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Question 1
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman is being investigated for jaundice. She first noticed this symptom 2 months ago, but for 4 months previously, had been experiencing generalised pruritus. The results of liver function tests are as follows:
Investigations:
Investigations Results Normal value
Serum bilirubin 325 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
Aspartate aminotransaminase 55 U/l 15–42 U/l
Alkaline phosphatase 436 U/l 80–150 U/l
Y-glutamyltransferase 82 U/l 11–51 U/
Albumin 36 g/l 30-50 g/l
Total protein 82 g/l 60-80 g/l
Select from the list the single MOST LIKELY diagnosis.Your Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Elevated Alkaline Phosphatase Concentration
The elevated alkaline phosphatase concentration in a patient suggests cholestatic jaundice. However, the underlying cause of this condition may vary. Alcoholic cirrhosis is a common cause, but it is unlikely in this case due to the only slightly elevated γ-glutamyltransferase. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare tumor that can cause obstructive cholestasis. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas is another possible cause, which often presents with weight loss. Autoimmune liver disease is also a possibility, indicated by a high globulin concentration. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a potential diagnosis, but it is more common in men and often associated with inflammatory bowel disease. On the other hand, primary biliary cholangitis is more common in women. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the elevated alkaline phosphatase concentration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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You have a consultation scheduled with Mr. Smith, a 74-year-old man who is interested in participating in the NHS bowel cancer screening program. He has never submitted the home test kits before and wants to know if he is eligible for screening.
Your Answer: He can self-refer for home test kit
Explanation:Patients who are over the age of 74 are no longer eligible for bowel cancer screening within the NHS screening program. However, they can still receive a home test kit every 2 years by self-referral (helpline number on NHS website). It is important to note that if a patient develops symptoms of bowel cancer, they should be formally investigated according to NICE suspected cancer guidelines. Additionally, in areas where bowel scope screening has been rolled out, patients can self-refer up to the age of 60 for one-off bowel scope screening.
Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test
Overview:
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.Colonoscopy:
Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for a routine review. He denies alcohol excess and has a body mass index of 36 kg/m2. He is also noted to be a diet-controlled type II diabetic and smokes 10 cigarettes per day.
Investigations Results Normal value
Cholesterol 7.7 mmol/l <5 mmol/l
Fasting triglyceride 2.5 mmol/l <1.7 mmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/l <40 IU/l
Which of the following is the single most likely explanation regarding the significance of his raised liver enzyme?
Your Answer: Probably has non alcoholic steatohepatitis, which can include fibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Liver Function Test Results in a Patient with Metabolic Risk Factors
Liver function tests are an important tool for assessing liver health. In a patient with metabolic risk factors such as obesity, dyslipidaemia, and abnormal glucose tolerance, elevated liver transaminases may indicate non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), a condition that can lead to fibrosis and eventually cirrhosis if left untreated. Weight loss and control of comorbidities are the mainstay of management for NASH. While autoimmune hepatitis is a rarer possibility, it may be considered if the patient has a history of other autoimmune disorders and a normal body mass index and lipid profile. Regardless of the specific diagnosis, abnormal liver function test results in a patient with metabolic risk factors require further investigation and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents having recently noticed a lump in his right groin which disappears when he is recumbent. It is accompanied by some discomfort. He has a chronic cough due to smoking and has had an appendicectomy previously. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Incisional hernia
Correct Answer: Inguinal hernia
Explanation:Inguinal hernia is the most probable reason for a lump in the right groin of a patient in this age group. This type of hernia occurs when a part of the intestine protrudes through the external inguinal ring. It may go unnoticed for a while, cause discomfort or pain, and resolve when lying flat. Femoral hernias are more common in females, while an epigastric hernia or an incisional hernia following appendicectomy would be unlikely in this anatomical site.
This patient’s persistent cough due to smoking puts him at a higher risk of developing hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Correct
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You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 35-year-old woman with coeliac disease.
