubation period, followed by dyspnea and wheezing. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter into your paediatric clinic as her daughter has recently been diagnosed with Fragile X syndrome. During the consultation, you notice that the girl is sitting quietly, avoiding eye contact when you talk to her. Additionally, you observe that she has low-set ears, a long thin face, and an enlarged mandible. The mother is worried about the potential complications of Fragile X syndrome.
What information can you provide her regarding the possible complications of Fragile X syndrome?Your Answer: Supravalvular aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Mitral valve prolapse
Explanation:Fragile X syndrome, a common X-linked dominant trinucleotide repeat disorder, is known to cause learning difficulties and a range of complications such as mitral valve prolapse, pes planus, autism, memory problems, and speech disorders. However, it is not significantly associated with bronchiectasis, supravalvular aortic stenosis, type II diabetes mellitus, or pigmented gallstones. Bronchiectasis is typically associated with Kartagener’s syndrome, while supravalvular aortic stenosis is linked to William’s syndrome. Wolfram syndrome is a rare condition that may be associated with diabetes mellitus.
Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder
Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.
Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 3-day-old infant is presenting with increased work of breathing. The baby was born via elective caesarean section at 38 weeks gestation and the pregnancy was uncomplicated. On examination, the infant has a respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute (normal: 30-60) and an oxygen saturation of 94% (normal: >90%). Nasal flaring is also observed. A chest x-ray reveals hyperinflated lung fields and a line of fluid in the horizontal fissure of the left lung. Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Nebulised salbutamol
Correct Answer: Supportive care
Explanation:The primary treatment for uncomplicated transient tachypnoea of the newborn is observation and supportive care, which may include oxygen supplementation if necessary. In this case, the symptoms and chest x-ray results suggest a diagnosis of transient tachypnoea of the newborn, which is caused by excess fluid in the lungs due to caesarean delivery. This condition is not life-threatening and can be managed with careful monitoring and appropriate care. Corticosteroids are not recommended for newborns with this condition, and humidified oxygen and nebulised salbutamol are not necessary in this case.
Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 33
Correct
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A 25-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of fevers, myalgia, and painful eyes that have been bothering her for the past two days. She recently returned from a trip to the Democratic Republic of the Congo, where she failed to comply with her anti-malarial medication due to gastrointestinal side effects. Upon examination, she has a temperature of 38.8ÂșC, and she displays clustered white lesions on her buccal mucosa and conjunctivitis. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease
Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.
The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 34
Correct
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A 24-month-old child is brought to see you with concerns about his development.
Which of the following sets of findings on history and examination reflects age-appropriate development for this child?Your Answer: Stands and walks confidently, bends or crouches to pick up an object, makes a tower of 2â3 blocks, scribbles, tries to sing, says six clear words, points to named pictures, plays games, enjoys sitting and looking at books, points to body parts, clothing and objects and helps with dressing
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Children: What to Expect at Different Ages
As children grow and develop, they reach certain milestones that indicate their progress and abilities. Here are some of the expected developmental milestones for children at different ages:
9 months: At this age, a child should be able to sit unsupported, crawl, hold objects with a pincer grip, babble with two syllables, and develop stranger anxiety.
10-12 months: A child at this age should be able to walk alone, use a pincer grip, say a few words like mama and dada, and play pattercake.
18 months: By this age, a child should be able to walk confidently, build a tower of 2-3 blocks, say six clear words, and point to named pictures.
2 years: At this age, a child should be able to climb stairs, build a tower of 6-7 blocks, use a spoon, and combine 2-3 words into sentences.
3 years: By this age, a child should be able to ride a tricycle, draw a circle and a cross, use a fork and spoon, and follow three-step instructions.
