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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old gentleman student from Germany presents to you with right foot drop...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old gentleman student from Germany presents to you with right foot drop ongoing for two weeks with some numbness and tingling of the foot. These symptoms developed after he knelt down to pick something up from the floor. Three years ago he woke up from sleep with clawing of his fourth and fifth digit after having been asleep in a prone position and this lasted a week. Eight years ago he also had a left wrist and finger drop lasting three weeks after he sat on the couch with his left arm draped over the back of the couch for ten minutes. He denies falling asleep or remaining on the couch for a prolonged period. He has no other past medical history of note and has never sought medical advice for his problems.

      On examination, there is right foot drop (2/5 power) and similar weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot. There is also sensory loss over the lower lateral part of the right leg and dorsum of the right foot in all modalities. Reflexes are intact. Neurological examination and general examination are otherwise unremarkable. Which of the following tests would confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Nerve conduction studies

      Correct Answer: PMP22 gene testing

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with Hereditary Neuropathy with Liability to Pressure Palsy (HNPP), a neurological syndrome that causes mononeuropathy due to minor trauma to a peripheral nerve. This condition is most commonly seen in families with Dutch or German ancestry and is caused by a deletion in the peripheral myelin protein 22 gene on chromosome 17. It is an autosomal dominant condition that usually presents in the second or third decade of life.

      The patient has previously experienced ulnar and radial nerve palsy, also known as Saturday night palsy. Nerve conduction studies in HNPP show slow conduction and small action potentials, indicating a demyelinating neuropathy. A nerve biopsy may also reveal a predominance of smaller fibers and localized thickening of the myelin sheath. Gene testing can confirm the diagnosis.

      Management of HNPP is conservative and includes the use of wrist splints, ankle-foot orthoses, and protective padding.

      Understanding Peripheral Neuropathy: Demyelinating vs. Axonal Pathology

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. It can be caused by a variety of factors, including alcohol, diabetes mellitus, vasculitis, vitamin B12 deficiency, and hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies. However, the pathology of peripheral neuropathy can be classified into two main types: demyelinating and axonal.

      Demyelinating pathology is characterized by damage to the myelin sheath, which is the protective covering around nerve fibers. This type of neuropathy can be caused by conditions such as Guillain-Barre syndrome, chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), amiodarone, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) type I, and paraprotein neuropathy.

      On the other hand, axonal pathology is characterized by damage to the nerve fibers themselves. This type of neuropathy can be caused by factors such as alcohol, diabetes mellitus, vasculitis, vitamin B12 deficiency, and hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (HSMN) type II.

      It is important to note that some conditions, such as diabetes mellitus and vitamin B12 deficiency, can cause both demyelinating and axonal pathology. Understanding the type of pathology involved in peripheral neuropathy can help with diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      65.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 43-year-old widow presents with a one week history of progressive confusion and...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old widow presents with a one week history of progressive confusion and unsteady gait. She works as a waitress and lives in poor social circumstances.

      On examination, she is malnourished and disorientated. She has nystagmus and is unable to abduct either eye. The pupils are sluggish and unequal. Ankle jerks are absent but upper limb reflexes are present.

      Shortly after her admission, you are called to the ward as she has become very drowsy and has collapsed on the floor.

      Investigations on admission showed:

      Haemoglobin 114 g/L (115-165)

      MCV 99 fL (80-96)

      White blood cells 5.6 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 230 ×109/L (150-400)

      Serum sodium 129 mmol/L (137-144)

      Serum potassium 3.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Serum bilirubin 27 µmol/L (1-22)

      Serum gamma glutamyl transferase 440 U/L (4-35)

      Serum alkaline phosphatase 180 U/L (45-105)

      Serum aspartate aminotransferase 90 U/L (1-31)

      Serum alanine aminotransferase 45 U/L (5-35)

      Serum albumin 33 g/L (37-49)

      Prothrombin time 12 secs (11.5-15.5)

      What is the first investigation that should be done?

      Your Answer: B12 and folate levels

      Correct Answer: Blood glucose

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s Encephalopathy and Hypoglycemia in Alcoholism

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is the probable diagnosis for a patient with a history of alcoholism and corresponding examination findings. While other investigations may be necessary to rule out other potential causes for the patient’s symptoms, only a bedside blood glucose test can be quickly and inexpensively performed. Hypoglycemia may have contributed to the patient’s decline, and a finger-prick blood glucose test should be the initial investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      432.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old woman, who has just been diagnosed with HIV, is planning to...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman, who has just been diagnosed with HIV, is planning to travel the world and has come to the clinic to ask about the vaccinations she needs. Her CD4 count is currently 200, but she has decided not to start HAART until after her trip. Which vaccinations can she safely receive?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis (BCG)

      Correct Answer: Tetanus

      Explanation:

      Live Vaccines and HIV Patients

      Live vaccines, such as measles, mumps, rubella, and yellow fever, are not recommended for HIV patients who are not on highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). This is because live vaccines contain weakened forms of the virus that can cause the disease they are meant to prevent in individuals with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV. However, it is still important for HIV patients to receive the tetanus vaccine, especially if they are planning to travel. Tetanus is a serious bacterial infection that can be contracted through cuts or wounds, and the vaccine can provide protection against it. Therefore, HIV patients should consult with their healthcare provider to determine which vaccines are safe for them to receive based on their individual health status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      24.9
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman returns from a backpacking trip in Thailand through a rainforest....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman returns from a backpacking trip in Thailand through a rainforest. Shortly after returning home, she develops a high fever accompanied by facial flushing and a severe headache with retro-orbital pain. She also experiences myalgia and joint pains, and has noticed bleeding from her gums. On examination, she is found to be pyrexic with a temperature of 40.5 °C. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and her pulse is 110 beats per minute. She has a maculopapular rash, and there are petechiae and bleeding from the site where blood was drawn. Laboratory investigations reveal the following results: Hb 110 g/l, WCC 4.2 × 109/l (relative lymphocytosis), PLT 35 × 109/l, Na+ 134 mmol/l, K+ 5.2 mmol/l, Cr 120 μmol/l, ALT 190 IU/l, PTT 26.5 s. Thick and thin film are negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dengue fever

