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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old woman trips and falls, landing on her outstretched hand and resulting...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman trips and falls, landing on her outstretched hand and resulting in a distal radius fracture (Colles' fracture). She has a history of depression and osteoarthritis but no other significant medical conditions. What is the best course of action to address her risk of future fractures?

      Your Answer: Perform a FRAX (without bone mineral density) assessment

      Correct Answer: Start alendronate 70mg once weekly

      Explanation:

      Patients aged 75 years or older who have experienced a fragility fracture should be initiated on oral alendronate 70mg once weekly without the need for a DEXA scan, as they are presumed to have osteoporosis.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.

      For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      36.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 67-year-old retired coal miner is presenting with long-standing hand symptoms. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old retired coal miner is presenting with long-standing hand symptoms. He reports experiencing intermittent color changes in the tips of all digits of both hands up to the proximal interphalangeal joints in all digits. These changes occur when his hands are exposed to cold and the affected areas of the digits appear markedly white. They then turn red in color and become numb and painful before recovering. He tries to warm his hands when they turn white, and it takes about 20 minutes for the fingers to return to a normal appearance. He has no issues affecting his feet and is otherwise healthy, taking no regular medication. His hand difficulties developed gradually over many years, but his daughter is concerned about them and convinced him to seek a review as she has noticed he seems to struggle gripping objects at times. What is the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?

      Your Answer: Check a fingerprick blood glucose and arrange a HbA1c blood test

      Correct Answer: Refer for nerve conduction tests

      Explanation:

      Hand Arm Vibration Syndrome in Ex-Miners

      Hand arm vibration syndrome (HAVS) is a condition caused by prolonged exposure to vibration, often through work, that damages nerves and blood vessels. Ex-miners are at high risk of developing HAVS due to their frequent use of hand-held vibrating tools in their work. Symptoms of HAVS include numbness, tingling, and pain in the hands and fingers, as well as a blanching or whitening of the fingers known as vibration white finger.

      If an ex-miner presents with these symptoms, it is important to take a detailed occupational history to determine if they were exposed to handheld vibrating tools in their previous work. If there is no history of such exposure, an alternative diagnosis should be considered and further investigation may be necessary. Early diagnosis and management of HAVS is crucial to prevent further damage and improve outcomes for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      93.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Grave's disease and is now seeking...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Grave's disease and is now seeking a review 3 months after commencing a 'block and replace' regimen with carbimazole and thyroxine. She is worried about the possibility of developing thyroid eye disease. What measures can be taken to minimize her risk of developing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking is the primary controllable risk factor for thyroid eye disease.

      Thyroid eye disease is a condition that affects a significant proportion of patients with Graves’ disease. It is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response against an autoantigen, possibly the TSH receptor, which leads to inflammation behind the eyes. This inflammation causes the deposition of glycosaminoglycan and collagen in the muscles, resulting in symptoms such as exophthalmos, conjunctival oedema, optic disc swelling, and ophthalmoplegia. In severe cases, patients may be unable to close their eyelids, leading to sore, dry eyes and a risk of exposure keratopathy.

      Prevention of thyroid eye disease is important, and smoking is the most significant modifiable risk factor. Radioiodine treatment may also increase the risk of developing or worsening eye disease, but prednisolone may help reduce this risk. Management of established thyroid eye disease may involve topical lubricants to prevent corneal inflammation, steroids, radiotherapy, or surgery.

      Patients with established thyroid eye disease should be monitored closely for any signs of deterioration, such as unexplained changes in vision, corneal opacity, or disc swelling. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary in these cases to prevent further complications. Overall, thyroid eye disease is a complex condition that requires careful management and monitoring to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      0
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  • Question 4 - A childcare assistant is setting up the nursery equipment. One set of thermometers...

    Incorrect

    • A childcare assistant is setting up the nursery equipment. One set of thermometers consistently measures temperature 5% lower than the actual value.