Which of the following is indicated as part of her management?Your Answer: Administration of the pneumococcal vaccine
Explanation:To prevent overwhelming pneumococcal sepsis due to hyposplenism, Coeliac UK advises that individuals with coeliac disease receive a pneumococcal infection vaccine and a booster every five years. Pertussis vaccines beyond those in the vaccination schedule are unnecessary. According to NICE CKS guidelines, annual blood tests for FBC, ferritin, thyroid function tests, liver function tests, B12, and folate are recommended. Calprotectin is utilized to assess gut inflammation, often as part of the diagnostic process for inflammatory bowel disease. Faecal occult blood testing is typically conducted if there are concerns about bowel cancer.
Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.
Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of dysphagia. He believes it has been present for around 18 months, but it is getting worse. He also reports experiencing chest discomfort, coughing at night, and waking up with undigested food on his pillow in the morning.
During the examination, his throat, neck, chest, and abdomen appear normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Achalasia
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a diagnosis of achalasia, which is characterized by the failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax, leading to a functional stricture. This can cause substernal cramps, regurgitation, and pulmonary aspiration due to the retention of food and saliva in the oesophagus, resulting in a nocturnal cough. Diagnosis is made using a barium swallow, and treatment involves endoscopic balloon dilation or cardiomyotomy. Barrett’s oesophagus, motor neurone disease, oesophageal carcinoma, and pharyngeal pouch are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s age, symptoms, and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 44-year-old woman who presented to you last month with a 6 week history of upper abdominal pain, heartburn and occasional reflux. Her medical history is unremarkable and you agreed on a plan for a 1 month trial of omeprazole 20 mg daily.
Sarah returns for a follow-up appointment after completing a month of omeprazole. Her symptoms have only slightly improved and they are still bothering her.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Continue the current dose of omeprazole for a further 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Test for Helicobacter pylori infection in 2 weeks and treat if positive
Explanation:If initial treatment for dyspepsia with either a PPI or ‘test and treat’ approach fails, the alternative strategy should be tried next. In Mark’s case, he has completed 1 month of a full-dose PPI and should now be tested for H. pylori infection. Referral for routine upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is not necessary at this stage.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of swelling in his ankles and fluid-filled blisters around his feet that burst easily. He has a history of Crohn's disease that has been bothering him for a long time. Upon examination, he appears normal except for a urinalysis that shows 2+ protein. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome
Correct Answer: Amyloidosis
Explanation:Medical Conditions Associated with Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can lead to various medical conditions. One of these conditions is amyloidosis, which occurs when extracellular protein deposits disrupt normal organ function. This can result in nephrotic syndrome, characterized by protein in the urine and edema. While cardiac disease is uncommon in Crohn’s disease, it can occur and may present as congestive heart failure. Cirrhosis of the liver is also a potential complication, particularly in cases of primary sclerosing cholangitis. However, there is no indication of liver failure in the presented case. Nephritic syndrome, which involves protein and blood in the urine, is not the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. While cutaneous manifestations such as blisters can occur in Crohn’s disease, pemphigus is a rare association and is not the likely cause of the patient’s edema and proteinuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 47-year-old man has been diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and CLO testing during gastroscopy confirms the presence of Helicobacter pylori. What is the best course of action for eradicating Helicobacter pylori?
Your Answer: Lansoprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has had dysphagia for three weeks. He thinks it is getting worse. He has lost a small amount of weight.
What is the best course of action?Your Answer: Refer urgently for endoscopy
Correct Answer: Check an FBC and then consider referral
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Cancer
This man requires an urgent referral for endoscopy as he may have cancer of the oesophagus. As a medical professional, it is important to identify alarm symptoms and understand referral guidelines that may apply. In this case, the patient’s dysphagia and weight loss are concerning and require urgent attention. An urgent referral is defined as one where the patient should be seen within two weeks.
It is crucial to get this question right, as nearly 20% of respondents did not refer this patient urgently. If you answered incorrectly, take a moment to review the latest NICE guidance to update your knowledge. Practice questions like these can highlight areas of knowledge deficiency and stimulate further learning. By remembering this scenario, you will be better equipped to handle similar situations in the future.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a history of GORD symptoms presents to the clinic after a three month trial of omeprazole 20 mg. Further investigations have revealed that he has a hiatus hernia. The decision is made to continue his omeprazole treatment and he is advised to lose weight as his BMI is 32.
