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Question 1
Correct
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A newly registered couple comes to see you as they have been trying to have a baby for 4 months. She is 32 years old and was previously taking the oral contraceptive pill for 8 years. Her body mass index (BMI) is 27 and she is a non-smoker. She reports regular periods. He is 36 years old without medical history. His BMI 25 and he smokes five cigarettes per day.
What would you suggest next?Your Answer: Advice about weight loss and lifestyle measures
Explanation:First-Line Treatment for Couples Trying to Conceive
When a couple is trying to conceive, lifestyle measures should be the first-line treatment. This includes weight loss and quitting smoking, as both can negatively impact fertility. It’s also important to check for folic acid intake, alcohol and drug use, previous infections, and mental health issues. If the couple is having regular sexual intercourse without contraception, 84% will become pregnant within a year and 92% within two years. Therefore, further investigations and referrals to infertility services are not recommended until after a year of trying. Blood tests are not necessary if the woman is having regular periods. Sperm analysis can be performed after a year of trying, and a female pelvic ultrasound is not necessary at this point. The focus should be on lifestyle changes to improve the chances of conception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, severe acne and pigmented areas of skin in the axillae) and multiple ovarian cysts, demonstrated on ultrasound scan of both ovaries, has been trying to conceive for six months, but her periods are irregular. She has lost 2 stones in weight and attends clinic for further advice on management.
What is the most appropriate step in the management of this 28-year-old patient with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism, multiple ovarian cysts, irregular periods, and a desire to conceive, who has lost 2 stones in weight?Your Answer: Clomiphene citrate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Infertility in Women with PCOS
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common cause of infertility in women. Clomiphene citrate is the first-line medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It works by binding to hypothalamic estrogen receptors, inhibiting the negative feedback on follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and triggering ovulation. However, it is important to counsel women about the increased risk of multiple pregnancy when treated with Clomiphene. Metformin, once considered a viable option for PCOS-related infertility, is now considered inferior to Clomiphene. However, it can be used in combination with Clomiphene to increase the success of ovulation induction. Gonadotrophins are recommended as second-line treatment for women who do not respond to Clomiphene. Laparoscopic ovarian drilling is a surgical option reserved for cases where Clomiphene has failed. It involves destroying ovarian stroma to reduce androgen-secreting tissue and induce ovulation. The choice of treatment depends on individual patient factors and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week history of episodes of postcoital bleeding. She has had some lower abdominal pain but no tenderness or urinary symptoms. She is sexually active, with regular periods and her last menstrual cycle was one week ago. Her temperature is 37.1 °C and she has no systemic symptoms. She is a smoker and takes the oral contraceptive pill. Her last smear test was two years ago.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation?Your Answer: Urine dipstick
Correct Answer: Speculum examination of the cervix
Explanation:Investigating Postcoital Bleeding: The Role of Speculum Examination and Other Tests
Postcoital bleeding can be caused by various abnormalities of the cervix, including cervical ectropion, polyps, infection, or cervical cancer. In women presenting with postcoital bleeding, cervical cancer should be suspected if there are other symptoms such as vaginal discharge, pelvic pain, or dyspareunia. Risk factors for cervical cancer include smoking, oral contraceptive use, HPV infection, HIV infection, immunosuppression, and family history.
The primary screening tool for cervical cancer is a cervical smear, which should be done every three years for women aged 25-49. If a patient presents with postcoital bleeding, the first step is to perform a speculum examination to visualize the cervix, which can detect over 80% of cervical cancers. If the cervix appears normal, a smear may be taken if it is due, and swabs can be taken for STI testing and pregnancy testing. If symptoms persist, referral to colposcopy may be necessary.
Other tests such as blood tests, urine dipstick, and high vaginal swab may be useful in certain cases, but they are not the primary investigation for postcoital bleeding. Blood tests may be indicated later, while urine dipstick and high vaginal swab are secondary investigations following visualisation of the cervix.
In summary, speculum examination is the key initial investigation for postcoital bleeding, and cervical smear is the primary screening tool for cervical cancer. Other tests may be useful in specific situations, but they should not replace the essential role of speculum examination and cervical smear in the evaluation of postcoital bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic pain and frequency of urination. Blood results revealed CA-125 of 50 u/ml (<36 u/ml).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms
Abdominal symptoms can have various causes, and a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with bloating, early satiety, urinary symptoms, and an elevated CA-125 level. Here are some possible explanations for these symptoms, based on their typical features and diagnostic markers.
Ovarian cancer: This is a possible diagnosis, given the mass effect on the gastrointestinal and urinary organs, as well as the elevated CA-125 level. However, ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms initially, and other conditions can also increase CA-125 levels. Anorexia and weight loss are additional symptoms to consider.
Colorectal cancer: This is less likely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as change in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, or anemia. The classical marker for colorectal cancer is CEA, not CA-125.
Irritable bowel syndrome: This is also less likely, given the age of the patient and the presence of urinary symptoms. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and other likely conditions should be ruled out first.
Genitourinary prolapse: This is a possible diagnosis, given the urinary symptoms and the sensation of bulging or fullness. Vaginal spotting, pain, or irritation are additional symptoms to consider. However, abdominal bloating and early satiety are not typical, and CA-125 levels should not be affected.
Diverticulosis: This is unlikely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as altered bowel habits or left iliac fossa pain. Diverticulitis can cause rectal bleeding, but fever and acute onset of pain are more characteristic.
In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms should take into account the patient’s age, gender, medical history, and specific features of the symptoms. Additional tests and imaging may be necessary to confirm or exclude certain conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of increased urinary frequency and embarrassing leakage. She reports that it disrupts her work in the office as she has to constantly go to the toilet. However, she denies any association of the leakage with coughing or laughing. The patient's BMI is 32kg/m², and a vaginal examination shows no pelvic organ prolapse and an ability to initiate voluntary contraction of the pelvic floor muscles.
What initial investigations would you include for this patient?Your Answer: CT kidneys, ureter and bladder
Correct Answer: Urine dipstick and culture
Explanation:When dealing with patients who have urinary incontinence, it is crucial to eliminate the possibility of a UTI and diabetes mellitus as underlying causes. The first step in investigating urinary incontinence would be to conduct a urine dipstick and culture test, which can be easily done in a GP’s office. Other initial investigations include keeping a bladder diary for at least three days and undergoing urodynamic studies. It is important to note that the reliability of urine dip tests is questionable in women over 65 years of age and those who have catheters. A three-day bladder diary is necessary for initial investigations, and a one-day diary would not suffice. CT scans are not typically used to investigate urinary incontinence but are useful in detecting renal pathology such as ureteric calculi. Cystoscopy is not appropriate for this patient and is usually reserved for cases where bladder cancer is suspected.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), has been struggling with persistent hirsutism and acne since her teenage years. She expresses that this is now impacting her self-confidence and she has not seen any improvement with over-the-counter acne treatments. When asked about her menstrual cycles, she reports that they are still irregular and she has no plans to conceive at the moment. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Isotretinoin
Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol
Explanation:Co-cyprindiol is a medication that combines cyproterone acetate and ethinyl estradiol. It is commonly used to treat women with PCOS who have hirsutism and acne. Cyproterone acetate is an anti-androgen that reduces sebum production, leading to a reduction in acne and hirsutism. It also inhibits ovulation and induces regular withdrawal bleeds. However, it should not be used solely for contraception due to its higher risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other conventional contraceptives.
Topical retinoids are a first-line treatment for mild to moderate acne. They can be used alone or in combination with benzoyl peroxide.
Clomiphene citrate is a medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It has been associated with increased rates of pregnancy.
Desogestrel is a progesterone-only pill that induces regular bleeds and provides contraception. However, its effect on improving acne and hirsutism is inferior to combination drugs like co-cyprindiol.