      What is the issue with this set of thermometers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Validity

      Explanation:

      In statistics, reliability refers to the degree of consistency in a measurement, while validity pertains to the accuracy of a test.

      Understanding Reliability and Validity in Statistics

      Reliability and validity are two important concepts in statistics that are used to determine the accuracy and consistency of a measure. Reliability refers to the consistency of a measurement, while validity refers to whether a test accurately measures what it is supposed to measure.

      It is important to note that reliability and validity are independent of each other. This means that a measurement can be valid but not reliable, or reliable but not valid. For example, if a pulse oximeter consistently records oxygen saturations 5% below the true value, it is considered reliable because the value is consistently 5% below the true value. However, it is not considered valid because the reported saturations are not an accurate reflection of the true values.

      In summary, reliability and validity are crucial concepts in statistics that help to ensure accurate and consistent measurements. Understanding the difference between these two concepts is important for researchers and statisticians to ensure that their data is reliable and valid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is being treated for an exacerbation of his asthma. His doctor prescribes him prednisolone 40 mg once daily for 5 days. What is the recommended course of action after the 5 day treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the prednisolone with no further doses

      Explanation:

      According to the BNF, if patients have been taking systemic corticosteroids at a dosage of more than 40 mg prednisolone daily for over a week, or have been on treatment for more than 3 weeks, or have received repeated courses recently, it is recommended to gradually withdraw the medication.

      Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman had a renal transplant three months ago. She presents with fatigue, fever, sweating (especially at night), aching joints and headaches. On examination, there are no focal signs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection

      Explanation:

      Infections after Renal Transplantation: Common Types and Risks

      Renal transplant patients are at high risk of infections, with over 50% experiencing at least one infection in the first year. In the first month, the risk is similar to that of non-immunosuppressed individuals, with common infections such as postoperative pneumonias and wound infections. However, in the one to six-month period, immunomodulating viruses like Cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes simplex viruses, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus-6 become more problematic.

      Herpes simplex virus can cause severe lesions, including disseminated mucocutaneous disease, oesophagitis, hepatitis, and pneumonitis. influenza can also cause respiratory symptoms, but the injectable inactivated vaccine is safe for kidney transplant recipients. Pneumonia and urinary tract infections are common in the general population, and patients should receive appropriate immunisation.

      A small group of patients may experience persistent viral infections, and those who require additional immunosuppression are at risk of opportunistic infections like cryptococcus, pneumocystis, listeria, and nocardia. Urinary infections are the most common after renal transplantation, and patients usually receive prophylactic antibiotics and antiviral drugs for a few months after the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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  • Question 7 - You see a 36-year-old male who has a past history of alcohol abuse....

    Incorrect

    • You see a 36-year-old male who has a past history of alcohol abuse. He is brought in by a friend because he has been more confused over the last few days.

      On examination the patient has nystagmus, an abducens nerve palsy and walks with an ataxic gait.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient ischaemic attack

      Explanation:

      Neuropsychiatric Consequences of Heavy Alcohol Intake

      Sustained heavy alcohol intake can lead to several neuropsychiatric consequences. One of these is Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the classic triad may not always be present, and patients may experience other symptoms such as headache, anorexia, vomiting, and confusion. This condition is caused by thiamine deficiency and requires prompt treatment with parenteral thiamine to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a progression from Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Patients with this condition develop memory problems but have good preservation of other cognitive functions. They are unable to consolidate new information and tend to confabulate rather than acknowledge their poor memory. Although treatment with thiamine is necessary, the response is often poor. Therefore, it is important to address alcohol intake and prevent the development of these debilitating conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 8 - A 54-year-old woman visits your clinic with a complaint of continuous ringing in...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman visits your clinic with a complaint of continuous ringing in her ears. She had previously sought medical attention for her lower back pain and was prescribed naproxen and paracetamol. However, the paracetamol was later substituted with co-codamol and then with co-dydramol. Which medication is the probable cause of her recent symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naproxen

      Explanation:

      High doses of aspirin and other NSAIDs can lead to tinnitus, although the frequency of this side effect is unknown. Co-codamol and co-dydramol are not known to cause tinnitus, but they can cause other side effects such as drowsiness, respiratory depression, and addiction. Melatonin is generally well-tolerated, but it can cause side effects such as changes in behavior, headaches, and sleep disturbances. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these medications and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.