Despite losing 5 kg over the past six months, he has visited the clinic twice for antibiotics due to lower respiratory tract infections. He has also been experiencing a nocturnal cough and possible asthma symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?Your Answer: Laparoscopic fundoplication
Correct Answer: Increase his omeprazole to 40 mg
Explanation:Indications for Surgical Repair of Hiatus Hernia
Indications for surgical repair of hiatus hernia include recurrent respiratory tract infection due to reflux. It is also considered in patients who have a para-oesophageal hernia because of the risk of strangulation.
Given this patient’s young age and the fact that he has attended twice in six months with symptoms of respiratory tract infection, surgical referral for laparoscopic fundoplication is advised. This procedure can help alleviate symptoms of reflux and prevent further respiratory tract infections. It is important to consider surgical intervention in cases where conservative management has failed or when there is a risk of complications such as strangulation. Proper evaluation and management of hiatus hernia can improve the quality of life for patients and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old lady presents to you with complaints of progressive bloating and feeling full for the past two months. She requests a prescription for Colpermin, as her sister found it helpful for her IBS. Additionally, she reports experiencing urinary frequency for several weeks and suspects a UTI. On examination, her abdomen appears non-specifically bloated, and a urine dip reveals trace protein but no blood, glucose, or leukocytes. She went through menopause at 54, is nulliparous, and has a family history of psoriasis. There are no known allergies. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Check CA 125
Correct Answer: Arrange abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Consideration of Ovarian Cancer in New Onset IBS after 50
This patient presenting with new onset IBS after the age of 50 should prompt consideration of ovarian cancer. According to NICE guidelines, symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer. CA 125 is the test of choice if ovarian cancer is being considered.
Risk factors for ovarian cancer include nulliparity and late menopause. Symptoms that should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer include progressive bloating, early satiety, and urinary frequency. A vaginal examination should be performed if ovarian cancer is suspected since abdominal examination alone can miss an ovarian mass. The family history of psoriasis is not relevant in this case.
Prescribing Colpermin is not necessarily incorrect, but IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion that should be given once serious and common alternatives have been ruled out. Prescribing an antibiotic is inappropriate because there is no evidence of infection here.
An abdominopelvic scan would be an alternative to arranging CA 125, but an abdominal scan by itself is usually not sufficient to fully examine the ovaries. If a CA 125 was high, an ultrasound scan would be arranged to assess the ovaries in more detail, and the results of the two would be combined in an RMI score to assess the risk of malignancy.
In summary, it is important to consider ovarian cancer in cases of new onset IBS after 50, especially if symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency are present. A thorough examination and appropriate tests should be performed to rule out this serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman with squamous cell lung cancer presents with confusion.
Her family reports that she has become slowly more confused over the last two weeks. She is also complaining of generalised aches and pains, lethargy and thirst. Further enquiry reveals that she has been having increasing problems with constipation.
What is the underlying cause of this presentation?Your Answer: Ectopic parathyroid hormone production
Explanation:Paraneoplastic Syndromes Associated with Lung Cancer
Lung cancer can be associated with various paraneoplastic syndromes, which are caused by substances produced by the tumor that affect other parts of the body. One such syndrome is hypercalcemia, which can cause confusion, lethargy, aches and pains, thirst, and constipation. Squamous cell lung carcinoma is particularly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone production, leading to increased calcium levels.
Other paraneoplastic syndromes associated with lung cancer include Cushing’s syndrome, which can occur with small cell lung cancer due to ectopic ACTH production; Horner’s syndrome, which can occur with apical lung tumors that invade sympathetic nerve fibers, causing ptosis, miosis, and anhydrosis; and Lambert-Eaton syndrome, an autoimmune process associated with small cell lung cancer that causes muscle weakness and hyporeflexia.