      Explanation:

      Dengue fever, caused by the dengue virus and transmitted by the Aedes mosquito, is a haemorrhagic fever that is prevalent in tropical South-East Asia and can also occur in Australia. Symptoms include fever, severe headache, and facial flushing, with later lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, and bleeding. Malaria, caused by the Plasmodium genus and transmitted by mosquitoes, is associated with fever, headache, cough, myalgia, gastrointestinal upset, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and jaundice. Typhoid fever, caused by Salmonella subspecies, typically presents with high fever, dry cough, malaise, abdominal pain, green diarrhea, and hepatosplenomegaly. Weil’s disease, a severe form of leptospirosis, is spread from rat urine into aquatic areas and can lead to fever, headache, myalgia, dry cough, lethargy, jaundice, abdominal pain, diarrhea, rash, meningitis, and organ failure. Japanese encephalitis, caused by a mosquito-borne flavivirus, presents with fever, headache, diarrhea, and myalgia, leading to neurological disease ranging from confusion to coma and commonly seizures. Differential diagnosis depends on the specific symptoms and diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      36.1
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  • Question 5 - A 54-year-old man presents to clinic after routine blood tests revealed a K+...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presents to clinic after routine blood tests revealed a K+ level of 2.8 mmol/l. He has a history of angina and renal stones but reports feeling well. On examination, his chest is clear and abdomen is soft and non-tender. His vital signs are within normal limits and his ECG shows normal sinus rhythm. Further investigations reveal a urinary K+ level of 26 mmol/l (normal <20) and a creatinine level of 117 µmol/l. What is the most likely cause of his hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Renal tubular acidosis type 2

      Correct Answer: Renal tubular acidosis type 1

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia can be caused by various diagnoses, except for renal tubular acidosis type 4, which leads to hyperkalaemia. When presented with a patient with hypokalaemia, the first step is to check the urinary K+ levels. If they are low, gastrointestinal losses like vomiting or diarrhoea or decreased K+ intake should be considered. However, if the urinary K+ levels are high, the blood pressure should be checked. If it is normal, Liddle’s Syndrome should be considered, which causes hypertension. If the patient is not hypertensive, the bicarbonate levels should be checked. In this case, the bicarbonate levels are low, indicating renal tubular acidosis. The patient’s history of renal stones suggests that the diagnosis is renal tubular acidosis type 1. Renal tubular acidosis type 2 is associated with conditions like Wilson’s disease, lead poisoning, and myeloma.

      Renal tubular acidosis (RTA) is a condition that results in hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which is characterized by a normal anion gap. There are three types of RTA, each with its own unique set of causes and complications. Type 1 RTA, also known as distal RTA, is caused by an inability to generate acid urine in the distal tubule, leading to hypokalaemia. This type of RTA can be caused by a variety of factors, including rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and amphotericin B toxicity. Complications may include nephrocalcinosis and renal stones.

      Type 2 RTA, or proximal RTA, is characterized by a decreased reabsorption of HCO3- in the proximal tubule, which also leads to hypokalaemia. This type of RTA can be caused by a variety of factors, including Wilson’s disease and outdated tetracyclines. Complications may include osteomalacia.

      Type 3 RTA, or mixed RTA, is an extremely rare form of the condition that is caused by carbonic anhydrase II deficiency. This results in hypokalaemia.

      Type 4 RTA, or hyperkalaemic RTA, is caused by a reduction in aldosterone, which leads to a reduction in proximal tubular ammonium excretion. This type of RTA can be caused by hypoaldosteronism and diabetes, and it results in hyperkalaemia.

      Overall, RTA is a complex condition that can have a variety of causes and complications. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the underlying cause of the condition and develop an appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
      77.7
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  • Question 6 - A 59-year-old man is experiencing difficulty with stairs, chairs, and reaching for items...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man is experiencing difficulty with stairs, chairs, and reaching for items on shelves. Upon examination, his proximal power is 4/5 with intact reflexes and downward going plantars. Recent blood tests show abnormal levels of Hb, WBC, neutrophils, platelets, ESR, CK, and CRP. Additionally, he tested positive for anti-nuclear antibodies. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inclusion body myositis

      Correct Answer: Polymyositis

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Myositis

      Polymyositis is a type of myositis that does not cause any rash. On the other hand, dermatomyositis is characterized by the presence of Gottron’s papules on the hands and a periorbital heliotrope rash. Inclusion body myositis, which typically affects older individuals, has a gradual onset and does not result in significant elevations in creatine kinase (CK) levels. Unlike the other types of myositis, polymyalgia rheumatica does not lead to objective weakness.

      the differences between these types of myositis is important for accurate diagnosis and treatment. While polymyositis may not present with any visible symptoms, dermatomyositis and inclusion body myositis have distinct physical manifestations. Additionally, the absence of significant CK elevations in inclusion body myositis can help differentiate it from other types of myositis. Finally, recognizing that polymyalgia rheumatica does not cause objective weakness can help rule out other potential diagnoses. By these nuances, healthcare providers can provide more effective care for individuals with myositis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      18.7
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  • Question 7 - You are asked to see a 35-year-old man with a three year history...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 35-year-old man with a three year history of recurrent episodes of asymmetrical joint pains involving his knees, ankles and elbows. Two to four joints tend to be affected at any one time and each joint may be affected from two to four weeks each time.

      In the last decade he has also had recurrent painful mouth sores. On this occasion, he also complains of a severe occipital headache, mild abdominal pain and some discomfort on passing urine.

      On examination, his temperature is 38°C. His left knee and right ankle joints are painful, swollen and tender. Superficial thrombophlebitis is noted in the right leg.

      Investigations show:

      Hb 99 g/L (130-180)

      WCC 11.6 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 420 ×109/L (150-400)

      ESR 60 mm/hr (0-15)

      Plasma sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 6.9 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 95 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Behçet's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Behçet’s Syndrome

      Behçet’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a range of symptoms. These symptoms include recurrent oral and genital ulcers, uveitis, seronegative arthritis, central nervous system symptoms, fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. The condition is often marked by periods of exacerbations and remissions, which can make it difficult to manage.

