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Question 1
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her chest after eating meals for the past 2 months. She explains that this pain usually occurs after consuming heavy meals and can keep her up at night. Despite trying over-the-counter antacids, she has found little relief. The pain is retrosternal, without radiation, and is not aggravated by physical activity. She denies any difficulty or pain while swallowing and has not experienced any weight loss. She is worried that she may be having a heart attack every time this happens as both her parents died from coronary artery disease. She has no other medical conditions and is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm without ischaemic changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Retrosternal Pain: GORD, PUD, MI, Pancreatitis, and Pericarditis
When a patient presents with retrosternal pain, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s pain is burning in nature and occurs in the postprandial period, making gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) a likely diagnosis. Other common manifestations of GORD include hypersalivation, globus sensation, and laryngitis. However, if the patient had any ‘alarm’ symptoms, such as weight loss or difficulty swallowing, further investigation would be necessary.
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is another potential cause of deep epigastric pain, especially in patients with risk factors such as Helicobacter pylori infection, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use, and alcoholism.
Myocardial infarction (MI) is less likely in this case, as the patient’s pain does not worsen with exertion and is not accompanied by other cardiac symptoms. Additionally, the patient’s ECG is normal.
Pancreatitis typically presents with abdominal pain that radiates to the back, particularly in patients with gallstones or a history of alcoholism. The patient’s non-radiating, retrosternal burning pain is not consistent with pancreatitis.
Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that is aggravated by inspiration and lying flat, but relieved by sitting forward. Widespread ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram is also common. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are typically used as first-line treatment.
In summary, a thorough consideration of the patient’s symptoms and risk factors can help narrow down the potential causes of retrosternal pain and guide appropriate diagnostic and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about his alcohol consumption. He admits to drinking two bottles of wine (750ml capacity) every night along with six pints of 5% beer.
(A bottle of wine typically contains 12% alcohol)
What is the total number of units this man is consuming per night?Your Answer: 24
Correct Answer: 36
Explanation:Understanding Units of Alcohol
Alcohol consumption is often measured in units, with one unit being equal to 10 ml of alcohol. The strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40% is equivalent to one unit, while a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6% is also one unit. Half a standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12% is also one unit.
To calculate the number of units in a drink, you can use the ABV and the volume of the drink. For instance, one bottle of wine with nine units is equivalent to two bottles of wine or six pints of beer, both of which contain 18 units.
It’s important to keep track of your alcohol consumption and stay within recommended limits. Drinking too much can have negative effects on your health and well-being. By understanding units of alcohol, you can make informed decisions about your drinking habits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with sudden upper abdominal pain and loss of appetite. Upon examination, she has enlarged liver, abdominal distension, and swelling in both legs. Notably, there are visible veins on her back that flow upwards. What is the most probable underlying factor for this condition?
Your Answer: Alcoholism
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Understanding Budd-Chiari Syndrome: A Rare Disorder with Obstruction of Hepatic Venous Outflow
Budd-Chiari syndrome (BCS) is a rare disorder that involves obstruction or narrowing of the hepatic veins, which can lead to hepatic dysfunction, portal hypertension, and ascites. This condition is caused by venous thrombosis that forms anywhere from the hepatic venules up to the entrance of the inferior vena cava (IVC) at the right atrium. BCS typically presents with abdominal pain, ascites, and hepatomegaly, and obstruction of the IVC can cause prominence of venous collaterals in the back with upward direction flow and bipedal oedema.
Recognized risk factors for BCS include prothrombotic conditions, myeloproliferative conditions, hormonal treatment, pregnancy and puerperium, infections, malignancy, trauma, and autoimmune/rheumatological conditions such as sarcoidosis. Alcoholism, hyperthyroidism, hyperlipidaemia, and acute infection are not typically associated with BCS.
