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Question 1
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A 92-year-old man is brought to the hospital from a nursing home with advanced pneumonia. Despite medical intervention, his condition worsens and he passes away within 48 hours of admission. His past medical history includes a hip replacement surgery 4 years ago and advanced dementia for which he is currently under guardianship.
What are the appropriate steps to take following his death?Your Answer: Refer the death to the coroner as she was detained under the mental health act at time of death
Explanation:If a person dies while under the mental health act, regardless of the cause of death, it is mandatory to report their death to the coroner. In this case, as the individual was detained under the mental health act at the time of their death, it is the responsibility of the doctors in the hospital where they passed away to issue the MCCD after discussing with the coroner. It would be inappropriate to ask the GP who performed their surgery over a year ago to issue the MCCD as they may not have seen the individual within 14 days prior to their death. Additionally, the doctors at the psychiatric hospital may have seen the individual within the 14 days prior, but it is still the responsibility of the hospital doctors who were caring for them at the time of their death to issue the MCCD.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman with a four year history of ulcerative colitis is prescribed azathioprine to prevent relapses. What vaccine should she avoid during this treatment?
Your Answer: Yellow fever
Explanation:Patients who are immunosuppressed, such as those taking azathioprine, should not receive live attenuated vaccines including BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.
Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics
Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with recurrent syncope following aerobics classes. On examination, a systolic murmur is heard that worsens with the Valsalva manoeuvre and improves on squatting. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Syncope: A Guide
Syncope, or fainting, can be caused by a variety of underlying conditions. One such condition is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM), which often presents with syncope following exercise. Patients with HCM may also have a mid-systolic murmur and a jerky pulse, which worsens with Valsalva but improves with squatting.
Atrial fibrillation, on the other hand, typically presents with palpitations, fatigue, or shortness of breath, but not syncope. It does not cause a murmur and results in an irregularly irregular pulse.
Epilepsy is not a common cause of syncope, as typical seizures involve loss of consciousness, tensing, shaking, and postictal fatigue.
Aortic stenosis can cause dizziness and syncope, and is usually associated with angina. The murmur associated with aortic stenosis is a crescendo-decrescendo murmur that radiates to the carotids.
A vasovagal attack, while it can cause syncope, would not cause a murmur. If syncope is recurrent, other causes should be sought.
Dyspnea is a common complaint in patients with HCM, but they may also experience angina or syncope. A left ventricular apical impulse, a prominent S4 gallop, and a harsh systolic ejection murmur are typical findings. The Valsalva maneuver can increase the murmur. An echocardiogram is the diagnostic procedure of choice.
Most patients with aortic stenosis have gradually increasing obstruction for years but do not become symptomatic until their sixth to eighth decades.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old man with a history of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. What is the most probable adverse effect he may encounter?
Your Answer: Weight gain
Explanation:Olanzapine, an atypical antipsychotic, often leads to weight gain as a prevalent negative outcome.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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A 26-year-old male patient presents to the emergency department after falling on his left hand. He reports experiencing pain in his hand, specifically in the anatomical snuffbox. Despite an x-ray being taken 2 hours after the fall, no fractures were detected in any of his carpal bones, and he was discharged with pain relief. However, he returns 10 days later, complaining of persistent pain and extreme tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox of his left hand. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Scaphoid fracture
Explanation:Fractures in the anatomical snuffbox area can be difficult to detect on x-rays immediately after a fall on the outstretched hand. However, the fracture line may become visible several days later, and patients may experience persistent pain in the area. It is crucial to identify these fractures promptly to prevent non-union and avascular necrosis. It is important to note that a Colles fracture, which also occurs after a fall on the outstretched hand, does not cause pain in the anatomical snuffbox. Similarly, a Barton’s fracture, which is intraarticular in nature, can be seen clearly on initial x-rays and does not cause pain in the anatomical snuffbox.