      One of the most common symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome is the presence of oral and genital ulcers that recur over time. These ulcers can be painful and may make it difficult to eat or engage in sexual activity. Uveitis, or inflammation of the eye, is another common symptom of the condition. This can cause redness, pain, and sensitivity to light.

      Seronegative arthritis, which is a type of arthritis that does not show up on blood tests, is also associated with Behçet’s syndrome. This can cause joint pain and stiffness, as well as swelling and inflammation. Central nervous system symptoms, such as headaches, confusion, and seizures, may also occur.

      Other symptoms of Behçet’s syndrome include fever, thrombophlebitis, erythema nodosum, abdominal symptoms, and vasculitis. These symptoms can vary in severity and may come and go over time. Managing Behçet’s syndrome can be challenging, but with proper treatment and care, many people are able to live full and active lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      80.2
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man with newly-diagnosed distal ulcerative colitis presents to the gastroenterology clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with newly-diagnosed distal ulcerative colitis presents to the gastroenterology clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was last seen 3 weeks ago with complaints of abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea, and reported opening his bowels about 6 times a day without fever or vomiting. He was started on rectal mesalazine.

      During his current visit, he reports that his symptoms have not improved and he is still experiencing cramping abdominal pain with 6 bowel movements per day.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows:
      Temperature 37.1ºC
      Heart rate 90 bpm
      Blood pressure 126/78 mmHg
      Respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturations 98% on air

      On examination, his abdomen is soft but tender in the left iliac fossa. His cardiovascular examination is unremarkable.

      What is the next best step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral azathioprine

      Correct Answer: Oral mesalazine

      Explanation:

      If rectal aminosalicylates are ineffective in treating a mild-moderate flare of distal ulcerative colitis, oral aminosalicylates should be added.

      The patient is currently experiencing a moderate flare of ulcerative colitis with 4-6 episodes of bloody stools per day, but no systemic symptoms. Since the patient has been diagnosed with distal ulcerative colitis, rectal aminosalicylates such as rectal mesalazine can be used initially. However, if there is no response within 4 weeks, NICE guidelines recommend trying oral aminosalicylates, making oral mesalazine the appropriate choice.

      Intravenous hydrocortisone is only used for acute, severe flares of ulcerative colitis that require hospitalization and are associated with systemic upset.

      Azathioprine is a medication used to maintain remission in Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. However, since the patient is still experiencing symptoms and has not yet achieved remission, starting this treatment would be inappropriate.

      Oral metronidazole is used to treat rectal and fistulating Crohn’s disease, but it is not effective in treating ulcerative colitis.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      109.3
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  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology clinic with symptoms of Irritable Bowel...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology clinic with symptoms of Irritable Bowel Syndrome that have not responded to treatment. She experiences abdominal cramping and bloating after consuming wheat and oat-based foods, along with faecal urgency. Despite trying various medications, her symptoms have not improved. She has a family history of depression but is otherwise healthy. On examination, she appears well and has multiple superficial lacerations on her forearms. Her blood tests show a low hemoglobin level, normal liver function, and normal thyroid function. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Organise upper GI endoscopy and biopsy

      Explanation:

      An important discovery was made during the patient’s evaluation – she had selective IgA deficiency. This is significant because the anti-endomysial antibody test relies on IgA, and a lack of IgA can lead to a false negative result. As a result, this test cannot rule out the possibility of celiac disease in this case. The best course of action is to proceed with an OGD and biopsy to obtain a definitive diagnosis, even though a gluten-free diet may alleviate her symptoms.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      42.5
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  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old Caucasian male patient with no history of ischaemic heart disease had...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old Caucasian male patient with no history of ischaemic heart disease had a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction 20 days ago and was started on aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol and enalapril as an inpatient. He has been discharged to your care in the cardiology outpatients department. He presents for review 1 month later saying he remains breathless on minimal exertion (walking 50 metres) with no chest pains. There is no evidence of pulmonary oedema on examination. A recent echocardiogram shows a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%. His beta natriuretic peptide level is 436 pg/mL (normal <100 pg/mL).

      What medication would be most appropriate to add to his current oral therapy?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines for chronic heart failure with reduced left ventricular ejection fraction, the recommended treatment is to begin with an ACE-inhibitor and β blocker, gradually increasing the dosage to the maximum tolerated level. For a Caucasian patient with a recent history of myocardial infarction, spironolactone is the most appropriate second line treatment. Furosemide is not recommended if there are no signs of fluid overload on examination as it has no prognostic benefit. Eplerenone, a mineralocorticoid antagonist marketed specifically for post-myocardial infarction patients, is rarely the first line treatment on hospital formularies in the UK as it is not available off-patent.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      51
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  • Question 11 - A 22-year-old college student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his friends...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old college student presents to the emergency department accompanied by his friends who are worried about his behavior. They found him urinating on the couch in the living room. During the examination, he appeared restless, sweaty, and had occasional muscle spasms.

      Vital signs: heart rate 110 beats per minute, blood pressure 165/105 mmHg, temperature 37.9ºC.

      Upon reviewing his medical history, it is noted that he is taking citalopram for depression and has recently been prescribed another medication.

      Which medication is most likely responsible for his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, altered mental state, and confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another potentially life-threatening condition. While both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old man with a history of childhood epilepsy presents with progressive unsteadiness...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of childhood epilepsy presents with progressive unsteadiness over the past two days. He had an argument with his father over a minor issue while watching TV just before the onset of his symptoms. He vomited several times after dinner that night and went to bed early. The next day, he began to feel unsteady.

      Upon examination, he appeared drowsy but oriented. His pupils were normal and reactive, and his ocular movements were full with a horizontal nystagmus. He had dysarthric speech and a coarse tremor. His tendon reflexes were brisk, and he had a wide-based gait. Mild gum hypertrophy was observed during an examination of his mouth and teeth.