These milestones are important for parents and caregivers to be aware of, as they can help identify any potential developmental delays or concerns. It’s important to remember that every child develops at their own pace, and some may reach these milestones earlier or later than others. If you have any concerns about your child’s development, it’s always best to consult with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 35
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy is seen in an acute paediatric clinic due to unexplained bruising and hepatosplenomegaly on examination. He has a past medical history of Down's syndrome and was placed in foster care immediately after birth. His birth mother, who was 45 years old at delivery, smoked during pregnancy and has a history of osteosarcoma. After further investigations, including a full blood count and bone marrow aspirate, the diagnosis of acute lymphocytic leukaemia is suspected. What is the most significant risk factor associated with this condition?
Your Answer: History of Down's syndrome
Explanation:Children with Down syndrome are at a higher risk of developing acute lymphoblastic leukaemia due to the loss of a gene that inhibits lymphocyte proliferation known as PCR2. This risk is over 30 times higher than in children without Down syndrome. Additionally, children with Down syndrome are over 100 times more likely to develop acute myeloid leukaemia. Family history of malignancy, maternal age, and female sex are not significant risk factors for the development of ALL.
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.
Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.
Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 36
Correct
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A 4-year-old patient presents with recurrent chest infections and green sputum production. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals ring shadows and bronchial wall thickening in both lung bases. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Recurrent Chest Infections and Bronchiectasis: A Possible Sign of Cystic Fibrosis
Patients who have a history of recurrent chest infections and x-ray appearances that suggest bronchiectasis may be showing signs of cystic fibrosis. Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways in the lungs become damaged and widened, leading to a build-up of mucous and bacteria. This can cause recurrent chest infections, which can be difficult to treat. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition that affects the production of mucous, leading to thick and sticky secretions that can block the airways and cause infections.
If a patient is showing signs of bronchiectasis, it is important to consider cystic fibrosis as a possible cause. Early diagnosis and treatment of cystic fibrosis can help to manage symptoms and prevent complications. Testing for cystic fibrosis may involve a sweat test, genetic testing, or other diagnostic tests. Treatment may include medications to help clear mucous from the airways, antibiotics to treat infections, and other therapies to manage symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 37
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A 5-year-old girl is brought in by ambulance. Her parents explain that she has had cold symptoms for the last 24 hours but is generally well. They describe her walking towards them in the park when she suddenly went floppy and all four limbs started shaking. This lasted for around 1 minute, during which time she did not respond to her name and her eyes were rolled back. She remained drowsy for the next 30 minutes or so in the ambulance but is now well, alert and active, moving all limbs normally.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Febrile convulsion
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a seizure in a young child
Febrile convulsion, reflex anoxic seizure, meningitis, epilepsy, and hypoglycaemia are among the possible causes of a seizure in a young child. Febrile convulsions are the most common type of seizure in this age group, occurring during a febrile illness and lasting less than 15 minutes. They are usually benign and do not require long-term treatment, but there is a risk of recurrence and a small risk of developing epilepsy later in life. Reflex anoxic seizures are syncopal episodes triggered by a minor head injury, resulting in a brief loss of consciousness and some convulsive activity. Meningitis is a serious infection of the central nervous system that presents with fever, headache, neck stiffness, and a non-blanching rash. Epilepsy is a chronic neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, but it cannot be diagnosed based on a single episode. Hypoglycaemia is a metabolic condition that can cause seizures in diabetic patients, typically accompanied by symptoms like sweating, shakiness, tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting. A careful history, physical examination, and laboratory tests can help differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 38
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A premature neonate is delivered via category II emergency caesarean section at 34+3 weeks for fetal distress. The obstetrician notes the baby is delivered with the cord wrapped around its neck and appears floppy and 'blue'. The neonatal team immediately begins resuscitation as the initial APGAR score is 3. At 10 minutes, the score is 5 due to cyanosis, heart rate of 120 bpm, minimal response to stimulation, poor tone, slow and irregular respiratory effort with a respiratory rate of 12/min. What is the most appropriate management of this premature neonate to reduce hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE)?