It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of BCS and to identify any underlying risk factors in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents to A&E with sudden onset of severe epigastric pain and bright red blood in his vomit. He has a long history of heavy alcohol consumption. On examination, he has guarding over the epigastric region and cool extremities. He also has a distended abdomen with ascites and spider naevi on his neck and cheek. The patient is unstable hemodynamically, and fluid resuscitation is initiated. What is the most crucial medication to begin given the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Terlipressin
Explanation:Medications for Oesophageal Variceal Bleeds
Oesophageal variceal bleeds are a serious medical emergency that require prompt treatment. The most important medication to administer in this situation is terlipressin, which reduces bleeding by constricting the mesenteric arterial circulation and decreasing portal venous inflow. Clopidogrel, an antiplatelet medication, should not be used as it may worsen bleeding. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can be used prophylactically to prevent variceal bleeding but is not the most important medication to start in an acute setting. Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is not recommended before endoscopy in the latest guidelines but is often used in hospital protocols. Tranexamic acid can aid in the treatment of acute bleeding but is not indicated for oesophageal variceal bleeds. Following terlipressin administration, band ligation should be performed, and if bleeding persists, TIPS should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man had a gastric endoscopy to investigate possible gastritis. During the procedure, the endoscope passed through the oesophagogastric junction and entered the stomach.
Which part of the stomach is situated closest to this junction?Your Answer: Fundus
Correct Answer: Cardia
Explanation:Anatomy of the Stomach: Regions and Parts
The stomach is a muscular organ located in the upper abdomen that plays a crucial role in digestion. It is divided into several regions and parts, each with its own unique function. Here is a breakdown of the anatomy of the stomach:
Cardia: This region surrounds the opening of the oesophagus into the stomach and is adjacent to the fundus. It is in continuity with the body of the stomach.
Fundus: The fundus is the uppermost region of the stomach that is in contact with the inferior surface of the diaphragm. It is located above the level of the cardial orifice.
Body: The body is the largest region of the stomach and is located between the fundus and pyloric antrum. It has a greater and lesser curvature.
Pyloric antrum: This region is the proximal part of the pylorus, which is the distal part of the stomach. It lies between the body of the stomach and the first part of the duodenum.
Pyloric canal: The pyloric canal is the distal part of the pylorus that leads to the muscular pyloric sphincter.
Understanding the different regions and parts of the stomach is important for diagnosing and treating various digestive disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A homeless alcoholic woman was brought to the Emergency Department by the police when she was found disoriented in the street. The Emergency Department recognises her as she has been brought in numerous times before. She appears malnourished and smells of alcohol. On examination, she is confused and ataxic. On eye examination, she has normal pupillary responses and a horizontal nystagmus on lateral gaze.
Which one of the following vitamin deficiencies is likely responsible for the patient’s condition?Your Answer: Vitamin K
Correct Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:The Importance of Vitamins in Alcoholism: A Brief Overview
Alcoholism can lead to various vitamin deficiencies, which can cause serious health problems. Thiamine deficiency, also known as vitamin B1 deficiency, is common in alcoholics and can cause Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a medical emergency that requires urgent treatment with intravenous or intramuscular thiamine. If left untreated, it can lead to Korsakoff’s psychosis. Prophylactic treatment with vitamin replacement regimes is important to prevent the development of these conditions. Vitamin A deficiency can cause photophobia, dry skin, and growth retardation, but it is not associated with alcohol abuse. Pellagra, characterized by diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia, is caused by vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause subacute combined degeneration, megaloblastic anemia, and is commonly seen in patients with pernicious anemia, malabsorption, and gastrectomy. Vitamin K deficiency may present in patients with alcoholic cirrhosis, but it will not cause the neurological findings observed in thiamine deficiency. Overall, it is important for alcohol-dependent patients to receive proper vitamin supplementation to prevent serious health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a lengthy history of alcoholic cirrhosis reported experiencing intense dysphagia and a burning sensation in his retrosternal area. While performing an oesophagoscopy, the endoscopist inserted the endoscope until it reached the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm.