      What diagnostic procedure should be performed next?

      Your Answer: Serum phenytoin level

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Phenytoin Toxicity in Epilepsy Patients

      Phenytoin is still used for controlling seizures in patients with a history of uncontrolled attacks. In case of an overdose, absorption from the gastrointestinal tract may be delayed and continue for up to 60 hours. Symptoms of phenytoin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, and horizontal nystagmus. Gastric lavage and activated charcoal are recommended within an hour of a significant overdose. Phenytoin is highly protein bound, so haemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis, and plasmapheresis are not effective. PET imaging can be useful in evaluating areas of increased glucose utilization, while MRI imaging can help distinguish phenytoin toxicity from brainstem injury. CSF examination is not necessary unless there is an indication of acute infection. EEG is most useful in evaluating seizures that are resistant to anti-epileptic medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      54.4
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  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old woman with mild Alzheimer's disease presents for evaluation. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman with mild Alzheimer's disease presents for evaluation. She is currently on donepezil and has experienced some improvement in her short-term memory. However, she has recently been experiencing frequent early morning awakenings, has a poor appetite, and frequently expresses to her husband that she wants to end it all. She takes Ramipril for hypertension and atorvastatin 10 mg, but no other regular medications. What is the most suitable next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Citalopram as a Treatment for Alzheimer’s Disease

      Citalopram has been found to have a positive impact on the mood and wellbeing of patients with Alzheimer’s disease. While it may have minor effects on cognition, it is associated with a significant improvement in agitation and caregiver distress. However, it is recommended that the dose be limited to 20 mg in the elderly due to the risk of QT prolongation.

      In contrast, fluoxetine and sertraline have not been shown to have a significant positive effect on mood in patients with Alzheimer’s disease. Valproate, while useful as a mood stabilizer outside of the context of Alzheimer’s, is of little value in patients with the condition. The use of haloperidol and other anti-psychotics is discouraged in this population due to the risk of cardiovascular adverse events.

      Overall, citalopram may be a useful treatment option for managing mood and agitation in patients with Alzheimer’s disease. However, careful consideration of dosing and potential risks is necessary, particularly in elderly patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      29.2
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old hypertensive male presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old hypertensive male presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of tearing chest pain. He has a history of smoking for 30 pack years and takes valsartan 160 mg and amlodipine 5mg daily.

      Upon examination, he appears distressed and is experiencing severe pain. His blood pressure is 200/120 mmHg, and his peripheral pulses are weak. His heart rate is 125 bpm.

      The emergency department administers sublingual nitrates and oral aspirin. A twelve-lead ECG is performed, revealing tachycardia, left ventricular strain, deep S waves in lead V1-V3, and tall R waves in V4-V6.

      A chest x-ray shows an irregular aortic contour with widening of the mediastinum. A contrast-enhanced CT scan of the chest reveals an aortic intimal flap distal to the left subclavian artery.

      What is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood pressure control with IV beta-blockers

      Explanation:

      Aortic dissection is classified according to the location of the tear in the aorta. The Stanford classification divides it into type A, which affects the ascending aorta in two-thirds of cases, and type B, which affects the descending aorta distal to the left subclavian origin in one-third of cases. The DeBakey classification divides it into type I, which originates in the ascending aorta and propagates to at least the aortic arch and possibly beyond it distally, type II, which originates in and is confined to the ascending aorta, and type III, which originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally but will extend distally.

      To diagnose aortic dissection, a chest x-ray may show a widened mediastinum, but CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is the investigation of choice. However, the choice of investigations should take into account the patient’s clinical stability, as they may present acutely and be unstable. Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE) is more suitable for unstable patients who are too risky to take to the CT scanner.

      The management of type A aortic dissection is surgical, but blood pressure should be controlled to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg while awaiting intervention. On the other hand, type B aortic dissection is managed conservatively with bed rest and IV labetalol to reduce blood pressure and prevent progression. Complications of a backward tear include aortic incompetence/regurgitation and MI, while complications of a forward tear include unequal arm pulses and BP, stroke, and renal failure. Endovascular repair of type B aortic dissection may have a role in the future.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old male presents with a two month history of agitation and weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male presents with a two month history of agitation and weight loss. Four months ago, he was admitted with paroxysmal atrial fibrillation and started on amiodarone 200 mg daily. He has a past medical history of hypertension treated with amlodipine. On examination, he has a slight tremor of the outstretched hands, a regular pulse of 88 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 164/88 mmHg. Investigations reveal elevated thyroid hormone levels. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone-Induced Hyperthyroidism: Treatment Options

      Amiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism is a common problem that can occur in patients who are taking amiodarone for paroxysmal AF. However, other agents such as sotalol may be more appropriate for these patients. The most effective treatment for amiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism is to withdraw the medication.

      There is no evidence to support the use of steroids in this case, as the patient’s erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is relatively normal and their thyroid function tests (TFTs) are only slightly elevated. Additionally, a radio-iodine uptake scan would likely not show any uptake due to the high iodine content in amiodarone. Therefore, radioactive iodine treatment would be ineffective and unnecessary.

      In summary, the best course of action for treating amiodarone-induced hyperthyroidism is to withdraw the medication and consider alternative treatment options. Steroids and radioactive iodine treatment are not recommended in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 16 - A 36-year-old man presents to the endocrine clinic following his second episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old man presents to the endocrine clinic following his second episode of acute pancreatitis. During his follow-up appointment with the surgical registrar, it was noted that his fasting triglycerides were 8.2 mmol/l (0.7-2.1), despite his LDL level not being particularly raised. On examination, his blood pressure is 125/70 mmHg, his pulse is 70 and regular, and he has a BMI of 23. Additionally, there is evidence of eruptive xanthomas on his skin. What is the most appropriate therapy for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fenofibrate

      Explanation:

      Medications for Hypertriglyceridaemia

      Fibrates are the primary medication used to treat isolated hypertriglyceridaemia. They are effective in reducing triglyceride levels by an average of 30%, which can positively impact the risk of pancreatitis. However, the FIELD study in type 2 diabetes showed disappointing results in terms of cardiovascular outcomes.