Isotretinoin is a medication that regulates epithelial cell growth and is used to treat severe acne resistant to other treatments. It is highly teratogenic and should only be started by an experienced dermatologist in secondary care. Adequate contraceptive cover is necessary, and patients should avoid conception for two years after completing treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of worsening menstrual pain and heavier bleeding in the past year. During a bimanual pelvic exam, an enlarged, non-tender uterus is palpated. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals a 2 cm fibroid. The patient is nulliparous and desires to have children in the future but not within the next three years. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Progesterone-releasing intrauterine system
Explanation:Management Options for Fibroids in Women
Fibroids are a common gynecological condition that can cause symptoms such as dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. There are several management options available for women with fibroids, depending on their individual circumstances.
Progesterone-releasing intrauterine system: This is recommended as a first-line treatment for women with fibroid-associated menorrhagia, where the fibroids are < 3 cm and do not distort the uterine cavity. It also provides a long-term form of contraception for up to two years. Combined oral contraceptive pill: This can be used as a management option for fibroids and is a suitable option for women who do not wish to conceive at present. However, the intrauterine system is more effective and provides longer-term contraception. Expectant management: This can be considered for women who have asymptomatic fibroids. However, it is not appropriate for women who are experiencing symptoms such as dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. Hysterectomy: This is a surgical option for women with symptomatic fibroids who do not wish to preserve their fertility. It is not appropriate for women who wish to become pregnant in the future. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): These can be a useful management option for fibroid-related dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. However, hormonal contraceptives may be more appropriate for women who do not wish to conceive. Management Options for Women with Fibroids
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 83-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of a labial lump that has been present for two weeks. Although she does not experience any pain, she reports that the lump is very itchy and rubs against her underwear. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, and she takes amlodipine, metformin, and sitagliptin daily. During the examination, the physician observes a firm 2 cm x 3 cm lump on the left labia majora. The surrounding skin appears normal without signs of erythema or induration. Additionally, the physician notes palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Labial abscess
Correct Answer: Vulval carcinoma
Explanation:A labial lump and inguinal lymphadenopathy in an older woman may indicate the presence of vulval carcinoma, as these symptoms are concerning and should not be ignored. Although labial lumps are not uncommon, it is important to be vigilant and seek medical attention if a new lump appears.
Understanding Vulval Carcinoma
Vulval carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the vulva, which is the external female genitalia. It is a relatively rare condition, with only around 1,200 cases diagnosed in the UK each year. The majority of cases occur in women over the age of 65 years, and around 80% of cases are squamous cell carcinomas.
There are several risk factors associated with vulval carcinoma, including human papillomavirus (HPV) infection, vulval intraepithelial neoplasia (VIN), immunosuppression, and lichen sclerosus. Symptoms of vulval carcinoma may include a lump or ulcer on the labia majora, inguinal lymphadenopathy, and itching or irritation.
It is important for women to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of vulval carcinoma, and to seek medical attention if they experience any concerning symptoms. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes and increase the chances of a full recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents for cervical cancer screening and her results indicate positive high-risk HPV and low-grade dyskaryosis on cytology. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Explanation:If a patient’s cervical cancer screening sample is positive for high-risk HPV and shows cytological abnormalities, the next step according to guidelines is to refer the patient for a colposcopy. During this procedure, the cervix is closely examined to identify any disease. If significant abnormalities are found, loop excision of the transformation zone may be necessary. It is not appropriate to return the patient to normal recall without further investigation. Repeating the sample in 3 months is not necessary for a patient with high-risk HPV and requires specialist assessment. However, repeating the sample in 3 months may be considered if the initial sample was inadequate. Similarly, repeating the sample in 12 months is not the next step and may only be recommended after colposcopy. At this stage, the patient needs further assessment. Repeating the sample in 12 months may be considered if the patient has high-risk HPV with normal cytological findings.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy vaginal bleeding. She had her last menstrual period at the age of 48 and has not experienced any vaginal bleeding since then. The patient has a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease. She is currently taking a tiotropium/olodaterol inhaler and lansoprazole. She used to take the combined oral contraceptive pill for 20 years but did not undergo hormone replacement therapy. The patient has never been pregnant and has a smoking history of 35 pack-years. What is the most significant risk factor for her possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Smoking
Correct Answer: Nulliparity
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is more likely to occur in women who have never given birth. One of the warning signs of endometrial cancer is bleeding after menopause. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is not a known risk factor for endometrial cancer, but conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and polycystic ovary syndrome are. While late menopause can increase the risk of endometrial cancer, this patient experienced menopause at around age 50, which is slightly earlier than average. Smoking is not a risk factor for endometrial cancer, but it is associated with an increased risk of other types of cancer such as cervical, vulval, and breast cancer. On the other hand, taking the combined oral contraceptive pill can lower the risk of endometrial cancer, but it may increase the risk of breast and cervical cancer.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presented with pruritus in the perineal area, associated with pain on micturition and dyspareunia. She had thin, hypopigmented skin, with white, polygonal patches which, in areas, formed patches.
She returns for review after a 3-month trial of clobetasol proprionate, which has failed to improve symptoms. There is no evidence of infection, and her observations are stable.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?Your Answer: Combination topical steroid with antibacterial/antifungal properties
Correct Answer: Topical tacrolimus
Explanation:Treatment Options for Lichen Sclerosus: Topical Tacrolimus as Second-Line Therapy
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genital area in men and women, presenting with pruritus and skin irritation. First-line treatment involves high-potency steroids, but if the patient fails to respond, the next step is topical calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus. This immunosuppressant reduces inflammation by inhibiting the secretion of interleukin-2, which promotes T-cell proliferation. However, chronic inflammatory conditions like lichen sclerosus increase the risk of vulval carcinoma, so a tissue biopsy should be obtained if the lesion is steroid-resistant. UV phototherapy and oral retinoids are not recommended as second-line therapy due to uncertain risks, while surgical excision is reserved for severe cases. The combination of potent steroids with antibacterial or antifungal properties is a first-line option in cases of superimposed infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 32-year-old nulliparous woman is undergoing evaluation at the Infertility Clinic. Initial assessments, including thyroid function tests and mid-luteal phase progesterone and prolactin levels, are within normal limits. Semen analysis also shows no abnormalities. No sexually transmitted infections were found.
She experiences regular and heavy menstrual periods, accompanied by dysmenorrhoea that begins 1-2 days before the onset of bleeding. She also reports deep dyspareunia. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals no abnormalities.
Which investigation is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?Your Answer: Exploratory laparoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic Modalities for Endometriosis: Exploratory Laparoscopy, Transabdominal Ultrasound, Hysterosalpingography, MRI Abdomen Pelvis, and CA-125
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the endometrial cavity, causing cyclical proliferation and bleeding. It can lead to scarring, adhesions, and cysts with haemorrhagic contents. The classic symptoms are dyspareunia, infertility, cyclical pelvic pain, and dysmenorrhoea. Diagnosis is often made through Exploratory laparoscopy, where small, dark purple-black spots on the peritoneum can be identified and sampled for histological analysis. Transabdominal ultrasound is not very sensitive at detecting small deposits, but can detect endometriotic cysts. Hysterosalpingography is recommended for investigating infertility and recurrent miscarriage, but is not a definitive diagnosis for endometriosis. MRI of the pelvis is sensitive for endometriomas and adnexal masses, but not small deposits. CA-125 testing is not recommended for diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice regarding her current contraceptive method, microgynon 30. She recently went on a short trip and forgot to bring her pill pack, causing her to miss some pills. She last took a pill 76 hours ago and is uncertain about what to do next. The missed pills were from the third week of her pack, and she has not missed any other pills this month. She had unprotected sex in the past week. What guidance should you provide her?