      Tinnitus is a condition where a person perceives sounds in their ears or head that do not come from an external source. It affects approximately 1 in 10 people at some point in their lives and can be distressing for patients. While it is sometimes considered a minor symptom, it can also be a sign of a serious underlying condition. The causes of tinnitus can vary, with some patients having no identifiable underlying cause. Other causes may include Meniere’s disease, otosclerosis, conductive deafness, positive family history, sudden onset sensorineural hearing loss, acoustic neuroma, hearing loss, drugs, and impacted earwax.

      To assess tinnitus, an audiologist may perform an audiological assessment to detect any underlying hearing loss. Imaging may also be necessary, with non-pulsatile tinnitus generally not requiring imaging unless it is unilateral or there are other neurological or ontological signs. Pulsatile tinnitus, on the other hand, often requires imaging as there may be an underlying vascular cause. Management of tinnitus may involve investigating and treating any underlying cause, using amplification devices if associated with hearing loss, and psychological therapy such as cognitive behavioural therapy or joining tinnitus support groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 9 - A female patient in her 40s is expressing deep concern about her lack...

    Incorrect

    • A female patient in her 40s is expressing deep concern about her lack of sexual desire over the last half year.

      When evaluating diminished libido in women, what is accurate to consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibolone can improve lack of libido in postmenopausal women

      Explanation:

      Managing Low Libido in Menopausal Women

      Lubricants can provide temporary relief for menopausal women experiencing low libido, but they require frequent application and may not address the underlying issue. Measuring testosterone levels is not a reliable method for diagnosing low libido in menopausal women. While testosterone patches can benefit naturally menopausal women, they are currently only licensed for use in women who have had their ovaries removed. However, it is important to note that the postmenopausal ovary does produce testosterone. Tibolone is a medication that has been shown to improve low libido in postmenopausal women. It is important for women experiencing low libido to discuss their symptoms with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 10 - You are asked to visit a 52-year-old businessman at home, following a phone...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to visit a 52-year-old businessman at home, following a phone call from a worried neighbour. He lives alone and has been struggling for the past six months with the collapse of his financial services business.

      He saw a colleague six weeks ago and was given a prescription for citalopram 20 mg, but this was not renewed and he has not been seen since.

      Upon arrival at his home you notice that the curtains were all drawn and there were dirty plates piled high behind the sofa. There are several empty cans of beer strewn across the floor but he is not intoxicated and you cannot smell alcohol on his breath.

      Your patient is unshaven and dishevelled. He talked in a low, monotone voice and there was no eye contact. He attributed the collapse of his business to the direct intervention of the Prime Minister, who had been placing hidden cameras in his home. He says that he can hear the whirring of the cameras at night and has not slept for three days. He is not actively suicidal but feels that his life is pointless.

      There is no family support and the neighbour who alerted you said that she did not want to get involved.

      Which one of the following would be the most appropriate way of managing this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the dose of citalopram to 40 mg

      Explanation:

      Management of Patients with Significant Mental Health Problems

      In reality, the management of patients with significant mental health problems often involves a number of options – drug therapy, psychological support and psychotherapy, to name but a few.

      However, when a patient lives alone, exhibits psychotic symptoms, and shows evidence of self-neglect, urgent action is required. In such cases, the mental health team should be contacted immediately for an assessment.

      It is important to note that this patient has been non-compliant with previous treatment, and there is no guarantee that he would take any medication prescribed at this visit. Additionally, there are clues that he may be drinking heavily, but prescribing without additional support would be inappropriate.