      Omega-3 fatty acids and nicotinic acid may have a role in treating patients with low HDL or metabolic syndrome features, rather than familial hypertriglyceridaemia. These medications can lower triglycerides when used at very high doses.

      Atorvastatin is another medication that can lower triglycerides, but it is typically used in patients who also have high LDL levels. Simvastatin, on the other hand, has only modest effects on triglycerides even at high doses.

      Overall, the choice of medication for hypertriglyceridaemia depends on the individual patient’s needs and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of fatigue, fever and muscle pain after returning from a trip to Costa Rica. She also reports occasional episodes of vomiting and diarrhea. She has no significant medical history and has been generally healthy.
      Upon examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5 °C. Her heart rate is 110 bpm and regular, with a blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg. Lung and heart sounds are normal. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no palpable organomegaly. She has enlarged cervical and inguinal lymph nodes. She also has bilateral conjunctivitis and mild periorbital edema.
      Electrocardiogram (ECG): sinus tachycardia, PR interval 200 ms.
      Which of the following vectors is most likely responsible for transmitting the causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Triatomine bugs

      Explanation:

      Vector-borne Diseases and their Symptoms

      Chagas’ disease, caused by triatomine bugs, is prevalent in Latin America and has an acute and chronic phase. Symptoms include malaise, fever, headaches, myalgia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and lymphadenopathy. Unilateral conjunctivitis and periorbital cellulitis may also be seen. Leishmaniasis, spread by sandflies, causes a small red papule that enlarges to up to 2 cm in diameter, ulcerates, and resolves within two months to a year. Dengue fever, transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, has symptoms similar to Chagas’ disease but does not cause unilateral eye signs. Malaria, spread by Anopheles mosquitoes, causes fever, chills, myalgia, headache, nausea, vomiting, and hepatosplenomegaly. Lyme disease, caused by Borrelia burgdorferi spread by ticks, is not involved in the transmission of Chagas’ disease. Treatment for Chagas’ disease includes bed rest and antiparasitic agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old homeless woman, a frequent visitor to the Emergency Department, is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old homeless woman, a frequent visitor to the Emergency Department, is brought in by ambulance after experiencing a seizure on the street. Upon examination, she is unresponsive and in a post-ictal state. Her blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg, pulse is 80 and regular. A toxicology screen reveals methanol levels of 10.5 mmol/l, and she has a metabolic acidosis with a pH of 7.10 and bicarbonate levels of 8 mmol/l. A bag of N saline is started to run over 1 hour. What is the most crucial next step in her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV 8.4% sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ethylene Glycol Toxicity

      Ethylene glycol toxicity is caused by its metabolites, which can lead to severe health complications. The most appropriate treatment for this condition is competitive inhibition of alcohol dehydrogenase via ethanol infusion or using 4-methylpyrazole (fomepizole). If the pH level is below 7.2, correction with IV 8.4% sodium bicarbonate is recommended.

      Other interventions, such as methanol infusion, IV furosemide, IV disulfiram, and IV N-acetylcysteine, are not suitable for treating ethylene glycol toxicity. Methanol is metabolized to formic acid, which can cause metabolic acidosis and optic atrophy. IV furosemide is not recommended as aggressive fluid replacement is the preferred intervention. IV disulfiram is used as an adjunct to behavioral therapy in the treatment of chronic alcoholism, and IV N-acetylcysteine is used in the treatment of paracetamol overdose and hepatic encephalopathy.

      In conclusion, the most effective treatment for ethylene glycol toxicity is competitive inhibition of alcohol dehydrogenase via ethanol infusion or using 4-methylpyrazole (fomepizole), with IV 8.4% sodium bicarbonate recommended for pH correction. Other interventions are not suitable for this condition and may cause further health complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 19 - You are summoned to a typically healthy 67-year-old individual in the medical assessment...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to a typically healthy 67-year-old individual in the medical assessment unit. The patient was admitted earlier in the day with pneumonia and met the requirements for severe sepsis. Despite receiving sufficient fluid replacement throughout the day, the patient's creatinine level is 1200 μmol/L and urea level is 30 mmol/L. What would be the most suitable justification for commencing renal replacement therapy in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Development of refractory fluid overload

      Explanation:

      Indications for Emergency Renal Replacement Therapy

      Emergency renal replacement therapy is necessary in certain situations. One such situation is when a patient experiences acute life-threatening hyperkalemia that is unresponsive to treatment. Another indication is the development of fluid overload, which can lead to pulmonary edema. Uremia, which can cause pericarditis, neuropathy, and confusion, is also a reason for emergency renal replacement therapy. However, a drop in hemoglobin is not an indication for this therapy, as it may be due to dilutional factors, and sources of bleeding should be investigated. In chronic renal failure, anemia may result from a lack of erythropoietin production, which can be treated with synthetic erythropoietin and iron infusion, not renal replacement therapy. It is important to recognize these indications for emergency renal replacement therapy to ensure timely and appropriate treatment for patients in need.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 20-year-old man with type 1 diabetes and poor compliance presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man with type 1 diabetes and poor compliance presents to the hospital with shortness of breath, vomiting, and feeling unwell. He is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis and is transferred to the high dependency unit. After a period of recovery, he starts to feel unwell on day 3 of his treatment. He experiences fatigue, lethargy, and muscle aches, and his legs collapse beneath him while walking to the bathroom.

      Upon examination, he is alert with moist mucosa, and there are no fasciculations or myoclonus. He has 4/5 power in all muscle groups with retained sensation. His abdomen is soft, and his chest is clear. His observations show tachypnea at 24 breaths/min.