At which vertebral level is it most probable that the endoscope tip reached?Your Answer: T8
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:Vertebral Levels and Their Corresponding Anatomical Structures
T10 vertebral level is where the oesophageal hiatus is located, allowing the oesophagus and branches of the vagus to pass through. T7 vertebral level corresponds to the inferior angle of the scapula and where the hemiazygos veins cross the midline to reach the azygos vein. The caval opening, which is traversed by the inferior vena cava, is found at T8 vertebral level. T9 is the level of the xiphoid process. Finally, the aortic hiatus, which is traversed by the descending aorta, azygos and hemiazygos veins, and the thoracic duct, is located at T12 vertebral level. Understanding these anatomical structures and their corresponding vertebral levels is important in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with intermittent, crampy abdominal pain over the past three months. She has noted frequent loose stools containing blood and mucous. She has also had a recent unintentional weight loss of 15 pounds. Past medical history of note includes treatment for a perianal fistula and anal fissures. The patient is investigated with imaging studies and endoscopy; histological examination of the intestinal biopsy specimens confirms a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease.
Antibodies to which of the following organisms is most likely to be found in this patient’s serum?Your Answer: Cryptosporidium parvum
Correct Answer: Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Explanation:Comparison of Microorganisms and Antibodies Associated with Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can be difficult to diagnose. However, the presence of certain microorganisms and antibodies can aid in the diagnosis and classification of the disease.
One such microorganism is Saccharomyces cerevisiae, a yeast that can trigger the formation of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies (ASCA’s) in some Crohn’s disease patients. On the other hand, perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (pANCA) are associated with ulcerative colitis.
Yersinia enterocolitica is another microorganism that can mimic the symptoms of Crohn’s disease, particularly in the distal ileum. However, the presence of perianal fistula, anal fissure, and intermittent abdominal pain is more consistent with Crohn’s disease, which is often associated with ASCA’s.
Entamoeba histolytica can cause colitis and dysentery, but it is not typically associated with Crohn’s disease. Similarly, Giardia lamblia can cause protracted steatorrhea but is not linked to Crohn’s disease.
Finally, Cryptosporidium parvum can cause watery diarrhea, but it is not associated with Crohn’s disease or the formation of specific antibodies.
In summary, the presence of certain microorganisms and antibodies can aid in the diagnosis and classification of Crohn’s disease, but it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history as well.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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You have a geriatric patient who presents with massive haematemesis. He is agitated with a pulse of 110 bpm and a blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg. He is a known alcoholic.
What is the best step in the management for this elderly patient?Your Answer: Endoscopy
Explanation:Management of Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding: Endoscopy, Laparotomy, Sengstaken-Blakemore Tube, and IV Antibiotics
In cases of upper gastrointestinal bleeding, prompt and appropriate management is crucial. For patients with severe haematemesis and haemodynamic instability, immediate resuscitation and endoscopy are recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. Crossmatching blood for potential transfusion is also necessary. Urgent endoscopy within 24 hours of admission is advised for patients with smaller haematemesis who are haemodynamically stable.
Laparotomy is not necessary unless the bleeding is life-threatening and cannot be contained despite resuscitation or transfusion, medical or endoscopic therapy fails, or the patient has a high Rockall score or re-bleeding. The insertion of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube may be considered for haematemesis from oesophageal varices, but endoscopy remains the primary diagnostic and therapeutic tool.
Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended for patients with suspected or confirmed variceal bleeding at endoscopy. However, arranging for a psychiatric consult is not appropriate in the acute phase of management, as the patient requires immediate treatment and resuscitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man with diagnosed primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) had been taking cholestyramine and vitamin supplementation for the last 3 years. He had ulcerative colitis which was in remission, and colonoscopic surveillance had not shown any dysplastic changes. His only significant history was two episodes of cholangitis for which he had to be hospitalised in the past year. On examination, he was mildly icteric with a body weight of 52 kg. At present, he had no complaints, except fatigue.
What is the next best treatment option?Your Answer: Continue current management
Correct Answer: Liver transplantation
Explanation:The only definitive treatment for advanced hepatic disease in primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is orthotopic liver transplantation (OLT). Patients with intractable pruritus and recurrent bacterial cholangitis are specifically indicated for transplant. Although there is a 25-30% recurrence rate in 5 years, outcomes following transplant are good, with an 80-90% 5-year survival rate. PSC has become the second most common reason for liver transplantation in the United Kingdom. Other treatments such as steroids, azathioprine, methotrexate, and pentoxifylline have not been found to be useful. Antibiotic prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin or co-trimoxazole can be used to treat bacterial ascending cholangitis, but it will not alter the natural course of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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