Upper limb fractures can occur due to various reasons, such as falls or impacts. One such fracture is Colles’ fracture, which is caused by a fall onto extended outstretched hands. This fracture is characterized by a dinner fork type deformity and has three features, including a transverse fracture of the radius, one inch proximal to the radio-carpal joint, and dorsal displacement and angulation. Another type of fracture is Smith’s fracture, which is a reverse Colles’ fracture and is caused by falling backwards onto the palm of an outstretched hand or falling with wrists flexed. This fracture results in volar angulation of the distal radius fragment, also known as the Garden spade deformity.
Bennett’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of the thumb metacarpal, caused by an impact on a flexed metacarpal, such as in fist fights. On an X-ray, a triangular fragment can be seen at the base of the metacarpal. Monteggia’s fracture is a dislocation of the proximal radioulnar joint in association with an ulna fracture, caused by a fall on an outstretched hand with forced pronation. It requires prompt diagnosis to avoid disability. Galeazzi fracture is a radial shaft fracture with associated dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint, occurring after a fall on the hand with a rotational force superimposed on it. Barton’s fracture is a distal radius fracture (Colles’/Smith’s) with associated radiocarpal dislocation, caused by a fall onto an extended and pronated wrist.
Scaphoid fractures are the most common carpal fractures and occur due to a fall onto an outstretched hand, with the tubercle, waist, or proximal 1/3 being at risk. The surface of the scaphoid is covered by articular cartilage, with a small area available for blood vessels, increasing the risk of fracture. The main physical signs of scaphoid fractures are swelling and tenderness in the anatomical snuff box, pain on wrist movements, and longitudinal compression of the thumb. An ulnar deviation AP is needed for visualization of scaphoid, and immobilization of scaphoid fractures can be difficult. Finally, a radial head fracture is common in young adults and is usually caused by a fall on the outstretched hand. It is characterized by marked local tenderness over
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Correct
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You want to screen a 60-year-old patient for hepatitis B. What is the most appropriate test to conduct?
Your Answer: HBsAg
Explanation:If the result of the anti-HBs test is positive, it means that the person is immune to hepatitis B either through vaccination or previous infection. On the other hand, a positive HBsAg test indicates that the person is currently infected with hepatitis B, either in its acute or chronic form.
Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.
To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Correct
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A 52-year-old man on several medications develops bruising. Blood tests reveal thrombocytopenia.
Which medication is the most probable cause of this?Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:Medications and their potential to cause thrombocytopenia
Thrombocytopenia is a condition where there is a low platelet count in the blood, which can lead to bleeding and bruising. Some medications have been known to cause immune-mediated, drug-induced thrombocytopenia. Ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is one such medication. It interacts with platelet membrane glycoprotein, resulting in the formation of drug-glycoprotein complexes that can trigger the production of antibodies. The mechanism behind this is not entirely clear. Paracetamol and bisoprolol have a low likelihood of causing thrombocytopenia, making them safer alternatives. Simvastatin also has a low risk of causing thrombocytopenia. Warfarin, on the other hand, has a potential side effect of bleeding but is not directly linked to causing thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with medications and to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any new medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of dyspnoea on exertion and a non-productive cough that has been bothering her for the past 4 months. During the examination, the doctor notices clubbing and crepitations at the lung bases. Lung function tests reveal a decreased vital capacity and an elevated FEV1:FVC ratio. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Fibrosing alveolitis
Explanation:Understanding Cryptogenic Fibrosing Alveolitis
Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, also known as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, is a disorder that typically affects individuals between the ages of 50 and 70 years, with a slightly higher incidence in men than women. The condition is characterized by progressive breathlessness on exertion, dry cough, and a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests. While excessive sputum production is uncommon in the early stages, constitutional symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy may occur. Finger clubbing is a common finding in patients with cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis.
While haemoptysis is rare, it may suggest the development of lung malignancy, which occurs with an increased risk in patients with this condition. It is important to note that the risk of lung cancer does not exclude the possibility of cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis. Chest pain is uncommon in this condition.
There is no definitive treatment for cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, and the average survival from the time of diagnosis is 3 years. However, the course of the disease can be highly variable, and up to 20% of patients survive for more than 5 years from diagnosis.