Another condition associated with lung cancer is SIADH, which causes hyponatremia and can lead to confusion, seizures, cardiac failure, edema, and muscle weakness. Causes of SIADH include small cell lung cancer, as well as other malignancies, stroke, subarachnoid hemorrhage, vasculitis, TB, and certain drugs like opiates. Understanding these paraneoplastic syndromes can help clinicians identify and manage symptoms in patients with lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with recurrent epigastric pain that is relieved by vomiting and has noticed some weight loss. He denies anorexia but admits to a fear of food bringing on the pain. On examination, he is tender in the epigastrium with no palpable masses. He also reports having dark stools, but attributes it to his love for red wine. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Correct Answer: Gastric ulcer
Explanation:Understanding Gastric Ulcers and Their Symptoms
Gastric ulcers are a common condition that can cause a range of symptoms. One of the most typical symptoms is abdominal pain, which can be described as a burning or gnawing sensation. Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, and loss of appetite.
It’s important to note that the symptoms of a gastric ulcer can be similar to those of other conditions, such as duodenal ulcers, gallstones, gastric carcinoma, and hiatus hernia. However, there are some key differences to look out for.
In duodenal ulcers, for example, the pain is usually delayed after eating and can be relieved by food. Gallstones, on the other hand, typically cause pain in the right upper quadrant and do not usually result in melaena (dark, tarry stools).
Gastric carcinoma should be considered in anyone with abdominal pain and weight loss, but gastric ulcer is more likely in younger patients without anorexia. Hiatus hernia, meanwhile, is often associated with heartburn and reflux.
If you are experiencing symptoms of a gastric ulcer, it’s important to seek medical attention. Your doctor can perform tests to determine the cause of your symptoms and recommend appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 72-year-old male came to his doctor complaining of loose stool during the night for the past 2 months. He has a medical history of uncontrolled diabetes, chronic kidney disease, retinopathy, osteoarthritis, and coeliac disease. He denied experiencing abdominal pain, bloating, weight loss, or vomiting. Upon examination, his abdomen appeared normal, and his vital signs were stable. His blood glucose level was 18.7mmol/L.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Autonomic neuropathy
Explanation:Autonomic neuropathy is a possible cause of night time diarrhoea in diabetics with poor control of their condition. Other potential diagnoses, such as irritable bowel syndrome, microscopic colitis, Crohn’s disease, and chronic constipation, should be considered and ruled out before making a definitive diagnosis. However, given the patient’s age and medical history, autonomic neuropathy is a likely explanation for her symptoms.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman with a previous history of surgery for a ruptured ovarian cyst as a teenager presents with colicky central abdominal pain of 24 hours’ duration. She has now started to vomit and on further questioning admits to constipation for the last 12 hours. There is nothing else significant in her medical history.
Select the single most correct option.Your Answer: The symptoms suggest an acute mesenteric embolus
Correct Answer: She should be thoroughly examined for a strangulated hernia
Explanation:Understanding Bowel Obstruction and Ischaemic Bowel
Bowel obstruction can occur as a result of adhesions, which are commonly caused by previous abdominal surgery. Symptoms such as abdominal pain, bloating, and vomiting may indicate a small bowel obstruction. It is important to rule out a strangulated hernia, especially a small femoral hernia.
Ischaemic bowel, on the other hand, is typically seen in patients with pre-existing cardiovascular disease and risk factors. This condition often presents acutely and is caused by an arterial occlusion. Symptoms include severe abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and diarrhoea, which may be bloody. It is important to suspect ischaemic bowel in patients with acute abdominal pain that is out of proportion to clinical findings.
In summary, understanding the differences between bowel obstruction and ischaemic bowel can help healthcare professionals make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents with persistent fatigue, poor appetite, occasional sweats and a feeling of upper abdominal discomfort. He smokes 15 cigarettes per day, drinks up to 10 units of alcohol a week. He has no change in bowel habit. His records show that he injected heroin for a short period of time in his twenties.
He had an urgent ultrasound scan which shows a mass in his liver which has now been biopsied and reported as hepatocellular cancer of the liver.
What is the greatest risk factor for hepatocellular primary liver cancer in this 60-year-old man?Your Answer: Hepatitis C infection
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A infection
Explanation:Hepatitis C and Liver Cancer
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that often goes undiagnosed for up to 20 years, making it a significant risk for those who engage in needle sharing and drug use. This infection can lead to cirrhosis of the liver, which increases the risk of developing primary liver cancer. In fact, around 80% of hepatocellular carcinoma cases are caused by viral infections with either hepatitis C or hepatitis B.