      Although there is no evidence of active suicidal ideation, there are a number of risk factors for suicide. Therefore, urgent involvement of the mental health team is strongly recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 11 - A 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. She is an only child...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. She is an only child and lives at home with her mother. Her mother has a history of epilepsy treated with valproate.
      What prophylaxis should be given to the mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Antibiotic for Epilepsy Patients

      When it comes to choosing an antibiotic for patients with epilepsy, it’s important to consider the history of epilepsy. Rifampicin is the best option in this case, although it may reduce the effectiveness of other medications like phenytoin. Ofloxacin is an alternative, but it’s not recommended for patients with epilepsy. Ciprofloxacin is generally preferred for chemoprophylaxis, but it’s contraindicated for patients with epilepsy or conditions that increase the risk of seizures. However, in patients being treated with phenytoin, the benefits may outweigh the risks. It’s crucial to carefully consider the patient’s medical history and medication regimen before selecting an appropriate antibiotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - As a healthcare professional working in a GP practice, your next patient is...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional working in a GP practice, your next patient is a thirteen-month-old boy who has not yet started walking. His mother is worried because he has had six nosebleeds in the past two weeks, which have stopped on their own after basic first aid.

      The child's medical history is unremarkable, and he has no known allergies or regular medications. During the examination, you observe a lethargic-looking child with a normal heart rate and tympanic temperature. Upon inspecting his nose, there are no visible abnormalities, and his tonsils are slightly enlarged.

      What is the most appropriate course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fast-track referral to Paediatrics

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epistaxis in Children

      Epistaxis, or nosebleeds, are common in children and can be caused by various factors. The most common cause is nose picking, followed by the presence of a foreign body, upper respiratory tract infections, and allergic rhinitis. However, it is important to note that children under the age of 2 years should be referred to a healthcare professional as epistaxis is rare in this age group and may be a result of trauma or bleeding disorders. It is crucial to understand the underlying cause of epistaxis in children to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications. Proper education and guidance on how to prevent nose picking and the importance of seeking medical attention for any underlying conditions can help reduce the incidence of epistaxis in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant with her first child seeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant with her first child seeks your advice on whether to breastfeed. She is facing pressure to return to work soon but is aware of the benefits of breastfeeding for both her and her baby's health.

      Which of the following conditions is known to have a lower incidence in breastfed infants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otitis media

      Explanation:

      Benefits of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has been shown to have numerous benefits for both the mother and the baby. According to the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) Promotion of breastfeeding initiation and duration (2006), breastfeeding can help reduce the incidence of various conditions.

      Studies have demonstrated that breastfeeding can reduce the risk of infantile gastroenteritis, urinary tract infections, atopic disease, juvenile insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, respiratory infections, and otitis media. However, it is important to note that breastfeeding may not necessarily protect against other conditions such as ADHD, intussusception, or rickets.

      Overall, breastfeeding is a natural and effective way to promote the health and well-being of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old woman presents to you seeking advice on contraception. She is experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to you seeking advice on contraception. She is experiencing heavier and more painful periods, despite them still being regular. She has expressed interest in learning more about the levonorgestrel intrauterine system (LNG-IUS).

      What is the accurate statement regarding the LNG-IUS and this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The LNG-IUS can be used for contraception until the age of 55 if inserted at age 45 or over

      Explanation:

      The MirenaÂź, LevosertÂź, and JaydessÂź are three types of LNG-IUS available in the UK for women. The MirenaÂź coil can be used for contraception, heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB), and endometrial protection during estrogen-only hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for up to 5 years. LevosertÂź is licensed for contraception and HMB for 3 years, while JaydessÂź is licensed for contraception only for 3 years. However, the faculty of sexual and reproductive health recommends that women aged 45 or over can use MirenaÂź for contraception until the age of 55, as long as it is not being used for endometrial protection during HRT. Therefore, for a 45-year-old patient, the correct answer is 1.