In summary, cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis is a progressive lung disorder that presents with breathlessness on exertion, dry cough, and a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests. While there is no definitive treatment, early diagnosis and management can improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while helping her mother with gardening. The wound appears superficial and is closed with skin glue. During examination, her vital signs are recorded as a temperature of 36.9ºC, heart rate of 86 bpm, blood pressure of 115/87 mmHg, respiratory rate of 16/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient's mother is concerned about the need for a tetanus booster as she cannot recall if her daughter received the full course of vaccinations during childhood. How should the patient be managed?
Your Answer: Tetanus booster vaccine and immunoglobulin
Explanation:If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain and the wound is not minor and less than 6 hours old, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin. In this case, the patient is 13 years old and should have received 4 or 5 vaccinations against tetanus under the standard UK vaccination schedule. Antibiotics are not necessary if the wound is clean and not deep. It is more efficient to administer the booster while the patient is in the department rather than asking the GP to follow up, which could result in the patient being lost to follow up. The term tetanus level is incorrect as there is no such test.
Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a history of vomiting blood earlier in the day. What is the most significant factor indicating an upper gastrointestinal bleed?
Your Answer: Urea = 15.4 mmol/l on a background of normal renal function
Explanation:A temporary and disproportionate increase in blood urea can be caused by an upper gastrointestinal bleed, which can function as a source of protein.
Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The clinical features of this condition include haematemesis, melena, and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes.
The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation is also necessary, including ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours.
For non-variceal bleeding, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should not be given before endoscopy to patients with suspected non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding. However, PPIs should be given to patients with non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding and stigmata of recent haemorrhage shown at endoscopy. If further bleeding occurs, options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery. For variceal bleeding, terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients at presentation, and band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 11
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with a complaint of right eye pain that has been present for 2 days. She reports sensitivity to bright light but denies any history of eye trauma or regular use of contact lenses. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and is currently taking methotrexate.
During the examination, the patient's vital signs are normal. The right eye appears red and is tearing. Fluorescein staining reveals the presence of a dendritic ulcer.
What is the recommended treatment for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Topical aciclovir
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is topical aciclovir. This patient’s symptoms and examination findings suggest herpes simplex keratitis, which is more common in immunosuppressed individuals. Topical aciclovir is the preferred treatment option. Artificial tears are not likely to be helpful as the patient’s eye is already watery. Oral flucloxacillin is not indicated for this condition, as it is typically used for superficial skin infections. Topical chloramphenicol is not appropriate for this patient, as it is used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis, which presents with different symptoms.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 35-year-old Jewish woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and found to be BRCA1-positive. What type of cancer is she most susceptible to developing?
Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Explanation:BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 Mutations and Their Association with Cancer
BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 are tumour suppressor genes that play a crucial role in repairing damaged DNA and preventing uncontrolled cell division. Mutations in these genes have been linked to an increased risk of developing various types of cancer, including breast, ovarian, prostate, pancreatic, and colorectal cancers. Ashkenazi Jews have a higher incidence of BRCA mutations, and women with a family history of breast cancer can be tested for these mutations. The risk of developing breast cancer is high for women with abnormal BRCA-1 or -2, but the risk for ovarian cancer is lower. There is currently no association between BRCA-1 mutations and cervical, endometrial, gastric, or lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 13
Correct
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You assess a 26-year-old male patient who presents with complaints of leg weakness. He reports feeling healthy except for experiencing a recent episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. The patient has no significant medical history. During your examination, you observe decreased strength in his legs, normal sensation, and reduced reflexes in the knee and ankle. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features
Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.
Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.