Your Answer: Therapeutic cooling
Explanation:Therapeutic Cooling for Neonates with Hypoxic Brain Injury
Therapeutic cooling, also known as therapeutic hypothermia, is a medical procedure that involves deliberately lowering a patient’s body temperature to cool the brain and prevent brain damage. This procedure has been proposed for several therapeutic uses, including neuroprotection during open-heart and neurosurgical procedures, in patients following a return of spontaneous circulation post-ventricular fibrillation arrest, in patients with trauma head injuries, in patients who have suffered acute ischemic stroke, and in neonates with moderate to severe hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy (HIE). However, the only use whose efficacy has been consistently proven in existing literature is the use of therapeutic cooling in neonates.
The use of therapeutic cooling in carefully selected term neonates with moderate to severe HIE has been recommended as standard care by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). It has been shown in studies to decrease mortality and improve the neurological and neurodevelopmental outcomes of treated neonates. Hypoxic perinatal brain injury is caused by a decrease in the amount of oxygen supplied to an infant’s brain just prior to, or during the process of, labor. Neonates who survive a hypoxic brain injury can develop HIE, which occurs in an estimated 2.5/1000 term births in developed countries and 26/1000 term births in the developing world.
Therapeutic cooling remains the only intervention shown to reduce neuronal damage caused by perinatal hypoxia. The procedure is thought to influence the extent of secondary neuronal death in a multifactorial manner, although the exact way in which it achieves this is not fully understood. The procedure involves placing the infant on a cooling blanket or mattress circulated with coolant fluid or circulating cold water in a cap fitted around the head. Temperature is continuously monitored throughout the treatment using either a rectal or nasopharyngeal thermometer. Close surveillance of infants during the cooling process is required given the risk for complications of both HIE and the process of cooling itself.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 39
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of stiffness, swelling, and pain in both knees. During the examination, the doctor observes a salmon-pink rash on her legs. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
Explanation:Juvenile idiopathic arthritis, also known as Still’s disease, is identified by the presence of a distinct salmon-pink rash along with joint pain. While joint pain may also be present in Henoch-Schonlein purpura, the rash in this condition is palpable and purpuric. Meningitis, on the other hand, is characterized by a non-blanching purpuric rash but does not cause joint pain.
Understanding Systemic Onset Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a condition that affects individuals under the age of 16 and lasts for more than six weeks. It is also known as juvenile chronic arthritis. Systemic onset JIA, also referred to as Still’s disease, is a type of JIA that presents with several symptoms. These symptoms include pyrexia, a salmon-pink rash, lymphadenopathy, arthritis, uveitis, anorexia, and weight loss.
When investigating systemic onset JIA, doctors may find that the antinuclear antibody (ANA) is positive, especially in oligoarticular JIA. However, the rheumatoid factor is usually negative. It is important to note that systemic onset JIA can be challenging to diagnose, as its symptoms can mimic other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old infant, one of twins born at term, presents with central cyanosis. What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)
Correct Answer: Transposition of great arteries
Explanation:Congenital Heart Diseases and their Association with Cyanosis
Congenital heart diseases can be classified into cyanotic and acyanotic types. Coarctation of the aorta is an example of an acyanotic congenital heart disease, which is not associated with cyanosis. On the other hand, tricuspid atresia and transposition of the great arteries are both cyanotic congenital heart diseases that present in the immediate newborn period. Transposition of the great arteries is more common than tricuspid atresia and is therefore more likely to be the cause of cyanosis in newborns.
It is important to note that some congenital heart diseases involve shunting of blood from the left side of the heart to the right side, leading to increased pulmonary blood flow and eventually causing cyanosis. Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and ventricular septal defect (VSD) are examples of such left-to-right shunts. However, these conditions are not considered cyanotic congenital heart diseases as they do not present with cyanosis in the immediate newborn period.