      Women over the age of 40 still require effective contraception until they reach menopause, despite a significant decline in fertility. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has produced specific guidance for this age group, titled Contraception for Women Aged Over 40 Years. No method of contraception is contraindicated by age alone, with all methods being UKMEC1 except for the combined oral contraceptive pill (UKMEC2 for women >= 40 years) and Depo-Provera (UKMEC2 for women > 45 years). The FSRH guidance provides specific considerations for each method, such as the use of COCP in the perimenopausal period to maintain bone mineral density and reduce menopausal symptoms. Depo-Provera use is associated with a small loss in bone mineral density, which is usually recovered after discontinuation. The FSRH also provides a table detailing how different methods may be stopped based on age and amenorrhea status. Hormone replacement therapy cannot be relied upon for contraception, and a separate method is needed. The FSRH advises that the POP may be used in conjunction with HRT as long as the HRT has a progestogen component, while the IUS is licensed to provide the progestogen component of HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 15 - You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in clinic who has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. He was prescribed Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100 mcg prn via a spacer before discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.

      For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old woman is breastfeeding her 3-month-old baby and has developed a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is breastfeeding her 3-month-old baby and has developed a fever with a red, tender area near her right nipple.
      Select the single correct statement.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An abscess may develop and would need draining

      Explanation:

      Managing Mastitis: Tips for Breastfeeding Mothers

      Mastitis is a common condition among breastfeeding mothers, which can lead to an abscess if left untreated. To prevent this complication, it is important to continue feeding from the affected breast to avoid engorgement. Contrary to popular belief, feeding from an infected breast doesn’t cause infection in the baby. However, the milk may taste slightly different, and the baby may refuse to feed. In such cases, expressing milk from the infected side is recommended. White patches inside a baby’s mouth are a sign of thrush and are not caused by mastitis. To manage the pain and discomfort associated with mastitis, a breastfeeding mother can take both paracetamol and ibuprofen. By following these tips, mothers can effectively manage mastitis and continue to breastfeed their babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 17 - Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following calcium channel blockers is most likely to cause pulmonary edema in a patient with a history of chronic heart failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      Verapamil exhibits the strongest negative inotropic effect among calcium channel blockers.

      Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.

      Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.

      Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.

      Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.

      According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 18 - Liam is a 27-year-old man with a history of depression and type 1...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 27-year-old man with a history of depression and type 1 diabetes mellitus, for which he takes citalopram and insulin.

      What substances should Liam avoid due to potential dangerous interactions with his medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: St John’s wort

      Explanation:

      Serotonin syndrome can be caused by the interaction between St. John’s Wort and SSRIs, such as citalopram. While cranberry juice is an enzyme inhibitor, it doesn’t have any known interactions with SSRIs or insulin. Similarly, paracetamol doesn’t interact with either SSRIs or insulin. Cannabis is not known to have any interactions with SSRIs. Although cheese can interact with monoamine oxidase inhibitors, it doesn’t have any interactions with SSRIs.

      Understanding Serotonin Syndrome

      Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, altered mental state, and confusion.

      Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another potentially life-threatening condition. While both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman presents at six months’ gestation. She was adopted but reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents at six months’ gestation. She was adopted but reports that her biological family is known to have ‘health problems’ and has heard the term ‘polygenic inheritance’ mentioned. She is concerned about passing any conditions on to her child and asks for more information about inheritance patterns.
      Which of the following conditions demonstrates a polygenic mode of inheritance?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      Inheritance Patterns of Various Disorders

      Many disorders have a familial tendency that cannot be explained by Mendelian inheritance patterns. Polygenic inheritance, also known as quantitative inheritance, is when a single phenotype is controlled by multiple genes. This type of inheritance can result in a range of phenotypes depending on the number of genes involved and their interactions. Examples of disorders with polygenic inheritance include congenital malformations and acquired diseases such as asthma, hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and bipolar disorder.