To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy has been treated for a first urinary tract infection. There was no evidence of pyelonephritis. Urine culture demonstrated growth of Escherichia coli. He was given a course of trimethoprim and recovered well.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate next step from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: No imaging required
Explanation:Imaging Guidelines for Urinary Tract Infections in Children
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in children and can be divided into upper and lower UTIs. Current guidelines recommend different imaging investigations based on the type of UTI and the child’s age. For infants and children aged ≥6 months with a first-time UTI that responds to treatment, routine ultrasonography is not recommended unless the child has an atypical UTI. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) is indicated if renal and bladder ultrasonography reveals hydronephrosis, scarring, or other findings that suggest high-grade vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) or obstructive uropathy. Ultrasonography of the urinary tract is the imaging study of choice in children with a UTI, and it is useful in excluding obstructive uropathy and identifying renal damage caused by pyelonephritis. Technectium-99m-labelled dimercaptosuccinic acid (99mTc-DMSA) is a scintigraphic agent that can be used to assess acute pyelonephritis, renal cortical scarring, and the identification of a malpositioned kidney. However, no imaging is required for a typical, non-recurrent UTI in a child aged ≥3 years. Atypical UTI features include being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to treatment with suitable antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman has delivered a baby boy at 40 + 2 weeks gestation. She is now 3 weeks postpartum and is exclusively breastfeeding with plans to continue for at least 6 months. What contraceptive method should she avoid due to absolute contraindication?
Your Answer: Combined contraceptive pill
Explanation:Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview
Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).
Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.
Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucus. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.
LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucus, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.
It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old male with a history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department with a painful red eye, photophobia, lacrimation, and reduced visual acuity. On examination, an irregularly shaped pupil is noted. What is the most suitable approach to manage this patient's current condition?
Your Answer: Steroid and cycloplegic (mydriatic) eye drops
Explanation:Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which one of the following statements regarding the HPV vaccine is incorrect?
Your Answer: Children who received another live vaccine 2 weeks ago can safely have MMR
Explanation:The MMR Vaccine: Information on Contraindications and Adverse Effects
The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule.
However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.
While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, there are some adverse effects that may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, some children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman, who is 14 weeks and 5 days into her first pregnancy, visits the clinic to inquire about Down's syndrome screening. She failed to attend her screening appointment at 12 weeks pregnant and is curious if she can still undergo the combined test.
What guidance would you provide to her?Your Answer: The combined test can still be offered
Explanation:Screening for Down’s syndrome, which involves the nuchal scan, is conducted during antenatal care at 11-13+6 weeks. The combined test, which also includes the nuchal scan, is performed during this time frame. However, if the patient prefers to undergo the screening at a later stage of pregnancy, they can opt for the triple or quadruple test between 15 and 20 weeks.
NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 19
Correct
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A 30-year-old man visits his doctor for a follow-up on his depression. He was given fluoxetine 4 months ago for a case of moderate depression. He reports that his mood has been great lately, that he no longer feels despair about the future, and that he has resumed his hobbies of playing basketball and writing.
The patient indicates that he would like to discontinue taking fluoxetine since he believes his depression has been resolved.
What advice should be given?Your Answer: Continue fluoxetine for at least 6 months
Explanation:To decrease the risk of relapse, it is recommended to continue antidepressant treatment for at least 6 months after remission of symptoms. Therefore, the correct response is to continue fluoxetine for at least 6 months at the same dose. It should be noted that in elderly patients, treatment should be continued for 12 months, and in those with a history of recurrent depression, treatment should be continued for 2 years. Stopping fluoxetine or tapering the dose over 2 weeks is not appropriate, as treatment should be continued for at least 6 months before considering stopping or tapering. When fluoxetine is stopped, it is recommended to taper the dose over 6-12 weeks to minimize the risk of withdrawal symptoms.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Correct
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A 45-year-old with type 2 diabetes is found to have new vessel formation on the optic disc on fundoscopy.
Which of the following is the best intervention?Your Answer: Laser treatment
Explanation:Managing Diabetic Retinopathy: Treatment Options and Risk Factors
Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to blindness if left untreated. Laser photocoagulation is a non-invasive treatment option that has a high success rate and low complication rate. Focal laser photocoagulation is used to treat specific microaneurysms, while a grid pattern of laser burns is applied for non-specific leakage. Other important factors in managing diabetic retinopathy include controlling blood pressure, optimizing cholesterol levels, and maintaining HbA1c levels in the 6-7% range. Patients with diabetes should also be monitored for other ophthalmic complications, such as glaucoma and neuropathies. Risk factors for diabetic retinopathy include age at diabetes onset, serum triglyceride and total cholesterol levels, serum creatinine levels, and hypertension. Early detection and treatment of diabetic retinopathy can prevent blindness and improve long-term outcomes for patients with diabetes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 21
Correct
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Which one of the following patients should not be prescribed a statin without any contraindication?