In summary, the presence of cyanosis in a newborn can be indicative of a cyanotic congenital heart disease such as tricuspid atresia or transposition of the great arteries. Coarctation of the aorta is an example of an acyanotic congenital heart disease, while PDA and VSD are left-to-right shunts that do not typically present with cyanosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 41
Correct
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A mother brings her 6-year-old daughter to see you at the General Practice surgery where you are working as a Foundation Year 2 doctor. The daughter had a runny nose and sore throat for the past few days but then developed bright red rashes on both her cheeks. She now has a raised itchy rash on her chest, that has a lace-like appearance, but feels well. She has no known long-term conditions and has been developing normally.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Parvovirus infection
Explanation:Common Skin Rashes and Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics
Parvovirus Infection: Also known as ‘slapped cheek syndrome’, this mild infection is characterized by a striking appearance. However, it can lead to serious complications in immunocompromised patients or those with sickle-cell anaemia or thalassaemia.
Pityriasis Rosea: This rash starts with an oval patch of scaly skin and is followed by small, scaly patches that spread across the body.
Impetigo: A superficial infection caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus bacteria, impetigo results in fluid-filled blisters or sores that burst and leave a yellow crust.
Scarlet Fever: This rash is blotchy and rough to the touch, typically starting on the chest or abdomen. Patients may also experience headache, sore throat, and high temperature.
Urticaria: This itchy, raised rash is caused by histamine release due to an allergic reaction, infection, medications, or temperature changes. It usually settles within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 42
Correct
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A 6-month-old Caucasian baby girl is brought to her general practitioner, as her parents are concerned about a skin lump that has appeared on the left side of her neck. It is non-tender and does not seem to bother her, but it is growing in size. She is feeding well and is otherwise healthy. On examination, there is a 2 x 2 cm, firm and well-demarcated lesion in the left posterior triangle of the neck, with visible telangiectasia. There are no other skin lesions. The abdomen is soft, without masses.
What would be the next step in management?Your Answer: Medical photography and review again in 3 months
Explanation:This child has an infantile haemangioma, a benign lesion caused by abnormal vessel growth in the skin and deeper structures. These lesions usually appear shortly after birth and can grow rapidly in the first 3 months of life, peaking around the fifth month before regressing spontaneously. The haemangioma in this case is located in the posterior neck triangle and is asymptomatic, so medical photography will be taken and the child will be reassessed in 3 months. Treatment is only necessary if the haemangioma is troublesome, symptomatic, or affecting deeper structures. The first-line treatment is oral propranolol, but topical b blockers can be used if necessary. Surgery is reserved for rapidly evolving haemangiomas that are compressing vital structures or affecting essential functions. Topical timolol can also be used with caution if oral b blockers are not tolerated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 43
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A 12-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of fatigue, weight loss, frequent urination, and excessive thirst. Her random plasma glucose level is 15 mmol/litre. The patient has a pre-existing condition since childhood that may be responsible for these symptoms. What is the most probable underlying condition?
Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:The onset of diabetes in a young person, as described in this presentation, is a classic symptom and has been confirmed by a random blood glucose level of >11 mmol/L. Among the given options, only cystic fibrosis has the potential to cause the development of diabetes. Cystic fibrosis typically manifests in childhood with respiratory symptoms, but as the disease progresses, other symptoms may appear. If the pancreas is affected, it can lead to the development of diabetes mellitus. However, it may take some time for the pancreas to be affected enough to cause diabetes, which is why children with cystic fibrosis may develop diabetes later in life. While the other conditions listed may cause fatigue or weight loss, they do not typically result in polyuria or polydipsia.
Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.
It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 44
Correct
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to her general practitioner by her mother because she is shorter than most of her classmates. She gets good grades and does well in school. She is below the fifth percentile for height for her age. On examination, she is short and has a webbed neck and widely spaced nipples.