      Admission blood tests reveal the following values compared to current values:
      - Sodium: 128 mmol/l (current: 133 mmol/l)
      - Potassium: 6.1 mmol/l (current: 4.5 mmol/l)
      - Urea: 9.2 mmol/l (current: 5.6 mmol/l)
      - Creatinine: 134 µmol/l (current: 87 µmol/l)
      - Glucose: 27.1mmol/l (current: 12 mmol/l)
      - Ketones: 3.1 mmol/l (current: 0.2 mmol/l)
      - pH: 7.01 (current: 7.35)

      What is the expected progression of his deterioration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypophosphataemia

      Explanation:

      Individuals who have recovered from DKA are susceptible to hypophosphataemia, which may cause weakness. The possibility of cerebral pontine myelinolysis is unlikely in this case, as the sodium levels have only been corrected by 5 mmol/l within a span of 2-3 days. While sepsis cannot be ruled out, there are no indications of focal signs. It is important to eliminate other potential diagnoses before considering anxiety as a possible cause.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with a history of general malaise, weight loss, and arthralgia. He has recently returned from a holiday abroad and mentions visiting a tattooing parlour where he had an erythematous skin rash around the tattoo site. He also describes episodes of waking up at night feeling really hot. On examination, he is found to be pyrexia and tachycardia, with petechial haemorrhages in his conjunctival and buccal membranes. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia with a PR interval of 220 ms and a urinary dipstick is positive for blood. His investigations reveal a Hb of 141 g/l, WCC of 15.6 × 109/l, PLT of 153 × 109/l, Na+ of 136 mmol/l, K+ of 4.8 mmol/l, Cr of 83 μmol/l, and urea of 5.0 mmol/l, with a CRP of 13.5 mg/l. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infective endocarditis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest several possible diagnoses. Infective endocarditis should be considered even without murmurs, especially if the patient has chronic fever, weight loss, and malaise. Conjunctival petechial hemorrhages are more common than the classical skin signs. A first-degree atrioventricular block and dipstick hematuria may also indicate subacute bacterial endocarditis. A history of skin infection suggests Staphylococcus as the probable culprit organism. Viral hemorrhagic fever is another possibility, especially if the patient has a travel history to countries where these viruses are prevalent. Pyelonephritis may be indicated by positive urine dipstick results for leukocytes/nitrites and symptoms such as dysuria, abdominal pain, and flank pain. Malaria may present with flu-like symptoms, acute febrile illness, and paroxysms, along with splenomegaly. Rheumatic fever may occur following a streptococcal throat infection and is characterized by fever, painful joints, Sydenham’s chorea, and erythema marginatum. Rheumatic heart disease may be a long-term complication of rheumatic fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 22 - A 29-year-old woman with a medical history of recurrent miscarriages, previous stroke, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman with a medical history of recurrent miscarriages, previous stroke, and thrombocytopenia presents to the hospital with a painful and swollen right calf that has been bothering her for the past three days. Upon conducting a coagulation screen, the following results were obtained: Prothrombin time of 13 seconds (normal range: 11.5-15.5 seconds), thrombin time of 13 seconds (normal range: 13 seconds), and activated partial thromboplastin time of 78 seconds (normal range: 30-40 seconds). The APTT was not corrected when mixed with normal plasma. What could be the underlying cause of this clotting abnormality?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lupus anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of Abnormal Coagulation Test Results

      When interpreting abnormal coagulation test results, it is important to consider the potential underlying causes. In this case, a prolonged activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) was observed. Chronic liver disease was ruled out as a potential cause, as it typically results in a prolonged prothrombin time (PT).

      The remaining options for a prolonged APTT include factor deficiencies and lupus anticoagulant. However, lupus anticoagulant is unique in that it does not correct when mixed with normal plasma. Therefore, it is important to investigate further with individual factor assays if the coagulation tests show correction on mixing.

      In addition to the abnormal coagulation test results, the patient’s young age, suspected deep vein thrombosis, recurrent miscarriages, strokes, and thrombocytopenia suggest a potential diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome. It is important to consider all of these factors when interpreting abnormal coagulation test results and making a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 23 - A 23-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain in his left flank area...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain in his left flank area going down into his groin. The pain is constant and he feels nauseated. He had a similar episode six months ago which resolved with conservative management. On examination, he has left renal angle tenderness but otherwise a soft non-tender abdomen. Investigations reveal a single solitary area of calcification within his left kidney. He is treated conservatively and subsequently seen in the renal clinic where he undergoes further investigations. Which therapeutic option is most likely to prevent future episodes?

      Option A: Intravenous fluid infusion
      Option B: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
      Option C: Opioid analgesia
      Option D: Dietary changes
      Option E: Vitamin D supplementation

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics can reduce calcium excretion and the formation of renal stones in patients with hypercalciuria. This patient has a history of two episodes of renal colic caused by renal stones, as evidenced by calcification on abdominal x-ray. The composition of the stones is likely to contain a significant amount of calcium, which is commonly found in calcium phosphate or calcium oxalate stones. Thiazide diuretics are effective in preventing hypercalciuria-related stones, such as calcium phosphate stones, while potassium citrate may be useful for calcium oxalate stones. Allopurinol is recommended for uric acid stones, which are typically not visible on plain x-ray imaging.

      Management and Prevention of Renal Stones

      Renal stones, also known as kidney stones, can cause severe pain and discomfort. The British Association of Urological Surgeons (BAUS) has published guidelines on the management of acute ureteric/renal colic. Initial management includes the use of NSAIDs as the analgesia of choice for renal colic, with caution taken when prescribing certain NSAIDs due to increased risk of cardiovascular events. Alpha-adrenergic blockers are no longer routinely recommended, but may be beneficial for patients amenable to conservative management. Initial investigations include urine dipstick and culture, serum creatinine and electrolytes, FBC/CRP, and calcium/urate levels. Non-contrast CT KUB is now recommended as the first-line imaging for all patients, with ultrasound having a limited role.

      Most renal stones measuring less than 5 mm in maximum diameter will pass spontaneously within 4 weeks. However, more intensive and urgent treatment is indicated in the presence of ureteric obstruction, renal developmental abnormality, and previous renal transplant. Treatment options include lithotripsy, nephrolithotomy, ureteroscopy, and open surgery. Shockwave lithotripsy involves generating a shock wave externally to the patient, while ureteroscopy involves passing a ureteroscope retrograde through the ureter and into the renal pelvis. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy involves gaining access to the renal collecting system and performing intra corporeal lithotripsy or stone fragmentation. The preferred treatment option depends on the size and complexity of the stone.