While gallstones and caffeine intake are not associated with an increased risk of liver cancer, previous cholecystectomy and chronic infection with hepatitis B can increase the risk. Statin use and hepatitis A infection, on the other hand, are not associated with an increased risk.
It is crucial to consider hepatitis C testing for at-risk populations and to maintain a low index of suspicion for liver cancer in those with a hepatitis C diagnosis. Early detection and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for those with liver cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes comes in for her diabetic annual review. She reports feeling constantly fatigued for the past few months. Her blood work shows normal thyroid, liver, and renal function. However, her full blood count indicates a mild anemia with a hemoglobin level of 105 g/L and MCV of 80 fL. Her HbA1c is 52 mmol/mol, and her urine dipstick test is negative for ketones. Upon examination, there are no notable findings. The patient denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, has regular bowel movements, and has not experienced any rectal bleeding or mucous. Her weight is stable, and she doesn't experience abdominal pain or bloating. There is no known family history of gastrointestinal pathology or malignancy. Further blood tests confirm iron deficiency anemia. The patient follows a regular gluten-containing diet. What is the most appropriate initial serological test to perform for coeliac disease in this patient?
Your Answer: IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTGA) testing
Correct Answer: IgA endomysial antibody (EMA) testing
Explanation:Serological testing for coeliac disease is used to determine if further investigation is necessary. The preferred first choice test is IgA transglutaminase, with IgA endomysial antibodies used if the result is equivocal. False negative results can occur in those with IgA deficiency, so this should be ruled out. HLA testing may be considered in specific situations but is not necessary for initial testing. If there is significant clinical suspicion of coeliac disease despite negative serological testing, referral to a specialist should still be offered. Accuracy of testing depends on following a gluten-containing diet for at least six weeks prior to testing. A clinical response to a gluten-free diet is not diagnostic of coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner concerned that he may have cirrhosis of the liver. He has regularly drunk more than 30 units of alcohol every week for many years. Over the last three months, he has lost 2 kg in weight. He attributes this to a poor appetite.
On examination, there are no obvious features.
What is the most appropriate advice you can provide this patient?
Your Answer: An ultrasound (US) scan of the liver is now necessary
Correct Answer: The presence of chronic hepatitis C infection makes a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis more likely
Explanation:Diagnosing Liver Cirrhosis in Patients with Chronic Hepatitis C Infection
Liver cirrhosis is a common complication of chronic hepatitis C infection and can be caused by other factors such as alcohol consumption. Patients with chronic hepatitis C infection who are over 55 years old, male, and consume moderate amounts of alcohol are at higher risk of developing cirrhosis. However, cirrhosis can be asymptomatic until complications arise. An ultrasound scan can detect cirrhosis and its complications, but a liver biopsy is the gold standard for diagnosis. Abnormal liver function tests may indicate liver damage, but they are not always conclusive. The absence of signs doesn’t exclude a diagnosis of liver cirrhosis. Further investigation is necessary before considering a liver biopsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with jaundiced sclera that developed over a period of 2 days. She had been fasting for religious reasons during this time and has no past medical history of jaundice. The patient is asymptomatic and her abdominal examination is unremarkable. Upon blood testing, her FBC and reticulocyte count are normal, as well as her blood film. She has predominantly unconjugated bilirubin levels of 50 µmol/L (normal range 3 - 17) and otherwise normal LFTs. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Your Answer: Reassure
Explanation:If a person has an increased serum bilirubin concentration with normal liver function tests, it may indicate Gilbert’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by a rise in bilirubin in response to physiological stress and may cause mild jaundice during fasting. However, it doesn’t require treatment or monitoring and cannot progress to chronic liver disease. Therefore, reassurance is the most appropriate option, and hospital admission or ultrasound scanning is unnecessary. Additionally, as Gilbert’s syndrome is not associated with upper GI malignancies, a 2-week wait clinic is not required. Repeating liver function tests in 48 hours would not change the management plan for this condition.
Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.
To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient complains of gastrointestinal symptoms. What feature in the history would be the least indicative of a diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome?
Your Answer: Bladder symptoms
Correct Answer: 62-year-old female
Explanation:The new NICE guidelines identify onset after the age of 60 as a warning sign.
Diagnosis and Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects many people. To diagnose IBS, a patient must have experienced abdominal pain, bloating, or a change in bowel habit for at least six months. A positive diagnosis of IBS is made if the patient has abdominal pain relieved by defecation or associated with altered bowel frequency stool form, in addition to two of the following four symptoms: altered stool passage, abdominal bloating, symptoms made worse by eating, and passage of mucous. Other features such as lethargy, nausea, backache, and bladder symptoms may also support the diagnosis.
It is important to enquire about red flag features such as rectal bleeding, unexplained/unintentional weight loss, family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and onset after 60 years of age. Primary care investigations such as a full blood count, ESR/CRP, and coeliac disease screen (tissue transglutaminase antibodies) are suggested. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published clinical guidelines on the diagnosis and management of IBS in 2008 to help healthcare professionals provide the best care for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female with ulcerative colitis is discovered to have anti-smooth muscle antibodies.
What is the most suitable subsequent test for this patient?Your Answer: Liver function test
Correct Answer: Order an urgent endoscopy
Explanation:Next Investigation for Women with Suspected Autoimmune Hepatitis
The most appropriate next investigation for this woman is to conduct liver function tests (LFTs) to assess if there are any features of autoimmune hepatitis. This includes checking for raised levels of bilirubin, aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), and alkaline phosphatase. If any of these levels are elevated, further diagnostic imaging or a liver biopsy may be required to confirm the diagnosis.
Autoimmune hepatitis is often seen in individuals with other autoimmune disorders such as ulcerative colitis. Therefore, it is important to conduct these tests to determine the underlying cause of the woman’s symptoms and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of flushing, right-sided abdominal discomfort, diarrhoea and palpitations. She has been experiencing weight loss and there is a palpable mass in her right lower abdomen.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Carcinoid syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Flushing and Right-Sided Abdominal Mass
Carcinoid Syndrome and Other Differential Diagnoses
Carcinoid tumours are rare neuroendocrine tumours that can secrete various bioactive compounds, including serotonin and bradykinin, leading to a distinct clinical syndrome called carcinoid syndrome. The symptoms of carcinoid syndrome include flushing, bronchospasm, diarrhoea, and right-sided valvular heart lesions, such as tricuspid regurgitation. However, classical carcinoid syndrome occurs in less than 10% of patients with carcinoid tumours, and the diagnosis requires histological confirmation.
Other possible causes of flushing and right-sided abdominal mass in this patient include appendiceal abscess, caecal carcinoma, menopausal symptoms, and ovarian tumour. An appendiceal abscess usually results from acute appendicitis and presents with pain and fever. Caecal carcinoma can cause similar symptoms as carcinoid tumours, but it is more common and has a worse prognosis. Menopausal symptoms may cause flushing, but they do not explain the other symptoms or the mass. Ovarian tumours may cause abdominal distension and pain, but they are often asymptomatic in the early stages.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation of this patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment. Depending on the suspected diagnosis, the management may involve surgery, chemotherapy, hormone therapy, or supportive care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea and weight loss for the past four months. She describes the pain as dull, piercing and it radiates to her back. She has a history of anorexia. On physical examination, there is mild tenderness in the epigastric region but no palpable masses. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Carcinoma of the pancreas
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain: A Case Study
The patient presents with abdominal pain, and a differential diagnosis must be considered. The symptoms suggest carcinoma of the body or tail of the pancreas, as obstructive jaundice is not present. The pain is located in the epigastric region and radiates to the back, indicating retroperitoneal invasion of the splanchnic nerve plexus by the tumour.
Cholangiocarcinoma, a malignancy of the biliary duct system, is unlikely as jaundice is not present. Pain in the right upper quadrant may occur in advanced disease. Early gastric carcinoma often presents with symptoms of uncomplicated dyspepsia, while advanced disease presents with weight loss, vomiting, anorexia, upper abdominal pain, and anaemia.