Your Answer: Take emergency contraception, discard the remaining pack and use barrier contraception until restarting the pill as a new user
Correct Answer: Take 2 pills today, then finish the current pack, omit the pill-free interval and start the new pack immediately
Explanation:If a woman misses 2 pills in week 3 of taking the COCP, she should finish the remaining pills in the current pack and start a new pack immediately without taking the pill-free interval. Missing 2 pills means that it has been 72 hours since the last pill was taken, and the standard rule is to take 2 pills on the same day and continue taking one pill each day until the end of the pack. It is important not to take more than 2 pills in one day, and emergency contraception is only necessary if more than 7 consecutive pills are missed. In this case, the woman has not taken the required 7 consecutive pills to be protected during the pill-free interval, so she should start the new pack immediately. However, the chances of pregnancy are low if she has taken 7 pills consecutively the prior week.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman visits the Menopause Clinic with complaints of severe vasomotor symptoms such as hot flashes and night sweats. Despite experiencing light periods, she is worried about undergoing hormone replacement therapy (HRT) due to a past deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during pregnancy 18 years ago. Although she has not required any long-term treatment since then, she is anxious about the increased risk of clotting associated with HRT. without other risk factors, what is the most suitable form of HRT for her?
Your Answer: Transdermal combined HRT patches
Explanation:Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) Options for Women with a History of DVT
Women with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) need to be cautious when considering Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) options. Here are some options:
1. Transdermal Combined HRT Patches: This option is the best as it bypasses the enterohepatic circulation, reducing the effect on the hepatic clotting system.
2. Oral Continuous Combined HRT: This option is only suitable for postmenopausal women who have not had a period for over a year.
3. Oral Sequential Combined HRT: This option is suitable for perimenopausal women who are still having periods. However, oral preparations increase the risk of clots, compared to transdermal preparations.
4. Raloxifene: This is a selective oestrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that reduces osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It has effects on lipids and bone but does not stimulate the endometrium or breast.
5. Tibolone: This synthetic steroid has oestrogenic, progestational, and androgenic properties. It is only suitable for postmenopausal women who had their last period more than a year ago.
In conclusion, women with a history of DVT should consult their healthcare provider before starting any HRT option. Transdermal combined HRT patches may be the safest option for these women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman comes to your GP office on Monday morning, concerned that she removed her week 2 contraceptive patch on Friday evening and was unable to get a replacement over the weekend. She has not engaged in sexual activity in the past two weeks.
What is the best course of action to take?Your Answer: No emergency contraception required, but apply new patch and advise barrier contraception for the next 7 days
Explanation:If there has been a delay in changing the patch for over 48 hours but no sexual activity has occurred within the past 10 days, emergency contraception is not necessary. However, the individual must use barrier contraception for the next 7 days and replace the patch immediately. If there is no sexual activity planned for the next 7 days, no further action is required, but it is important to advise the individual to use barrier contraception during this time. It is crucial to replace the patch as soon as possible to ensure effective contraceptive coverage.
The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.
If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.
If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman, who previously had a negative HPV smear, has been requested to visit the General Practice Surgery to discuss the outcome of her recent smear. The results letter states that she is 'human papillomavirus negative'. As per NICE guidelines, what is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Refer back to routine screening, repeat in three years
Explanation:Cervical Screening and Referral Guidelines
Routine Screening and Recall
Women between the ages of 25 and 49 are screened for cervical cancer every three years. If a smear sample is negative for high-risk (HR) human papillomavirus (HPV), the patient is referred back to routine recall according to her age group.
Referral to Colposcopy
If reflex HR HPV testing is positive, the patient is referred to colposcopy for further assessment within six weeks. Women with high-grade dyskaryosis or abnormalities in glandular cells are referred to colposcopy as urgent appointments to be seen within two weeks. Women with borderline or mild dyskaryosis and who are HR HPV positive are referred to colposcopy as routine appointments to be seen within six weeks.
HPV Test of Cure
Women who have undergone treatment for cervical disease are offered an HPV test of cure six months after treatment. If the test is negative for dyskaryosis and HR HPV, the woman is recalled in three years. If the 6-month post-treatment test is negative for dyskaryosis but positive for HR HPV, the woman is re-referred to colposcopy. If there is evidence of high-grade dyskaryosis, the woman is referred back to colposcopy for reassessment.
Recall Frequency
Women aged 25-49 are recalled for routine screening every three years. Women aged 50-64 are recalled every five years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of continuous vaginal bleeding for the past 2 weeks. What would be your initial investigation in the clinic?
Your Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound
Explanation:TVUS is the recommended initial investigation for PMB, unless there are contraindications. This is because it provides the most accurate measurement of endometrial thickness, which is crucial in determining if the bleeding is due to endometrial cancer.
Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding
Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.
To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.
Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 21-year-old patient who began taking desogestrel 50 hours ago reaches out to you to report that she took her second dose of medication 15 hours behind schedule yesterday and engaged in unprotected sexual activity on the same day. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer: Organise for emergency contraception immediately
Explanation:Emergency contraception is necessary if unprotected sex occurred within 48 hours of restarting the POP after a missed pill. In this case, the patient missed her second pill by over 12 hours and is within the 48-hour window. A pregnancy test cannot provide reassurance the day after intercourse. It is important to take additional precautions and take the next pill at the normal time after a missed progesterone-only pill for 48 hours. If the missed pill is forgotten for 24 hours, taking two pills at once may be necessary, but in this instance, as the missed pill has already been taken, that suggestion is incorrect.
progesterone Only Pill: What to Do When You Miss a Pill
The progesterone only pill (POP) has simpler rules for missed pills compared to the combined oral contraceptive pill. It is important to note that the rules for the two types of pills should not be confused. The traditional POPs (Micronor, Noriday, Norgeston, Femulen) and Cerazette (desogestrel) have the following guidelines for missed pills:
– If the pill is less than 3 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
– If the pill is more than 3 hours late (i.e., more than 27 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed.
– If the pill is less than 12 hours late, no action is required, and you can continue taking the pill as normal.
– If the pill is more than 12 hours late (i.e., more than 36 hours since the last pill was taken), action is needed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman without previous pregnancies visits her GP complaining of abdominal bloating and diarrhea. She has a family history of irritable bowel syndrome. During the examination, the doctor notes a soft and non-tender abdomen with a detectable pelvic mass. What is the most appropriate next course of action?
Your Answer: Refer her for an urgent abdominal/pelvic ultrasound scan
Correct Answer: Measure CA125 and refer her urgently to gynaecology
Explanation:If there is suspicion of ovarian cancer and an abdominal or pelvic mass is present, it is not necessary to perform a CA125 and US test. Instead, the patient should be immediately referred to gynaecology. Prescribing loperamide and buscopan for symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome in women over 50 years old is not appropriate as these symptoms could indicate ovarian cancer and require investigation. While waiting for the results of CA125 and ultrasound tests is usually recommended for suspected ovarian cancer patients, urgent referral to gynaecology is necessary in this case due to the presence of an abdominal mass. Although CA125 measurement should still be performed, waiting for test results to determine the need for urgent referral is not appropriate as guidelines already recommend it.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on contraception and opts for the intrauterine system. What is the predominant side effect that she should be informed about during the initial 6 months of having the intrauterine system inserted?
Your Answer: Irregular bleeding
Explanation:During the initial 6 months after the intrauterine system is inserted, experiencing irregular bleeding is a typical adverse effect. However, over time, the majority of women who use the IUS will experience reduced or absent menstrual periods, which is advantageous for those who experience heavy menstrual bleeding or prefer not to have periods.
Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman is being staged for her ovarian cancer diagnosis. The scan reveals that the tumor has extended beyond the ovary, but remains within the pelvic region. What is the stage of her cancer?
Your Answer: 2
Explanation:Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Correct
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A gynaecologist is performing a hysterectomy for leiomyomata and menorrhagia on a 44-year-old woman. Once under anaesthesia, the patient is catheterised, and the surgeon makes a Pfannenstiel incision transversely, just superior to the pubic symphysis. After opening the parietal peritoneum, he identifies the uterus and makes a shallow, transverse incision in the visceral peritoneum on the anterior uterine wall, and then pushes this downwards to expose the lower uterus.