      Prevention of renal stones involves lifestyle modifications such as high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and thiazide diuretics to increase distal tubular calcium resorption. Calcium stones may also be due to hypercalciuria, which can be managed with thiazide diuretics. Oxalate stones can be managed with cholestyramine and pyridoxine, while uric acid stones can be managed with allopurinol and urinary alkalinization with oral bicarbonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with persistent and heavy nosebleeds...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with persistent and heavy nosebleeds from both nostrils. The ENT Registrar successfully packs the nose, but the patient complains of continuous post-nasal drip and has had several episodes of black, tarry stools. She has been experiencing joint pain in her knees and hands for several months.
      There is no significant medical history, except for a routine gallbladder removal surgery a year ago. Family history is unremarkable, and she is not taking any medications.
      Upon examination, she has moderate synovitis in several proximal interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, and large joints. Her blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg, heart rate 110 bpm, and respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute. Her skin is cool to the touch, and she has multiple bruises.
      Lab results:
      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 80 g/l (normal range: 120-160 g/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 4.5 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
      - Platelets (PLT): 600 × 109/l (normal range: 150–400 × 109/l)
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 70 mm/hour (normal range: 0-20 mm/hour)
      - Partial thromboplastin time (PTT): 80 seconds (normal range: 23.0–35.0 seconds)
      - Prothrombin Test (PT): 13 seconds (normal range: 10.6–14.9 seconds)
      - Factor VIII activity: Reduced
      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      Crystal nephropathy is a condition commonly associated with the use of atazanavir, a component of HAART. Adequate rehydration is crucial to avoid this condition, and patients are recommended to take at least 2-3 litres of fluid per day. IV normal saline is the treatment of choice for crystal nephropathy, and with adequate fluid replacement, atazanavir therapy can often continue. IV methylprednisolone and cyclophosphamide may be used to treat renal vasculitis, but is not a treatment for renal stones. IV hydrocortisone is not a treatment for crystal nephropathy, but may be used for adrenal failure. Co-amoxiclav would treat any bacterial urinary tract infection, but is not effective for crystal nephropathy. Sodium bicarbonate therapy may be used in some renal stone disease, but not for indinavir crystals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department complaining of dizziness and vomiting. He had been experiencing symptoms for the past 48 hours and noticed a tendency to sway towards his right side while walking. He had a history of hypertension and was taking atenolol 100 mg/day.
      Upon examination, his blood pressure was 160/100 mmHg, with a pulse of 78 bpm. He was alert and oriented to place and time. Fundi were unremarkable. There was impaired conjugate lateral gaze to the right side, and a right-sided gaze-evoked nystagmus was evident. The right orbicularis oculi and oris were mildly weak. The right upper and lower limbs were hypotonic and ataxic. Plantar were flexors on both sides. Pinprick sensation was impaired over the left-sided trunk and limbs.
      Which vascular territory is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right anterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is option C, which is the occlusion of the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery. This type of occlusion causes a lateral inferior pontine infarction, resulting in symptoms such as vertigo, vomiting, nystagmus, and tinnitus on the ipsilateral side. Other symptoms include facial weakness, impaired lateral gaze, ataxia, and Horner syndrome. On the contralateral side, there may be impaired pain and temperature sensation due to spinothalamic tract involvement. The other options listed (A, B, D, and E) are incorrect and have different symptoms associated with their respective occlusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old patient presents with exertional dyspnoea and bilateral pulmonary oedema on chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient presents with exertional dyspnoea and bilateral pulmonary oedema on chest x-ray. The patient has a past medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolaemia, and a previous NSTEMI in 2010. An echocardiogram shows moderate to severe LV dysfunction and a pulmonary arterial pressure of 83 mmHg (normal <25 mmHg). What diagnostic investigation should be done next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No further investigations for pulmonary hypertension

      Explanation:

      According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), pulmonary hypertension is classified into five categories based on its cause. These categories are: pulmonary arterial hypertension, pulmonary hypertension caused by left heart disease, pulmonary hypertension caused by lung disease, pulmonary hypertension caused by chronic thromboembolic disease, and pulmonary hypertension with unknown causes.

      In the case of this patient, her pulmonary hypertension can be explained by her left-sided heart disease, making her a group 2 pulmonary hypertension patient. Therefore, no further investigations are necessary. The treatment for her pulmonary hypertension will depend on improving her left ventricular failure.

      Understanding Pulmonary Hypertension: Causes and Classification

      Pulmonary hypertension is a condition characterized by a sustained increase in mean pulmonary arterial pressure of more than 25 mmHg at rest. Recently, the World Health Organization (WHO) has reclassified pulmonary hypertension into five groups based on their causes.

      Group 1, also known as pulmonary arterial hypertension (PAH), includes idiopathic and familial cases, as well as those associated with collagen vascular disease, congenital heart disease with systemic to pulmonary shunts, HIV, drugs and toxins, and sickle cell disease. Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn is also classified under this group.

      Group 2 is pulmonary hypertension with left heart disease, which is caused by left-sided atrial, ventricular, or valvular disease such as left ventricular systolic and diastolic dysfunction, mitral stenosis, and mitral regurgitation.

      Group 3 is pulmonary hypertension secondary to lung disease/hypoxia, which includes conditions such as COPD, interstitial lung disease, sleep apnea, and high altitude.

      Group 4 is pulmonary hypertension due to thromboembolic disease, which is caused by blood clots in the lungs.

      Finally, Group 5 is a miscellaneous category that includes conditions such as lymphangiomatosis, which can be secondary to carcinomatosis or sarcoidosis.