Your Answer: A 57-year-old man with well controlled diabetes mellitus type 2 with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 8%
Explanation:Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 22
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy with asthma comes to the clinic with his mother, who is worried about his breathing problems. He has an oxygen saturation of 90%, his chest is slightly wheezy, but there is weak inspiratory effort, and his lips are pale.
What is the probable classification of the acute asthma exacerbation?Your Answer: Life-threatening acute asthma
Explanation:The child is experiencing life-threatening acute asthma, which is a medical emergency. This is defined as having any of the following features: SpO2 below 92%, peak expiratory flow below 33% of the best or predicted, silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, hypotension, exhaustion, or confusion. Therefore, 999 should be called immediately. This is not moderate or mild acute asthma, nor is it acute severe asthma, as the child is showing signs of cyanosis. Acute severe asthma is defined as having any of the following: SpO2 between 33-50% of the best or predicted, inability to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed, heart rate above 125 beats/min (for ages over 5) or above 140 beats/min (for ages 1-5), or respiratory rate above 30 breaths/min (for ages over 5) or above 40 breaths/min (for ages 1-5).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is referred to the clinic for evaluation. She is in her first month of pregnancy and has been experiencing excessive morning sickness. Her routine blood work revealed an ALT level of 64 iu/l (reference range 20–60 iu/l) and a total bilirubin level of 30 μmol/l (reference range < 20 μmol/l). Additionally, her potassium level was 3.4 (reference range 3.5–5.0 mEq/l) and her urea level was 7.5 (reference range 2.5–7.1 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?
Your Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Explanation:Liver Disorders in Pregnancy: Differential Diagnosis
During pregnancy, various liver disorders can occur, each with its own set of symptoms and potential complications. Here are some of the most common liver disorders that can occur during pregnancy and their distinguishing features:
1. Hyperemesis gravidarum: This is the most severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, which can lead to weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is characterised by persistent nausea and vomiting, and may require hospitalisation.
2. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy: This is a rare but serious complication that can occur in the third trimester. It is characterised by microvesicular steatosis in the liver, which can lead to liver insufficiency. Symptoms include malaise, nausea and vomiting, right upper quadrant and epigastric pain, and acute renal failure.
3. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy: This is the most common pregnancy-related liver disorder, characterised by generalised itching, particularly in the palms and soles, and jaundice. It is caused by hormonal changes and can lead to fetal complications if not treated promptly.
4. Pre-eclampsia: This is a disorder of widespread vascular malfunction that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. It is characterised by hypertension and proteinuria, with or without oedema.
5. Biliary tract disease: This is a broad spectrum of disorders ranging from asymptomatic gallstones to cholecystitis and choledocholithiasis. Symptoms include biliary colic, inflammation of the gall bladder wall, and obstruction of the common bile duct.
It is important to differentiate between these liver disorders in pregnancy, as each requires a different approach to management and treatment. Consultation with a healthcare provider is recommended for proper diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 24
Correct
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An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. Upon examination, an irregularly irregular heart rate is detected and confirmed to be atrial fibrillation on an ECG. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The physician is worried about preventing stroke. What medication would be the most appropriate for this concern?
Your Answer: Rivaroxaban
Explanation:For reducing the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF), the first-line anticoagulation should be a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as rivaroxaban. This recommendation is based on a scenario where a patient is found to have AF during a wellbeing check and requires anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Aspirin is not the correct choice as it is an antiplatelet and not an anticoagulant. While dalteparin and enoxaparin are low molecular weight heparins that are often used for VTE prophylaxis, DOACs are preferred first-line for stroke risk reduction in AF. Patients often prefer DOACs as they are available in tablet form.
NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 25
Correct
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A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of pain in his foot and lower limb that worsens at night. He reports that the pain alleviates when he dangles his leg over the bed's edge. Upon further inquiry, he mentions experiencing 'pins and needles' in his fingers, which feel cold. The patient has no medical history but is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day. What is the probable diagnosis based on the given information?