What is the most likely reason for this?Your Answer: The bladder is reflected downwards with the peritoneum
Explanation:Surgical Manoeuvre for Safe Access to the Gravid Uterus
During Gynaecological surgery, a specific manoeuvre is used to safely access the gravid uterus. The bladder is reflected downwards with the peritoneum, which also displaces the distal ureters and uterine tubes. This displacement renders these structures less vulnerable to damage during the procedure. The ovarian arteries, which are branches of the aorta, are not affected by this manoeuvre. However, the uterine artery needs to be pushed down for safe ligation as the ureters typically run superior to it. The sigmoid colon is also displaced out of the operating field using this manoeuvre, reducing the risk of injury. While the ovarian arteries are unlikely to be injured during surgery as they are more lateral, the incidence of ureteric injury is 1-2% in Gynaecological surgery, with 70% of these injuries occurring during the tying off of the uterine pedicle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-month history of post-coital bleeding, vaginal discomfort and intermittent vaginal discharge. She feels lethargic and reports unintentional weight loss. She is a single mother of two children and lives in shared accommodation with one other family. She is a smoker of 30 cigarettes a day. She has not engaged with the cervical screening programme.
Examination reveals a white lump on the cervix, associated with surface ulceration.
Cervical carcinoma is suspected.
Which of the following is a risk factor for developing cervical carcinoma?Your Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Risk Factors for Cervical Carcinoma: Understanding the Role of Smoking, HPV, and Other Factors
Cervical carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, the lower part of the uterus. While the exact causes of cervical carcinoma are not fully understood, several risk factors have been identified. In this article, we will explore some of the key risk factors associated with the development of cervical carcinoma, including smoking, HPV infection, late menopause, nulliparity, obesity, and the use of contraceptive pills.
Smoking is a significant risk factor for cervical carcinoma, accounting for 21% of cases in the UK. Nicotine and cotinine, two chemicals found in tobacco smoke, may directly damage DNA in cervical cells and act as a cofactor in HPV-driven carcinogenesis.
Persistent infection with HPV is the strongest risk factor for cervical carcinoma. Other risk factors include early sexual activity, low socio-economic status, co-infection with HIV, immunosuppression, and a family history of cervical carcinoma. Late menopause is a known risk factor for ovarian and endometrial carcinoma, but not cervical carcinoma. Nulliparity is associated with ovarian and endometrial carcinoma, but not cervical carcinoma. Obesity is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma, but not cervical carcinoma.
The combined oral contraceptive pill has been associated with a small increase in the risk of developing cervical carcinoma, but there is no evidence to support an association with the progesterone-only pill.
In conclusion, understanding the risk factors associated with cervical carcinoma is important for prevention and early detection. Quitting smoking, practicing safe sex, and getting regular cervical cancer screenings can help reduce the risk of developing this type of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is being evaluated for obesity, hirsutism, and oligomenorrhea. After an ultrasound scan, she is diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS). As she desires to conceive, her physician prescribes metformin to enhance her fertility. What is the mechanism of action of metformin in treating PCOS?
Your Answer: Increases peripheral insulin sensitivity
Explanation:Polycystic ovarian syndrome patients commonly experience insulin resistance, which can result in complex alterations in the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of constant pain in the left iliac fossa and nausea that started a day ago. She reports vomiting once but denies any other symptoms. The patient has a menstrual cycle of 28 days, and her last period began 5 days ago. She is sexually active and has consistently used condoms for contraception. There is no vaginal bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ovarian torsion
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient is ovarian torsion, which is common in women of reproductive age. Symptoms include pain in the iliac fossa that can spread to the loin, groin, or back, as well as nausea and vomiting. An adnexal mass may be present on examination, which is often caused by an ovarian cyst or neoplasm that has disrupted the ovary’s normal position and caused torsion. In some cases, a low-grade fever may also be present if ovarian necrosis has occurred.
It is important to rule out ectopic pregnancy as a differential diagnosis, which can be done with a pregnancy test regardless of reported contraception. Vaginal bleeding may help differentiate between the two conditions. However, since the patient’s menstrual period started 7 days ago and she uses condoms for contraception, ectopic pregnancy is less likely than ovarian torsion.
Appendicitis is also a possible cause of this presentation, but it typically presents with diffuse abdominal pain that later localizes to the right iliac fossa. In appendicitis, pain can be reproduced in the right iliac fossa by palpating the left iliac fossa (Rovsing’s sign), but left iliac fossa pain would not be the presenting symptom.
Mittelschmerz, which is mild pain in the right iliac fossa, could also be a possible cause, but it would not be associated with nausea and vomiting.
Causes of Pelvic Pain in Women
Pelvic pain is a common complaint among women, with primary dysmenorrhoea being the most frequent cause. Mittelschmerz, or pain during ovulation, may also occur. However, there are other conditions that can cause pelvic pain, which can be acute or chronic in nature.
Acute pelvic pain can be caused by conditions such as ectopic pregnancy, urinary tract infection, appendicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and ovarian torsion. Ectopic pregnancy is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in women with a history of 6-8 weeks of amenorrhoea. Urinary tract infection may cause dysuria and frequency, while appendicitis may present with pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa. Pelvic inflammatory disease may cause pelvic pain, fever, deep dyspareunia, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and menstrual irregularities. Ovarian torsion, on the other hand, may cause sudden onset unilateral lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a tender adnexal mass on examination.
Chronic pelvic pain, on the other hand, may be caused by conditions such as endometriosis, irritable bowel syndrome, ovarian cysts, and urogenital prolapse. Endometriosis is characterized by chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, deep dyspareunia, and subfertility. Irritable bowel syndrome is a common condition that presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and change in bowel habit. Ovarian cysts may cause a dull ache that is intermittent or only occurs during intercourse, while urogenital prolapse may cause a sensation of pressure, heaviness, and urinary symptoms such as incontinence, frequency, and urgency.
In summary, pelvic pain in women can be caused by various conditions, both acute and chronic. It is important to seek medical attention if the pain is severe or persistent, or if there are other concerning symptoms present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Correct
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Linda is an 80-year-old woman who has been experiencing urinary incontinence for the past 2 years without relief. Her symptoms occur when she laughs or coughs, but she has not had any episodes of nocturia. She has tried pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake, but these have not improved her symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no signs of infection, and a pelvic examination does not reveal any uterine prolapse. Linda has declined surgical intervention. What is the next best course of action for managing her incontinence?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:If pelvic floor muscle exercises and surgical intervention are not effective, duloxetine can be used to treat stress incontinence in patients. However, it is important to rule out other potential causes such as infection before starting treatment. Non-pharmacological management should be attempted first, including pelvic floor exercises and reducing caffeine intake. Duloxetine is a medication that works as a serotonin/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor and may cause side effects such as nausea, dizziness, and insomnia. For urge incontinence, antimuscarinic agents like oxybutynin, tolterodine, and solifenacin are typically used as first-line treatment. If these are not effective, a β3 agonist called mirabegron can be used as a second-line therapy.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of worsening menstrual pain that starts a few days before her period. Despite taking paracetamol and ibuprofen, the pain persists. She also experiences discomfort during penetrative sex. During a digital vaginal examination, the GP notes nodularity and tenderness in the posterior fornix of the cervix. A bimanual examination reveals a retroverted uterus that is fixed in position. What is the gold standard investigation for this likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hysteroscopy
Correct Answer: Laparoscopy
Explanation:Endometriosis is a condition that affects women of reproductive age and is diagnosed through laparoscopy, which can identify areas of ectopic endometrial tissue, adhesions, peritoneal deposits, and chocolate cysts on the ovaries. Hysteroscopy is not relevant as it only investigates the womb, while MRI pelvis may be used but its accuracy depends on the location of the disease. Transabdominal ultrasound is not reliable for diagnosing endometriosis, while transvaginal ultrasound is often used but not accurate enough for diagnosis.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old woman presents to the GP with vaginal dryness for the past 4 weeks and occasional small amounts of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. She denies any pain, dysuria, or changes in bowel habits. Her last period was 2 years ago and she has unprotected sexual intercourse with her husband, who is her only partner. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and obesity.