      Understanding the classification of pulmonary hypertension is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management of the condition. By identifying the underlying cause, healthcare professionals can provide targeted interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old African man, known to be homozygous for sickle cell disease, presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old African man, known to be homozygous for sickle cell disease, presents to the hospital with worsening shortness of breath, right-sided pleuritic pain and dry cough over the last 12 hours. Upon examination, she has a fever of 39 °C. Her respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. Oxygen saturation on room air is 88%. She is tachycardic and normotensive, and chest examination reveals expiratory wheeze throughout both lung fields.
      Investigations:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 60 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 20 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 450 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Chest X-ray New shadowing at right base
      She is diagnosed with acute chest syndrome, possibly related to Mycoplasma infection.

      What additional tests should be conducted to guide the management and prognosis of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Acute Chest Syndrome in Sickle Cell Disease

      Acute chest syndrome (ACS) is a serious complication of sickle cell disease that can be caused by infection or infarction. Predictors of severity in ACS include worsening hypoxia, increasing respiratory rate, decreased platelet count, decreasing hemoglobin concentration, multilobar involvement on chest X-ray, and neurological complications. Arterial blood gas (ABG) sampling is the gold standard for determining oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in ACS patients. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) of the chest is not recommended due to high radiation dose and frequent need for other radiological tests. Hb electrophoresis is not predictive of severity or helpful in guiding management. Incentive spirometry and chest physiotherapy are recommended, but peak flow measurement is not useful in predicting severity or guiding management. Ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) lung scan is not recommended as an initial investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 28 - An 88-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with unilateral weakness and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with unilateral weakness and difficulty in naming objects, as reported by her family. This began approximately six hours ago.

      Upon examination, there is weakness in her left arm and leg (arm > leg) with decreased sensation. The patient becomes increasingly tearful and struggles to name objects around her, although she can describe their function. A systems review reveals a heart rate of 72/min and a blood pressure of 110/84 mmHg. There are no precordial murmurs or carotid bruits. An ECG shows that the patient is in sinus rhythm.

      An urgent CT scan reveals an area of grey matter differentiation in the right hemisphere, leading to a diagnosis of Right Partial Anterior Circulation Syndrome (R PACS).

      The patient has previously been taking amlodipine 5 mg and mirtazapine 30 mg once per day. She is started on aspirin. What other intervention should be considered for her treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 80 mg OD to be started 48 hours post onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, this woman should be prescribed atorvastatin for secondary prevention of stroke within 48 hours of her ischaemic episode. This is because early administration of statins has been linked to a risk of haemorrhagic transformation. Anti-embolism stockings are not recommended for stroke patients as they do not provide any additional benefit in preventing embolic events during the acute phase.

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.

      Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.

      Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease presents to the Emergency department with an exacerbation. His GP prescribed ciprofloxacin three days ago. He is also taking high dose salmeterol fluticasone, oral theophylline, and tiotropium. He has been experiencing vomiting and dizziness for the past 24 hours. His blood pressure is 132/88 mmHg with a postural drop of 15 mmHg, and his serum potassium level is 3.0 mmol/l.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop theophylline

      Explanation:

      When prescribing CYP450 inhibitors, it is important to discontinue the use of theophylline. This is because theophylline is metabolized by the CYP1A2 isoenzyme, which can accumulate when Ciprofloxacin, a moderate inhibitor of CYP1A2, is administered. Symptoms of toxicity include hyperventilation, marked hypokalaemia, nausea, and vomiting. The most crucial intervention is to stop the use of theophylline.

      However, the co-administration of Ciprofloxacin does not affect the metabolism of salmeterol and tiotropium. Therefore, there is no need to discontinue the use of these medications. Oral potassium replacement will not prevent further symptoms of theophylline toxicity or affect the buildup of theophylline. Other drugs metabolized by CYP1A2, such as clozapine, olanzapine, ropinirole, and duloxetine, may also accumulate when co-administered with Ciprofloxacin.

      The P450 system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body, and drug interactions can occur when certain drugs inhibit or induce the activity of these enzymes. The most common and important enzyme system involved in drug interactions is CYP3A4. Macrolides, antiretrovirals, and calcium channel blockers are substrates for this enzyme, while macrolides, protease inhibitors (including ritonavir), and imidazoles are inhibitors. Carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitone, rifampicin, and St John’s Wort are inducers of CYP3A4. Other enzyme systems affected by common drugs include CYP2D6, CYP2C9, CYP1A2, and CYP2E1. Tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics are substrates for CYP2D6, while SSRIs and ritonavir are inhibitors. Warfarin and sulfonylureas are substrates for CYP2C9, while imidazoles, amiodarone, and sodium valproate are inhibitors. Theophylline is a substrate for CYP1A2, while ciprofloxacin and omeprazole are inhibitors. Chronic alcohol and isoniazid are inducers of CYP2E1. It is important to be aware of these interactions to avoid adverse effects and ensure optimal drug therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with her fourth episode...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with her fourth episode of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) in the last four months. She has recently been diagnosed with WPW syndrome. She doesn't smoke but drinks up to three cups of coffee per day. On this occasion, she experienced chest pain and shortness of breath while exercising at the gym. She is currently taking a low dose of verapamil as prophylaxis against further events.

      During examination, her BP is 100/70 mmHg, with a pulse of 170 bpm and regular. She is electrically cardioverted.

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Next Steps for a Patient with Supraventricular Tachycardia and WPW Syndrome

      Despite treatment with a beta-blocker, sotalol, a patient with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome remains symptomatic. This suggests that further episodes of SVT are likely to occur and may continue to impact the patient’s ability to work. Therefore, the logical next step is to perform electrophysiology studies followed by consideration of radiofrequency ablation.

      While amiodarone is occasionally used in tachyarrhythmias, including WPW, it is not indicated in this situation. Similarly, switching from sotalol to verapamil is unlikely to change the patient’s symptoms and may even increase the ventricular rate in WPW. Teaching the patient vagal maneuvers, such as the Valsalva maneuver, may be reasonable for very infrequent episodes of arrhythmia but is not a substitute for definitive treatment.

      It is important to note that an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD) is not indicated for WPW syndrome. The indications for ICD insertion are clear and outlined in NICE guidance. Therefore, electrophysiology studies followed by consideration of radiofrequency ablation remain the most appropriate next steps for this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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