Which one of the following is karyotyping most likely to reveal?Your Answer: 45,XO
Explanation:Understanding Different Karyotypes and Associated Conditions
Karyotypes are an important tool in diagnosing genetic disorders. Here are some common karyotypes and the associated conditions:
Turner Syndrome (45,XO): This disorder affects females and is caused by the absence of one or part of an X chromosome. Symptoms include short stature, heart defects, and premature ovarian failure.
Klinefelter’s Syndrome (47,XXY): This karyotype is associated with males who have an extra X chromosome. Symptoms include delayed puberty, small testes, and learning disabilities.
Trisomy 21 (47,XX+21): This karyotype is associated with Down syndrome, which causes intellectual disability and physical characteristics such as slanted palpebral fissure and a wide space between the big and second toe.
47,XYY: This karyotype is associated with males who have an extra Y chromosome. Symptoms include tall stature and an increased risk of learning difficulties and behavioral problems.
Normal Karyotype: A normal karyotype for a woman is 46,XX. If a different karyotype is present, it may indicate a genetic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 45
Correct
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A 6-year-old child complains of difficulty in hearing. He has had several fractures following minor falls. On examination, his legs appear short and deformed, and his sclera appear blue.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta
Explanation:Genetic Disorders Affecting Bone and Connective Tissue
There are several genetic disorders that affect bone and connective tissue, resulting in various physical characteristics and health complications.
Osteogenesis Imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a condition where bones are excessively fragile and prone to fractures. Type I, also called osteogenesis imperfecta tarda, is characterized by bony deformities, blue sclera, teeth abnormalities, deafness, and heart valve abnormalities.
Achondroplasia, previously known as dwarfism, is characterized by short limbs on a normally sized trunk, with a large skull and small face.
Alport Syndrome is characterized by deafness and renal failure.
Marfan Syndrome is a connective tissue disorder that results in tall stature, long arms, arachnodactyly, high-arched palate, and pectus excavatum.
Osteopetrosis, also known as marble bone disease, is a condition where bones are dense and brittle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 46
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought in by his father for symptoms of upper respiratory tract infection. During examination, you observe multiple bruises on his arms with a circular pattern. Which type of bruising is more frequently associated with physical abuse in children?
Your Answer: Humeral fracture
Explanation:Whenever there is suspicion of non-accidental injury (NAI), it is important to consider the patient’s clinical history. Child abuse is commonly associated with fractures in the radial, humeral, and femoral bones. On the other hand, fractures in the distal radial, elbow, clavicular, and tibial bones are not typically linked to NAI in paediatrics.
Recognizing Child Abuse: Signs and Symptoms
Child abuse is a serious issue that can have long-lasting effects on a child’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of child abuse in order to intervene and protect the child. One possible indicator of abuse is when a child discloses abuse themselves. However, there are other factors that may point towards abuse, such as an inconsistent story with injuries, repeated visits to A&E departments, delayed presentation, and a frightened, withdrawn appearance known as frozen watchfulness.
Physical presentations of child abuse can also be a sign of abuse. These may include bruising, fractures (especially metaphyseal, posterior rib fractures, or multiple fractures at different stages of healing), torn frenulum (such as from forcing a bottle into a child’s mouth), burns or scalds, failure to thrive, and sexually transmitted infections like Chlamydia, gonorrhoeae, and Trichomonas. It is important to be aware of these signs and symptoms and to report any concerns to the appropriate authorities to ensure the safety and well-being of the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old female with a history of Leber's optic atrophy visits her doctor. She and her husband are planning to have children and she wants to know the likelihood of passing on her condition. She vaguely remembers her geneticist mentioning something about mitochondria but can't recall the specifics of the inheritance pattern. Assuming her husband does not carry the same gene defect, what is the chance that their child will inherit the condition?
Your Answer: 50%
Correct Answer: 0%
Explanation:Mitochondrial disorders encompass a range of conditions, such as leigh syndrome, mitochondrial diabetes, MELAS syndrome, and MERFF syndrome.
Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology
Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.
Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 48
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 6-year-old boy that has been brought in by his mother with a sudden onset of fever and a sore throat this morning. His mother informs you that he is prone to tonsillitis and would like some antibiotics as they had worked well previously.
On examination he is alert, sitting upright and unaided with a slight forward lean. He has a temperature of 38.5 ÂșC, heart rate of 130/min, respiratory rate is normal. There is no cyanosis or use of accessory muscles, but you do note a mild inspiratory fine-pitched stridor.
What would be the most appropriate next course of action?Your Answer: Examine her throat, calculate her CENTOR score and discuss possible admission with the on call paediatrician
Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent admission to hospital
Explanation:If acute epiglottitis is suspected, do not attempt to examine the throat. Instead, contact the paediatrician on call and arrange for the child to be reviewed and admitted to the hospital on the same day. This condition can be life-threatening and requires urgent assessment and treatment in secondary care. Hospital transfer should be done by a blue light ambulance. Treatment usually involves intravenous antibiotics after securing the airway, which may require intubation. Nebulised adrenaline may also be used to stabilise the airway, and intravenous steroids are often given. It would be clinically unsafe to advise expectant management or prescribe immediate or delayed antibiotics for this condition.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department, during the autumn period, with severe dyspnoea at rest. She has been unwell for the past week with a barking cough and inspiratory stridor which are typically worse in the late evening. On examination, intercostal and subdiaphragmatic recessions are noticeable. A chest radiograph shows tapering of the upper trachea.
What is the most probable pathogen responsible for this girl's condition?Your Answer: Bordetella pertussis
Correct Answer: Parainfluenza virus
Explanation:The most likely cause of this patient’s dyspnoea at rest, combined with being generally unwell and the time of year, is croup. Croup is commonly caused by the parainfluenza virus. Bordetella pertussis, Parvovirus B19, and Respiratory syncytial virus are unlikely causes as they present with different symptoms and are associated with different conditions.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 50
Correct
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A 68-year-old man of African descent with a family history of cancer presented with an elevated PSA level of 23 ng/ml and was diagnosed with adenocarcinoma with a Gleason score of 7. Magnetic resonance imaging revealed abnormal signals on both sides of the prostate, and a bone scan showed two bone metastatic lesions. The clinical stage was T2 N0 M1b, and he received surgical and hormonal treatment. Genetic testing was performed to determine the most likely mutation he has.
What mutation is he most likely to have?Your Answer: BRCA mutation
Explanation:Men who carry BRCA mutations are at a higher risk of developing prostate cancer, particularly those with the BRCA2 gene which is associated with a more aggressive form of the disease. BRCA1 and BRCA2 are tumor suppressor genes that are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner with incomplete penetrance. On the other hand, APC mutation is not a major contributor to the development of clinical prostate cancer, as it is primarily responsible for colorectal tumors, often accompanied by ras and p53 mutations. BRAF mutation is an incorrect answer, as it is rare in both early and late-stage prostate cancer, but is found in approximately 50% of melanomas.
Understanding Tumour Suppressor Genes
Tumour suppressor genes are responsible for controlling the cell cycle and preventing the development of cancer. When these genes lose their function, the risk of cancer increases. However, it is important to note that both alleles of the gene must be mutated before cancer can occur.
There are several examples of tumour suppressor genes, including p53, APC, BRCA1 & BRCA2, NF1, Rb, WT1, and MTS-1 (p16). These genes are associated with various types of cancer, such as colorectal cancer, breast and ovarian cancer, neurofibromatosis, retinoblastoma, Wilm’s tumour, and melanoma.
It is crucial to understand the role of tumour suppressor genes in preventing cancer and the consequences of their loss of function. In contrast to oncogenes, which result in an increased risk of cancer due to a gain of function, tumour suppressor genes must be both mutated before cancer can occur. By studying these genes and their functions, researchers can develop new strategies for cancer prevention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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