On examination, her abdomen and pelvis appear normal. What would be the most suitable course of action in managing her condition?Your Answer: Prescribe vaginal emollients and follow up in 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to secondary care
Explanation:If a woman is 55 years old or older and experiences postmenopausal bleeding (which occurs after 12 months of no menstruation), she should be referred for further evaluation within 2 weeks using the suspected cancer pathway to rule out endometrial cancer.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 32-year-old mother of two, who is uncertain if she wants to have more children. She comes to you with a history of not having a period for the past 9 months. Sophie had regular menstrual cycles for 28 months after giving birth to her last child. She has never used any hormonal birth control or undergone any surgeries. Upon examination, her abdomen and gynecological areas appear normal, and there are no signs of hyperandrogenism. A pregnancy test confirms that she is not pregnant.
Lab results show a decrease in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), luteinizing hormone (LH), and estradiol levels, while prolactin, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), and T4 levels are normal. A 10-day progestin challenge fails to induce a withdrawal bleed.
What is the underlying cause of Sophie's amenorrhea?Your Answer: Premature ovarian failure
Correct Answer: Hypothalamic dysfunction
Explanation:Caroline’s case of secondary amenorrhoea suggests a hypothalamic cause, as indicated by low levels of gonadotrophins (FSH and LH) and oestradiol. This is different from pituitary adenoma, which often presents with panhypopituitarism and normal prolactin levels, and premature ovarian failure, which is diagnosed in women under 40 with increased FSH levels and menopausal-like symptoms. PCOS is also unlikely as there is no hyperandrogenism or other symptoms present. Hypothalamic dysfunction can be caused by excessive exercise, stress, or dieting, which should be explored in the patient’s history.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 48-year-old patient has requested a consultation to discuss the outcome of her recent cervical screening test. The test showed normal cytology and was negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV). In her previous screening test 18 months ago, she had normal cytology but tested positive for hrHPV. What guidance should you provide to the patient based on her latest screening test result?
Your Answer: Return to routine recall in 3 years time
Explanation:If the result of the first repeat smear for cervical cancer screening at 12 months is negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can resume routine recall. This means they should undergo screening every 3 years from age 25-49 years or every 5 years from age 50-64 years. However, if the repeat test is positive again, the patient should undergo another HPV test in 12 months. If there is dyskaryosis on a cytology sample, the patient should be referred for colposcopy.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about post-coital bleeding. She has experienced this three times, but reports no pain, discharge, or bleeding between periods. She is currently taking the combined contraceptive pill and is sexually active with a consistent partner. The patient has never been pregnant and is anxious due to her family history of endometrial cancer in her grandmother. During the examination, the GP observes a small area of redness surrounding the cervical os. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Endometriosis
Correct Answer: Combined contraceptive pill use
Explanation:The likelihood of cervical ectropion is higher in individuals who take the COCP due to increased levels of oestrogen. Based on the patient’s medical history and examination results, cervical ectropion appears to be the most probable diagnosis. This condition is more prevalent during puberty, pregnancy, and while taking the pill. Endometrial cancer is improbable in a young person, and the presence of cervical ectropion on examination supports this straightforward diagnosis. Although chlamydia infection can cause cervicitis, the patient’s sexual history does not suggest this diagnosis, and the pill remains the most likely cause. It is recommended to undergo STI screenings annually.
Understanding Cervical Ectropion
Cervical ectropion is a condition that occurs when the columnar epithelium of the cervical canal extends onto the ectocervix, where the stratified squamous epithelium is located. This happens due to elevated levels of estrogen, which can occur during the ovulatory phase, pregnancy, or with the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The term cervical erosion is no longer commonly used to describe this condition.
Cervical ectropion can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge and post-coital bleeding. However, ablative treatments such as cold coagulation are only recommended for those experiencing troublesome symptoms. It is important to understand this condition and its symptoms in order to seek appropriate medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 32
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. What medication is typically used for medical management of this condition?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate is the preferred medication for treating ectopic pregnancy through medical management, provided the patient is willing to attend follow-up appointments.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 33
Correct
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A hairy 27-year-old woman visits the medical clinic with concerns about her missing menstrual cycles. What is one of the diagnostic criteria for polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)?
Your Answer: Oligomenorrhoea
Explanation:Although clinical features such as infrequent or absent ovulation and hyperandrogenism can suggest PCOS, NICE CKS recommends using specific diagnostic criteria. To diagnose PCOS, at least 2 out of 3 of the following criteria should be present: infrequent or no ovulation, signs of hyperandrogenism or elevated testosterone levels, and polycystic ovaries or increased ovarian volume on ultrasonography. It is important to note that a high BMI is not part of the diagnostic criteria, but signs of insulin resistance such as acanthosis nigricans may aid in diagnosis.
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.
To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.
To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cm³.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman is prescribed tamoxifen for the management of an oestrogen receptor positive breast cancer. What types of cancers are linked to the use of tamoxifen?
Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of a thick, cottage-cheese like vaginal discharge that has a yellowish hue. The patient reports that the discharge began two days ago. She denies any presence of blood in the discharge, but does experience pain while urinating. Upon physical examination, the patient does not exhibit any pain and there are no palpable masses.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Chlamydia
Correct Answer: Candida albicans
Explanation:Common Vaginal Infections and Their Symptoms
Vaginal infections can be caused by various organisms and can present with different symptoms. Here are some common vaginal infections and their symptoms:
1. Candida albicans: This fungal infection can cause candidiasis, which presents with a thick, cottage-cheese yellowish discharge and pain upon urination. Treatment involves antifungal medication.
2. Normal discharge: A normal vaginal discharge is clear and mucoid, without smell or other concerning symptoms.
3. gonorrhoeae: This sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae can cause a thick green-yellow discharge, painful urination, and bleeding between periods.
4. Chlamydia: This common sexually transmitted infection is often asymptomatic but can eventually cause pain upon urination, vaginal/penile discharge, and bleeding between periods.
5. Bacterial vaginosis: This infection is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina and presents with a grey, watery discharge with a fishy odor. Treatment involves antibiotics and topical gels or creams.
It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any concerning symptoms or suspect a vaginal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses every 32–38 days). She has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2 and is hirsute. She has short hair distributed in a male pattern of baldness.
Examination reveals brown, hyperpigmented areas in the creases of the axillae and around the neck. A glucose tolerance test is performed and shows the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Fasting plasma glucose 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) plasma glucose 9.2 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate monitoring plan for this patient?Your Answer: The above results indicate diabetes and treatment should be initiated
Correct Answer: Annual glucose tolerance testing as there is evidence of impaired glucose tolerance
Explanation:Annual Monitoring for Diabetes in Women with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome
Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) are at an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is important to monitor these patients for diabetes. The monitoring approach depends on the patient’s risk stratification, which is determined by factors such as BMI, family history of diabetes, and personal history of gestational diabetes.