Peptic ulcer disease is a possibility, with epigastric pain being the most common symptom. Duodenal ulcer pain often awakens the patient at night, and pain with radiation to the back can occur with posterior penetrating gastric ulcer complicated by pancreatitis. However, the presence of weight loss makes pancreatic carcinoma more likely.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, caused by a non-beta-islet-cell, gastrin-secreting tumour of the pancreas, is also a possibility. Epigastric pain due to ulceration is a common symptom, particularly in sporadic cases and in men. Diarrhoea is the most common symptom in patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, as well as in female patients.
In conclusion, the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain in this case includes carcinoma of the pancreas, peptic ulcer disease, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Further diagnostic tests are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of persistent diarrhoea. He has a medical history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
He was recently hospitalized for pneumonia and received IV antibiotics. While in the hospital, he developed watery diarrhoea, nausea, and abdominal discomfort. After a stool sample, he was prescribed a 10-day course of oral vancomycin and discharged home. However, his diarrhoea has not improved.
Upon examination, he appears alert, his vital signs are normal, and his abdomen is non-tender.
What would be the next course of treatment to consider?Your Answer: Fidaxomicin
Explanation:If initial treatment with vancomycin is ineffective against Clostridium difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening.
Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, it is likely that he has contracted Clostridium difficile infection due to his recent antibiotic use and possible use of proton-pump inhibitors. Therefore, oral fidaxomicin would be the appropriate second-line treatment option.
Continuing with vancomycin would not be the best course of action, as fidaxomicin is recommended as the next step if vancomycin is ineffective.
Using loperamide for symptom relief is not recommended in cases of suspected Clostridium difficile infection, as it may slow down the clearance of toxins produced by the bacteria.
Piperacillin-tazobactam is not a suitable treatment option for Clostridium difficile infection, as it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can increase the risk of developing the infection.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female who is being investigated for secondary amenorrhoea comes in with yellowing of the eyes. During the examination, spider naevi are observed, and the liver is tender and enlarged. The following blood tests are conducted:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 11.6 g/dl
- Platelets (Plt): 145 * 109/l
- White blood cell count (WCC): 6.4 * 109/l
- Albumin: 33 g/l
- Bilirubin: 78 µmol/l
- Alanine transaminase (ALT): 245 iu/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis
Correct Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Explanation:When a young female experiences both abnormal liver function tests and a lack of menstrual periods, it is highly indicative of autoimmune hepatitis.
Autoimmune hepatitis is a condition that affects young females and has an unknown cause. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, hypergammaglobulinaemia, and HLA B8, DR3. There are three types of autoimmune hepatitis, which are classified based on the types of circulating antibodies present. Type I affects both adults and children and is characterized by the presence of Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA). Type II affects children only and is characterized by the presence of anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (LKM1). Type III affects adults in middle-age and is characterized by the presence of soluble liver-kidney antigen.
The symptoms of autoimmune hepatitis may include signs of chronic liver disease, acute hepatitis (which only 25% of patients present with), amenorrhoea (which is common), the presence of ANA/SMA/LKM1 antibodies, raised IgG levels, and liver biopsy showing inflammation extending beyond the limiting plate ‘piecemeal necrosis’ and bridging necrosis. The management of autoimmune hepatitis involves the use of steroids and other immunosuppressants such as azathioprine. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with chronic left iliac fossa pain and alternating bowel habit is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. She has been treated with a combination of antispasmodics, laxatives and anti-motility agents for 6 months but there has been no significant improvement in her symptoms. What is the most appropriate next step according to recent NICE guidelines?