Your Answer: Buerger's disease
Explanation:Buerger’s disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is the likely diagnosis for a young male smoker experiencing symptoms similar to limb ischaemia. This non-atherosclerotic vasculitis primarily affects medium-sized arteries and is most common in young male smokers. Symptoms include cold sensation or paraesthesia in the limbs or fingers, rest pain, and possible ulceration or gangrene. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis and peripheral vascular disease are important differentials to consider, but unlikely in this case. Sickle cell anaemia and vitamin B12 deficiency are also less likely explanations for the symptoms.
Understanding Buerger’s Disease
Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a type of vasculitis that affects the small and medium-sized blood vessels. This condition is strongly linked to smoking and can cause a range of symptoms, including extremity ischemia, intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers, superficial thrombophlebitis, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Individuals with Buerger’s disease may experience reduced blood flow to their limbs, which can lead to pain, numbness, and tingling sensations. This can make it difficult to walk or perform other activities, and may even result in the development of ulcers or sores on the skin.
Superficial thrombophlebitis, or inflammation of the veins close to the surface of the skin, is another common symptom of Buerger’s disease. This can cause redness, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area.
Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, is also associated with Buerger’s disease. This can cause the affected areas to turn white or blue and feel cold and numb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of severe back pain lasting 30 minutes. The pain is constant and not exacerbated by coughing or sneezing.
On examination, the patient is in shock, with a palpable 7 cm mass deep in the epigastrium above the umbilicus. Her past medical history includes a 5 cm abdominal aortic aneurysm diagnosed three years ago at the time of appendectomy. The patient is a non-smoker and drinks one glass of wine a week.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm
Explanation:Possible Causes of Sudden-Onset Severe Back Pain: A Differential Diagnosis
Sudden-onset severe back pain can be a sign of various medical conditions. In the case of a male patient with increasing age and a known history of abdominal aortic aneurysm, a rupturing aortic aneurysm should be suspected until proven otherwise. This suspicion is supported by the presence of shock, a large palpable mass deep in the epigastrium, and severe back pain that may radiate to the abdomen. The risk of rupture increases with the size of the aneurysm, and blood initially leaks into the retroperitoneal space before spilling into the peritoneal cavity.
Other possible causes of sudden-onset severe back pain include acute cholecystitis, which is unlikely in a patient who had a previous cholecystectomy. Acute pancreatitis may also cause epigastric pain that radiates to the back, but this condition is usually accompanied by vomiting and diarrhea, and the patient does not have significant risk factors for it. Renal colic, which is characterized by acute severe pain that radiates from the loin to the groin, may cause tachycardia but is less likely in a patient who is haemodynamically unstable and has a known large AAA. Herniated lumbar disc, which may cause back pain that worsens with coughing or sneezing and radiates down the leg, is also less likely in this case.
Therefore, a rupturing abdominal aortic aneurysm is the most probable cause of the patient’s sudden-onset severe back pain, and urgent management is necessary to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 27
Correct
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A 62-year-old man is referred to Ophthalmology with bilateral cataracts. He reports a gradual decline in his vision over the past few years and has difficulty reading small print. He is placed on the surgical waiting list.
Which eye structure is most likely to be impacted by this ailment?Your Answer: Lens
Explanation:Anatomy of the Eye: Understanding the Different Parts and Their Disorders
The eye is a complex organ that allows us to see the world around us. It is made up of several parts, each with its own function. Understanding the anatomy of the eye and the disorders that can affect it is important for maintaining good eye health.
Lens: The lens is a transparent structure located behind the pupil and iris. It helps to focus light onto the retina. Cataracts occur when the lens becomes cloudy or opaque, causing vision problems.
Cornea: The cornea is the clear dome-shaped surface of the eye that sits over the iris. It plays a role in refracting light. Damage to the cornea can cause pain and light sensitivity.
Iris: The iris is the colored part of the eye. It can be affected by disorders such as uveitis, which causes inflammation of the uvea (iris, ciliary body, and choroid).