For patients with evidence of impaired glucose tolerance, defined as a fasting glucose of < 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour OGTT of ≥ 7.8 but < 11.1 mmol/l, dietary and weight loss advice should be given, and a repeat glucose tolerance test is indicated annually. For patients with a normal glucose tolerance test, with a BMI of < 30 kg/m2, no family history of diabetes, and no personal history of gestational diabetes, annual random fasting glucose testing is appropriate. If the result is ≥ 5.6 mmol/l, then a glucose tolerance test should be performed. For patients with a BMI of ≥ 30 kg/m2, annual glucose tolerance testing is recommended. If diabetes is suspected based on symptoms such as polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, a random serum glucose of ≥ 11.0 mmol/l or a fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l is diagnostic. In asymptomatic patients, two samples of fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l are adequate for diagnosis. In conclusion, annual monitoring for diabetes is important in women with PCOS to prevent complications and morbidity associated with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The monitoring approach should be tailored to the patient’s risk stratification.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 37
Correct
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A woman of 68 presents with four episodes of postmenopausal bleeding over the last 6 months. She is otherwise fit and well, although her body mass index is 38 kg/m2.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:postmenopausal Bleeding: Common Causes and Investigations
postmenopausal bleeding can be caused by various factors, including atrophic vaginitis, endometrial atrophy, cervical or endometrial polyps, and endometrial hyperplasia/cancer. Among these causes, endometrial cancer is the most likely. Therefore, investigation for patients with postmenopausal bleeding is typically done in a specialist clinic, with transvaginal ultrasound, hysteroscopy, and biopsy.
However, submucosal fibroids become quiescent following menopause and usually calcify, and there is no evidence of increased risk of endometrial cancer in women with fibroids. On the other hand, ovarian cancer rarely, if ever, presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Cervical ectropion is a condition of young women, and vaginal cancer is very rare and usually presents with vaginal discharge.
In summary, postmenopausal bleeding should be investigated thoroughly to rule out any underlying serious conditions, such as endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 67-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with urge incontinence. She has tried conservative measures, such as optimizing fluid and caffeine intake and completing six weeks of bladder training, which have helped to some extent. However, her main symptom of nocturia continues to affect her sleep and well-being. She has no other medical history and currently takes no regular medication. What is the next most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Desmopressin
Correct Answer: Oxybutinin
Explanation:Management Options for Urge Incontinence: Medications, Procedures, and Desmopressin
Urge incontinence is a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. While conservative treatments such as pelvic floor exercises and bladder training are often the first line of management, some patients may require additional interventions. Here are some options for managing urge incontinence:
Oxybutinin: This anticholinergic medication is often used as first-line treatment for urge incontinence that has not responded to conservative measures. It works by inhibiting muscarinic action on acetylcholine receptors, preventing muscle contraction. However, it is contraindicated in certain patients and can cause side effects such as dry mouth and constipation.
Percutaneous sacral nerve stimulation: This procedure involves a small stimulator that delivers stimulation to the sacral nerve, leading to contraction of the external sphincter and pelvic floor muscles. It is reserved for patients who have failed other treatments or cannot perform intermittent self-catheterization.
Augmentation cystoplasty: This surgical procedure is reserved for severe cases of urge incontinence that have not responded to other management options. It involves resecting a segment of the small bowel and suturing it to the bladder to increase its size. However, it is associated with numerous complications and requires follow-up.
Botulinum toxin: This is the first-line invasive management for patients who have not improved on anticholinergic medication or do not want drug therapy. It is injected into the bladder to inhibit the release of acetylcholine and provide symptom relief for up to six months.
Desmopressin: This synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone is used as second-line management for nocturia in patients with urge incontinence. It works by signaling the transportation of aquaporins in the collecting ducts of the kidney, leading to water reabsorption and less urine production. However, it is contraindicated in certain patients and can cause side effects such as hyponatremia and fluid retention.
In summary, there are several options for managing urge incontinence, ranging from medications to procedures. It is important to consider the patient’s individual needs and contraindications when selecting a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 1-year history of amenorrhoea and a milky discharge from both breasts. She is not taking any medications and a pregnancy test is negative. What is the next recommended test?
Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:The patient’s amenorrhea and galactorrhea are caused by hyperprolactinemia, which requires initial management to exclude hypothyroidism, chronic renal failure, and pregnancy as underlying causes. A CT scan is not necessary in this scenario. However, after excluding primary hypothyroidism and chronic renal failure, formal visual field testing can be done to investigate potential changes in keeping with a pituitary adenoma. An MRI head can also be done to look for a pituitary adenoma. Although a mammogram is not relevant in this case, the patient should still undergo breast screening. If the discharge were bloody, a mammogram would be necessary to rule out breast carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 18-year-old woman presents to the specialist clinic for insertion of an intrauterine system (IUS). During the procedure, the clinician observes scarring around the anterior genital area and an absent clitoris. Upon further discussion, the patient reveals that she underwent surgery during a family trip abroad about 8 years ago, but cannot recall the specifics. She expresses contentment with the situation and declines any further investigation or involvement of law enforcement. What should be the clinician's next course of action?
Your Answer: Provide the patient with self-referral pathway information
Correct Answer: Report the incident to the police
Explanation:If an 18-year-old woman is suspected to be a victim of female genital mutilation (FGM), the best course of action is to report the incident to the police as FGM is illegal in the UK. Contacting the medical director or providing the patient with self-referral pathway information are not appropriate responses. It is important to acknowledge the patient’s wishes, but due to her age, reporting the incident to the police is necessary for investigation.
Understanding Female Genital Mutilation
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a term used to describe any procedure that involves the partial or complete removal of the external female genitalia or any other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. The World Health Organization (WHO) has classified FGM into four types. Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Finally, type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient has visited the smear test clinic at her GP practice for a follow-up test. Her previous test was conducted three months ago.
What would have been the outcome of the previous test that necessitated a retest after only three months for this patient?Your Answer: Inadequate sample
Explanation:In the case of an inadequate smear test result, the patient will be advised to undergo a repeat test within 3 months. If the second test also yields an inadequate result, the patient will need to undergo colposcopy testing.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of discharge. She mentions having a recent sexual partner without using barrier protection. During the examination, the doctor observes thick cottage-cheese-like discharge. The patient denies experiencing any other notable symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Candida albicans
Explanation:Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old patient visits you on a Wednesday afternoon after having unprotected sex on the previous Saturday. She is worried about the possibility of an unintended pregnancy and wants to know the most effective method to prevent it. She had her last menstrual cycle two weeks ago.
What would be the best course of action?Your Answer: Prescribe ulipristal acetate emergency contraception
Correct Answer: Arrange for copper coil (IUD) insertion
Explanation:For a patient who has had unprotected intercourse within the last 72 hours and is seeking the most effective form of emergency contraception, the recommended course of action is to arrange for a copper coil (IUD) insertion. This method is effective for up to five days (120 hours) after intercourse, whether or not ovulation has occurred, and works by preventing fertilization or implantation. If there are concerns about sexually transmitted infections, antibiotics can be given at the same time. It is incorrect to advise the patient that she has missed the window for emergency contraception, as both the copper coil and ulipristal acetate are licensed for use up to five days after intercourse, while levonorgestrel emergency contraception can be taken up to 72 hours after. Prescribing levonorgestrel emergency contraception would not be the best option in this case, as its efficacy decreases with time and it is minimally effective if ovulation has already occurred. Similarly, ulipristal acetate may be less effective if ovulation has already occurred, so a copper coil insertion would be a more appropriate choice.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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In the study of contraception modes, researchers examine the cell structure of sperm. In the case of the copper intrauterine device (IUD), which cellular structure is affected by its mode of action?