Your Answer: Low-dose tricyclic antidepressant
Explanation:NICE suggests that psychological interventions should be taken into account after a period of 12 months. Tricyclic antidepressants are recommended over selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Correct
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You are evaluating a 37-year-old man who presented with an anal fissure caused by constipation and straining. He reports no systemic symptoms and is generally in good health. Despite using lidocaine ointment as prescribed, he continues to experience severe rectal pain during bowel movements and passes bright red blood with every stool. His stools have become softer due to modifications in his diet and regular lactulose use. What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Prescribe topical GTN ointment for 6-8 weeks and review if still not healed
Explanation:To alleviate pain and promote healing, suggest using an ointment (if there are no contraindications) twice a day for 6-8 weeks. Referral to colorectal surgeons is not necessary at this time since there are no indications of a severe underlying condition. If the GTN treatment is ineffective after 6-8 weeks, referral to the surgeons may be considered. Topical diltiazem may be prescribed under specialist guidance, but hydrocortisone ointment is not a recommended treatment for anal fissures.
Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the anal canal that can cause pain and rectal bleeding. They can be acute or chronic, depending on how long they have been present. Risk factors for developing anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.
Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, other underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.
Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, and the use of bulk-forming laxatives or lubricants before defecation. Topical anaesthetics and analgesia can also be used to manage pain.
For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, but topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after 8 weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered and a referral to secondary care may be necessary.
Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for anal fissures can help individuals manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with a change in bowel habit. She has noticed that over the past four to six weeks she has been opening her bowels two to three times a day with very loose stools. On a few occasions there have been small amounts of fresh blood in the stools. She has attributed this fresh blood to haemorrhoids which she has had in the past. Prior to this recent four to six week period she had typically opened her bowels once a day with well-formed stools.
There is no reported family history of bowel problems. A stool sample was sent to the laboratory two to three weeks after the looser stools started and stool microscopy was normal, as are her recent blood tests which show she is not anaemic. Clinical examination is unremarkable with normal abdominal and rectal examinations. Her weight is stable.
She tells you that she is not overly concerned about the symptoms as about a month ago she submitted her bowel screening samples and recently had a letter saying that her screening tests were negative.
What is the most appropriate next approach in this instance?Your Answer: Send off a further three stool samples for faecal occult blood testing
Correct Answer: Reassure the patient that in view of the negative bowel screening she doesn't require any further investigation but should continue to participate in screening every two years
Explanation:Importance of Urgent Referral for Patients with Bowel Symptoms
Screening tests are designed for asymptomatic individuals in at-risk populations. However, it is not uncommon for patients with bowel symptoms to falsely reassure themselves with negative screening results. In the case of a 68-year-old woman with persistent changes in bowel habit and rectal bleeding, urgent referral for further investigation is necessary.
It is important to note that relying on recent negative screening results can be inadequate and should not delay necessary medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the GP with a 3-week history of nausea, particularly worse after eating. He has not experienced any weight loss, upper abdominal pain or reflux. His past medical history includes a fractured right ankle in his twenties. He has no relevant family history. He is a social smoker and drinks around 2 pints with his friends at the weekend. The GP orders bloods which show:
Hb 140 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 550 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 9.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 5.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)
CRP 3 mg/L (< 5)
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Trial of PPI
Correct Answer: Non urgent referral for endoscopy
Explanation:A non-urgent referral to GI is necessary for patients who have both raised platelet count and nausea due to dyspepsia. In this case, the patient, who is 58 years old, meets the criteria for such referral.
While ondansetron is effective for chemically mediated nausea, metoclopramide or domperidone may be more appropriate for patients with reduced gastric motility.
PPI trial is typically used as a second line management for dyspepsia patients who do not require endoscopy referral.
Reassurance should not be given to patients who meet the criteria for non-urgent endoscopy referral, such as this man with dyspepsia symptoms and abnormal blood results.
Urgent endoscopy referral is not necessary for patients who only present with nausea.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral Criteria for Suspected Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common condition that can be managed through a stepwise approach. The first step is to review medications that may be causing dyspepsia and provide lifestyle advice. If symptoms persist, a full-dose proton pump inhibitor or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried for one month. If symptoms still persist, the alternative approach should be attempted.
For patients who meet referral criteria for suspected cancer, urgent referral for an endoscopy within two weeks is necessary. This includes patients with dysphagia, an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer, and patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia. Non-urgent referral is recommended for patients with haematemesis and patients aged 55 years or older with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reflux, dyspepsia, or upper abdominal pain.
Testing for H. pylori infection can be done through a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms have resolved following a ‘test and treat’ approach, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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