Retina: The retina is located at the back of the eye and contains rods and cones that process incoming light. Disorders of the retina include retinitis pigmentosa, diabetic retinopathy, and retinal detachment.
Sclera: The sclera is the white part of the eye. Disorders of the sclera include scleritis, which causes redness, pain, and reduced visual acuity. It can be associated with rheumatoid arthritis.
Understanding the different parts of the eye and their functions can help you identify potential problems and seek treatment early. Regular eye exams are important for maintaining good eye health and preventing vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 42-year-old man is worried about his chances of developing heart disease due to his family history. His father passed away from a heart attack at the age of 45. During his medical check-up, his lipid profile is as follows:
HDL: 1.4 mmol/l
LDL: 5.7 mmol/l
Triglycerides: 2.3 mmol/l
Total cholesterol: 8.2 mmol/l
Upon clinical examination, the doctor notices tendon xanthomata around his ankles. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Familial hypercholesterolaemia can be diagnosed when there are tendon xanthomata and elevated cholesterol levels present.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected. The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes total cholesterol and LDL-C levels, tendon xanthoma, and family history of myocardial infarction or raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate for FH. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by age 10 if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
Overall, early diagnosis and management of FH are crucial in preventing cardiovascular disease and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 29
Correct
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A 35-year-old man with type 1 diabetes visits his GP for a check-up on his blood sugar levels. He has been monitoring his daily blood glucose readings and the GP calculates an average of 7.8 mmol/L, indicating the need for better control. However, his HbA1c level is 41.5 mmol/mol (5.9%), indicating good glycaemic control. What could be causing this inconsistency?
Your Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia
Explanation:Individuals with sickle cell anaemia and other haemoglobinopathies may have inaccurate HbA1c readings due to the shortened lifespan of their red blood cells, resulting in lower than actual levels. Conversely, conditions such as splenectomy, iron-deficiency anaemia, B12 deficiency, and alcoholism can lead to falsely elevated HbA1c levels. The accuracy of HbA1c as a measure of average blood glucose concentration is dependent on the lifespan of red blood cells.
Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus
Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.
HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.
Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 30
Correct
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A 60-year-old white man, who is a chronic smoker, presents with low back and hip pain. His serum alkaline phosphatase level is 1000 iu/l (39–117 iu/l), calcium 2.25 mmol/l (2.2–2.67 mmol/l) and phosphate 1.2 mmol/l (0.8–1.5 mmol/l). Other liver function tests (LFTs) are normal. He also complains of difficulty in hearing.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Explanation:Bone Disorders and Blood Biochemistry: Understanding the Differences
Bone disorders can be difficult to diagnose, as many of them share similar symptoms. However, blood biochemistry can often provide clues to help differentiate between them. Here, we will discuss several common bone disorders and their associated blood biochemistry.
Paget’s Disease of Bone
Paget’s disease of bone is a disorder of bone remodeling that typically affects patients over the age of 40. Symptoms include bone and joint pain, deformities, nerve compression, and pathological fractures. Blood biochemistry typically shows raised serum alkaline phosphatase, with normal calcium and phosphate levels. Bisphosphonates are the mainstay of treatment.
Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Lung
Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is the second most common form of lung cancer and is strongly linked to smoking. Symptoms include cough, wheeze, and haemoptysis. Squamous cell carcinomas can cause hypercalcaemia as part of the paraneoplastic syndrome, but normal calcium levels and lack of respiratory symptoms may rule out this diagnosis.
Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells of the bone marrow. Normal calcium levels and the mention of hearing loss may rule out this diagnosis.
Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a disease of inadequate bone mineralization, most commonly caused by vitamin D deficiency. Symptoms include bony pain, muscle tenderness and weakness, pathological fractures, and proximal myopathy. Blood biochemistry may reveal hypocalcaemia and raised alkaline phosphatase.
Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is caused by decreased bone density and tends to present initially with a fragility fracture. Blood biochemistry would be normal in a patient with osteoporosis.
In summary, understanding the differences in blood biochemistry can help differentiate between common bone disorders. This knowledge can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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