Your Answer: Centrioles
Correct Answer: Golgi apparatus
Explanation:How the Copper IUD Affects Different Parts of Sperm
The copper IUD is a popular form of birth control that works by preventing fertilization. It does this by affecting different parts of the sperm. The Golgi apparatus, which contributes to the acrosome of the sperm, is inhibited by the IUD, preventing capacitation. The mitochondria, which form the middle piece of the sperm, are not affected. The nucleus is also unaffected. Sperm do not have cell walls, so this is not a factor. Finally, the centrioles contribute to the flagellum of the sperm, but the copper IUD does not target this part of the sperm. Understanding how the copper IUD affects different parts of the sperm can help individuals make informed decisions about their birth control options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 45
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of a dull pelvic pain and foul-smelling discharge that has been worsening for the past 5 weeks. She has been using a hormonal intrauterine device for a year and does not experience menstruation with it. She has received the human papillomavirus vaccine but has not undergone any smear tests. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest that she may have pelvic inflammatory disease, which is a common diagnosis for women who experience long-term pelvic pain and smelly discharge. It is possible that she has a sexually transmitted infection, as she is not using a barrier method with her intrauterine device. The doctor should take high vaginal swabs and prescribe antibiotics if necessary. It is also recommended to perform a smear test while the patient is there.
While ectopic pregnancy is a possibility, it is less likely due to the patient’s intrauterine device. However, a pregnancy test should still be conducted. Endometriosis is also a possibility, but the patient’s pain does not seem to be related to her menstrual cycle.
Although the patient missed her first cervical smear, cervical cancer is not the most likely diagnosis based on her symptoms and the fact that she has received the human papillomavirus vaccine. However, it is still important for her to have regular smear tests.
Inflammatory bowel disease is another potential cause of pelvic pain, but it is usually accompanied by other symptoms such as weight loss, rectal bleeding, and diarrhea.
Understanding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that occurs when the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. The most common cause of PID is an ascending infection from the endocervix, often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Other causative organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests are often negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves a combination of antibiotics, such as oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis. PID can also lead to infertility, with the risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but recent guidelines suggest that removal of the IUD should be considered for better short-term clinical outcomes. Understanding PID and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her local pharmacy with concerns about needing the emergency contraceptive pill. She explains that she had unprotected sex with her partner of 5 years 2 days ago and did not use any form of contraception. She recently gave birth to a baby boy 4 weeks ago and is currently formula-feeding him.
What advice would be most suitable in this situation?Your Answer: Mirena coil
Correct Answer: No action required
Explanation:After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after having unprotected sex. She is seeking emergency contraception as she forgot to take her progesterone-only pill for a few days before the encounter. The doctor advises her to book an appointment at the nearby sexual health clinic for proper screening. After counseling, the doctor prescribes levonorgestrel to the woman. What is the waiting period before she can resume taking her POP?
Your Answer: 2 days
Correct Answer: She doesn't - can start immediately
Explanation:Women can begin using hormonal contraception right away after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. However, if ulipristal acetate was used instead, it is recommended to wait for 5 days or use barrier methods before resuming hormonal contraception.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 48
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman presents with a gradual masculinisation process, including deepening of her voice, increased body hair, and clitoral enlargement. Ultrasonography shows a tumour in the left ovarian hilus, and her 17-ketosteroid excretion is elevated. The histopathology confirms a diagnosis of hilus cell tumour, with large, lipid-laden tumour cells. Which cells in the male reproductive system are homologous to the affected cells?
Your Answer: Leydig cells
Explanation:Homologous Cells in Male and Female Reproductive Systems
The male and female reproductive systems have homologous cells that perform similar functions. Leydig cells, also known as pure Leydig cell tumors, are found in both males and females. In females, these cells are located in the ovarian hilus and secrete androgens, causing masculinization when a tumor arises. Sertoli cells, on the other hand, have a female homologue called granulosa cells, both of which are sensitive to follicle-stimulating hormone. Epithelial cells in the epididymis have a vestigial structure in females called the epoophoron, which is lined by cells similar to those found in the epididymis. Spermatocytes have female homologues in oocytes and polar bodies, while spermatogonia have female homologues in oogonia. Understanding these homologous cells can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of reproductive system disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle reports experiencing mood changes during the week leading up to her period. She describes feeling increasingly anxious and irritable, and these symptoms are severe enough to affect her work and social life. She has a history of migraine with aura. What is the most suitable intervention to alleviate her premenstrual symptoms?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI)
Explanation:Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of occasional vaginal bleeding. She reports that her last menstrual cycle was 22 months ago. She denies experiencing any discomfort, painful urination, or changes in bowel movements, and notes that these episodes only occur after sexual intercourse. The patient has been regularly screened for cervical cancer.
During an abdominal and pelvic examination, no abnormalities are detected. The patient is promptly referred to a specialist for further evaluation, and test results are pending.
What is the primary reason for her symptoms?Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Correct Answer: Vaginal atrophy
Explanation:Endometrial cancer is the cause of PMB in a minority of patients, with vaginal atrophy being the most common cause. Approximately 90% of patients with PMB do not have endometrial cancer.
Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding
Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.
To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.
Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 51
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman, with a history of ulcerative colitis, presents with a history of heavy, painful periods. She reports regular periods, lasting seven days.
During the first three days, she has to wear both a tampon and sanitary pads and has to take time off work due to the embarrassment of flooding and dizziness. She declined contraception, as she is trying for a baby.
A pelvic ultrasound revealed two small fibroids (< 3 cm in size) in the uterus, and a full blood count was as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 95 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 73 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 390 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Iron 12 μg/dl 50 to 170 µg/dl
Ferritin 5 μg/l 10–120 μg/l
What is the best first-line treatment for this patient's menorrhagia if she is 29 years old?Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Explanation:Management Options for Menorrhagia Secondary to Fibroids
Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids is a common gynecological problem that can significantly impact a woman’s quality of life. There are several management options available, depending on the severity of symptoms, the patient’s desire for fertility preservation, and the presence of other medical conditions.
Tranexamic acid is the first-line medical management option for women with menorrhagia secondary to fibroids who do not want contraception. It is an antifibrinolytic agent that reduces bleeding by inhibiting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Hormonal therapies, such as combined oral contraceptives, are not indicated in this scenario.
Surgical options, such as myomectomy, endometrial ablation, or hysterectomy, may be considered if medical management fails or the patient declines medication. Myomectomy is a surgical procedure that removes fibroids while preserving the uterus and fertility. However, fibroids can recur following myomectomy. Hysterectomy is the only definitive method of management, but it is only recommended for women who have completed their family.
Iron supplementation with ferrous sulfate is appropriate for patients with iron deficiency anemia secondary to menorrhagia. Mefenamic acid, an NSAID, is contraindicated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease due to the increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena® coil) is recommended as the first-line treatment for menorrhagia without underlying pathology, suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, or small fibroids that do not cause uterine distortion, but it is not appropriate for women who want to conceive.
In conclusion, the management of menorrhagia secondary to fibroids requires a tailored approach that takes into account the patient’s symptoms, desire for fertility preservation, and medical history. A multidisciplinary team approach involving gynecologists, hematologists, and other specialists may be necessary to provide optimal care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of urinary incontinence that has been ongoing for 2 years. She experiences sudden urges to urinate, followed by uncontrollable leakage ranging from a few drops to complete bladder emptying several times a week. She also reports increased urinary frequency, including waking up twice at night to urinate. The patient denies dysuria or haematuria and has never experienced involuntary urination during exertion, sneezing, or coughing. She declines a physical examination due to embarrassment. What is the most appropriate course of management?
Your Answer: Refer for pelvic floor muscle training
Correct Answer: Refer for bladder retraining exercises
Explanation:The appropriate management for urgency urinary incontinence (UUI) is to refer the patient for bladder training. UUI is characterized by uncontrollable bladder leakage that occurs shortly after the patient experiences a sudden urge to urinate, and is often associated with an overactive bladder that causes symptoms such as increased urinary frequency and nocturia. Advising the patient to reduce fluid intake and use continence products is not the correct approach, as both too much and too little fluid can contribute to lower urinary tract symptoms. Instead, patients should be advised to make lifestyle changes such as reducing caffeine intake, losing weight, and quitting smoking. Referring the patient for pelvic floor muscle training is the appropriate management for stress incontinence, which causes urine leakage during exertion, sneezing, or coughing. However, this is not applicable in this case as the patient denies these symptoms. If conservative management is unsuccessful and the patient does not wish to explore surgical options, a trial treatment with duloxetine may be considered for stress incontinence.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 53
Correct
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A 70-year-old nulliparous female presents with post menopausal bleeding. She reports that her last cervical screening was 12 years ago. On examination she is found to be overweight and hypertensive. What is the most crucial diagnosis to exclude?
Your Answer: Endometrial adenocarcinoma
Explanation:When a woman experiences postmenopausal bleeding (PMB), the primary concern is the possibility of endometrial cancer. This is because endometrial adenocarcinoma is strongly linked to PMB and early detection is crucial for better prognosis. The patient in this scenario has two risk factors for endometrial adenocarcinoma – obesity and hypertension. Other risk factors include high levels of oestrogen, late menopause, polycystic ovarian syndrome, diabetes mellitus, and tamoxifen use.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 54
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor for a routine cervical screening. The results of her smear test show that she is positive for hrHPV (high-risk human papillomavirus), but her cytology is normal. She is advised to come back for another smear test in a year's time. When she returns, her results show that she is still positive for hrHPV, but her cytology is normal. What is the best course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Repeat smear again in 12 months
Explanation:The current guidelines for cervical cancer screening recommend using hrHPV as the first screening test. If the result is negative, the patient can return to routine recall. However, if the result is positive, the sample is examined for cytology. If the cytology is normal, the patient is asked to return for screening in 12 months instead of the usual 3 years. If the hrHPV result is negative at the 12-month follow-up, the patient can return to routine recall. But if the result is positive again, as in this scenario, and the cytology is normal, the patient should attend another screening in 12 months. If the cytology is abnormal at any point, the patient should be referred for colposcopy. If the patient attends a third screening in another 12 months and the hrHPV result is still positive, she should be referred for colposcopy regardless of the cytology result.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has had a positive CA125 blood test, ultrasound scan and CT abdomen and pelvis. She is found to have stage 2 ovarian cancer. What is the primary treatment?
Your Answer: Chemotherapy
Correct Answer: Surgical excision of the tumour
Explanation:Surgical removal of the tumour is the primary treatment for ovarian cancers in stages 2-4, often accompanied by chemotherapy as well, according to NICE CG122.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 56
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of pelvic pain that has been present for 4 months and worsens during her menstrual cycle. She has never experienced painful periods before. Additionally, she has lost 7 kg in weight over the past 5 months but feels that her abdomen has become unusually distended. She denies any changes in bowel movements.
What blood tests should be ordered in primary care for this patient?Your Answer: CA125
Explanation:Tumour Markers: An Overview
Tumour markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. They can be used to aid in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of cancer. Here are some commonly used tumour markers and their applications:
CA125: This marker is used to detect ovarian cancer. It should be tested if a woman has persistent abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic or abdominal pain, increased urinary urgency or frequency, or symptoms consistent with irritable bowel syndrome. If CA125 is raised, the patient should be referred for a pelvic/abdominal ultrasound scan.
AFP: Elevated AFP levels are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, liver metastases, and non-seminomatous germ-cell tumours. It is also measured in pregnant women to screen for neural-tube defects or genetic disorders.
CA15-3: This marker is used to monitor the response to treatment in breast cancer. It should not be used for screening as it is not necessarily raised in early breast cancer. Other causes of raised CA15-3 include liver cirrhosis, hepatitis, autoimmune conditions, and benign disorders of the ovary or breast.
CA19-9: This marker is commonly associated with pancreatic cancer. It may also be seen in other hepatobiliary and gastric malignancies.
CEA: CEA is commonly used as a tumour marker for colorectal cancer. It is not particularly sensitive or specific, so it is usually used to monitor response to treatment or detect disease recurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 57
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits a fertility clinic after trying to conceive for more than two years. She is worried that she may not be ovulating despite having a regular menstrual cycle lasting 30 days. She is not using any form of birth control and her pregnancy test is negative. What is the most effective method to detect ovulation?
Your Answer: Progesterone level
Explanation:The most reliable way to confirm ovulation is through the Day 21 progesterone test. This test measures the peak level of progesterone in the serum, which occurs 7 days after ovulation. While the length of the follicular phase can vary, the luteal phase always lasts for 14 days. Therefore, if a woman has a 35-day cycle, she can expect to ovulate on Day 21 and her progesterone level will peak on Day 28. To determine when to take the test, subtract 7 days from the expected start of the next period (Day 21 for a 28-day cycle and Day 28 for a 35-day cycle). Basal body temperature charts and cervical mucous thickness are not reliable predictors of ovulation. Gonadotropins may be used to assess ovarian function in women with irregular menstrual cycles.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP clinic urgently seeking advice as she had unprotected sex last night. She has recently started taking the combined oral contraceptive pill but missed two pills because she forgot to bring them along while on vacation. She is currently in the first week of a new pack. What steps should her GP take now?
Your Answer: Advise her to take an extra pill today, use barrier contraception for the next 7 days, no emergency contraception needed
Correct Answer: Advise her to take an extra pill today, use barrier contraception for the next 7 days and prescribe emergency contraception
Explanation:If a patient misses 2 pills in the first week of their combined oral contraceptive pill pack and has had unprotected sex during the pill-free interval or week 1, emergency contraception should be considered. The patient should take the missed pills as soon as possible and use condoms for the next 7 days. For patients who have only missed 1 pill, they should take it as soon as possible without needing extra precautions. If extra barrier contraception is needed for patients on the combined oral contraceptive pill, it should be used for at least 7 days. Patients on the progesterone-only pill only need barrier contraception for 2 days. Missing 1 pill at any time throughout a pack or starting a new pack 1 day late generally does not affect protection against pregnancy. Taking more than 2 contraceptive pills in a day is not recommended as it does not provide extra contraceptive effects and may cause side effects.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 59
Correct
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A 55-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a 3-month history of postmenopausal bleeding. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and her last menstrual period was 5 years ago.
On transvaginal ultrasound, the endometrial thickness measures 7mm. The pipelle biopsy results indicate an increased gland-to-stroma ratio and some nuclear atypia.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Explanation:For postmenopausal women with atypical endometrial hyperplasia, it is recommended to undergo a total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy to reduce the risk of malignant progression. If bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is not performed, there is an increased risk of ovarian malignancy. Endometrial ablation is not advised due to the risk of intrauterine adhesion formation and irreversible damage to the endometrium. In premenopausal patients with atypia or those who do not respond to medical management or have persistent bleeding, hysterectomy alone may be considered. However, the royal college of obstetrics and gynaecology green-top guidelines suggest that bilateral salpingectomy should still be considered in these patients due to the risk of further ovarian malignancy. For hyperplasia without atypia, the first-line treatment is a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system such as the Mirena coil.
Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.
The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old female presents with worries about not having started her periods yet. Her sisters all began menstruating at age 13. During the examination, it was observed that the patient is short, has not developed any secondary sexual characteristics, and has widely spaced nipples. Additionally, a systolic murmur was detected under the left clavicle. What finding is consistent with the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Increase in prolactin
Correct Answer: Increased FSH/LH
Explanation:If a patient presents with primary amenorrhoea and raised FSH/LH levels, it is important to consider the possibility of gonadal dysgenesis, such as Turner’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by the presence of only one X chromosome or a deletion of the short arm of one X chromosome, which can result in widely spaced nipples and other physical characteristics. In Turner’s syndrome, the lack of estrogen and progesterone production by the ovaries leads to an increase in FSH/LH levels as a compensatory mechanism. Therefore, an increase in FSH/LH levels is consistent with this diagnosis. Cyclical pain due to an imperforate hymen typically presents with secondary sexual characteristics, while increased prolactin levels are associated with galactosemia, and increased androgen levels are associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome. In the case described, a diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome is likely, and serum estrogen levels would not be expected to be elevated due to gonadal dysgenesis.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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