      Cystic fibrosis is inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern, meaning that two copies of the abnormal gene are necessary for the condition to appear. Fragile X syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by a dominant X-linked gene, but it’s penetrance is only 50% in females. Friedreich’s ataxia is inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern and is characterized by progressive ataxia, dysarthria, decreased proprioception/vibration sense, muscle weakness, and late-onset cardiomyopathy. The average life expectancy for individuals with Friedreich’s ataxia is 40-50 years. Finally, Huntington’s disease is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern, meaning that only one copy of the gene is necessary to produce the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 46-year-old woman visits the clinic with a history of chronic migraines. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman visits the clinic with a history of chronic migraines. She experiences 2 or more attacks every month. After maintaining a headache diary, no triggering factors were identified. She has previously tried topiramate and amitriptyline, but her symptoms did not improve. She has a history of severe asthma.

      Her cranial nerve examination, including fundoscopy, is normal, and her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg.

      Based on the current NICE CKS guidance, what is the most appropriate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer 10-sessions of acupuncture over 5-8 weeks and review the patient in 2-3 weeks to check response

      Explanation:

      For patients who experience frequent and severe migraines, preventive treatment should be considered if acute treatments are ineffective or not suitable, or if there is a risk of medication-overuse headaches. Propranolol is the first-line prophylactic treatment, but if it is not suitable, alternative treatments such as topiramate or amitriptyline may be considered. Gabapentin should not be used for migraine prophylaxis. Non-pharmacological therapies such as acupuncture, relaxation techniques, or cognitive behavioural therapy can also be used as an alternative or adjunct to pharmacological therapy. Daily riboflavin may also be helpful in reducing migraine frequency and intensity. It is important to advise patients to limit their use of acute medication to a maximum of 2 days per week to avoid medication-overuse headaches. Referral for same-day neurology assessment is not necessary unless there are red-flag features. If the patient doesn’t respond to acupuncture, a neurology referral may be indicated.

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the management of migraines.

      For acute treatment, a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol is recommended as first-line therapy. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective or not tolerated, a non-oral preparation of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be offered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be considered if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity.

      For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be used as a type of mini-prophylaxis. Specialists may also consider candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, such as erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects such as weight gain and drowsiness.

      It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering the various treatment options available, migraines can be effectively managed and their impact on daily life reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 30-year-old woman presents to clinic for her routine cervical smear test. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to clinic for her routine cervical smear test. She reports no symptoms.
      Upon examination, the smear reveals no signs of dysplasia, however, the pathologist observes the presence of fusiform protozoa in the sample.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis infection

      Explanation:

      Trichomonas Vaginalis: The Most Common Non-Viral STI Worldwide

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a prevalent non-viral sexually transmitted infection that affects individuals worldwide. It is estimated that up to 20% of cases may be asymptomatic and can only be detected through routine cervical smear tests. However, typical symptoms include a copious frothy green/yellow vaginal discharge accompanied by pruritus. Symptoms tend to peak just after menses.

      Multiple sexual partners are a significant risk factor for contracting Trichomonas vaginalis. Pregnant women who contract the infection are at risk of delivering low birth weight babies and preterm delivery.

      The pathognomonic feature of Trichomonas vaginalis is the presence of fusiform protozoa on cytology. Treatment for this infection is with oral metronidazole. While other conditions can cause vaginitis, the presence of these protozoa is a clear indication of Trichomonas vaginalis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 22 - A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old alcoholic patient visits the General Practitioner (GP) for a check-up. He has recently been released from the hospital after experiencing an upper gastrointestinal bleed caused by oesophageal varices. He informs you that he has quit drinking and inquires about the likelihood of experiencing another bleeding episode.
      What is the accurate statement regarding the risk of future bleeding from oesophageal varices?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The risk of re-bleeding is greater than 60% within a year

      Explanation:

      Understanding Variceal Haemorrhage: Causes, Complications, and Prognosis

      Variceal haemorrhage is a common complication of portal hypertension, with almost 90% of cirrhosis patients developing varices and 30% experiencing bleeding. The mortality rate for the first episode is high, ranging from 30-50%. The severity of liver disease and associated systemic disorders worsen the prognosis, increasing the likelihood of a bleed. Patients who have had one episode of bleeding have a high chance of recurrence within a year, with one-third of further episodes being fatal. While abstaining from alcohol can slow the progression of liver disease, it cannot reverse portal hypertension. Understanding the causes, complications, and prognosis of variceal haemorrhage is crucial for effective management and prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old alcoholic man comes to the clinic complaining of cough with occasional...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old alcoholic man comes to the clinic complaining of cough with occasional haemoptysis, fever, night sweats and weight loss that has been going on for 2 months. His CXR reveals extensive bilateral apical cavitation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Cavitating Tuberculosis

      Cavitating tuberculosis is the likely diagnosis for a patient presenting with symptoms such as cough, fever, weight loss, and haemoptysis, along with a chest X-ray appearance. Although lung cancer could be a possible alternative diagnosis, the symptoms strongly suggest a tuberculous infection.

      The recommended treatment for the initial phase of cavitating tuberculosis is a daily combination of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs should be continued for two months. After the initial phase, treatment should continue for an additional four months with isoniazid and rifampicin. Combination preparations are available to make compliance easier for the patient. It is important to follow the prescribed treatment plan to ensure successful recovery from cavitating tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman has a two-month history of pain in her right hip...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has a two-month history of pain in her right hip radiating to her buttock, thigh, calf and ankle. She has a good range of movement in the hip and no focal tenderness.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sciatica

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Sciatica from Other Causes of Leg Pain

      Leg pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to accurately diagnose the underlying issue in order to provide appropriate treatment. Sciatica is a common cause of leg pain, but it is not a diagnosis in itself. Rather, it is a description of symptoms that can be caused by pressure on the sciatic nerve. Other conditions that can cause leg pain include osteoarthritis of the hip, polymyalgia rheumatica, sacroiliitis, and trochanteric bursitis. Each of these conditions presents with unique symptoms and requires a different approach to treatment. By carefully evaluating a patient’s symptoms and conducting appropriate diagnostic tests, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose the underlying cause of leg pain and provide effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old lady presents for diabetic follow-up. She has been using paracetamol to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old lady presents for diabetic follow-up. She has been using paracetamol to manage her painful diabetic neuropathy, but her symptoms persist. She requests a stronger medication. None of the following treatments have any contraindications. Based on guidelines, what is the most suitable treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pharmacological Management of Neuropathic Pain in Diabetic Patients

      According to the NICE guidelines on the pharmacological management of neuropathic pain (CG173), patients with painful diabetic neuropathy should be offered duloxetine, amitriptyline, pregabalin, or gabapentin as first-line treatment. If these medications are contraindicated or not tolerated, capsaicin cream topically may be used for very localized neuropathic pain. Patients should be reviewed early for their symptoms, and treatment should be continued or gradually reduced if symptoms allow. If all the above fail, referral to secondary care is recommended, and adding tramadol while the patient is waiting is worth a try.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 26 - A six-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a two-day history of red...

    Incorrect

    • A six-year-old girl presents to your clinic with a two-day history of red eyes. There was no known injury to her eyes. She has clear discharge from both eyes and no symptoms of a cold. Upon examination, her visual acuity is normal, but both upper eyelids are swollen and the conjunctiva is red bilaterally. There is no lymphadenopathy and she is not running a fever. You suspect she has acute infective conjunctivitis.

      What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise his symptoms should improve within 7 days without treatment

      Explanation:

      Antimicrobial treatment is often unnecessary for most cases of infective conjunctivitis, regardless of whether it is caused by a virus or bacteria. It can be challenging to differentiate between the two, although bacterial conjunctivitis may present with purulent discharge instead of watery discharge. Patients can alleviate symptoms with self-care measures such as cold compresses and ocular lubricants. If symptoms persist after seven days, patients should seek further medical attention. In severe cases of suspected bacterial conjunctivitis, chloramphenicol ointment can be purchased over the counter, while fusidic acid may be used as a second-line antimicrobial. Herpetic conjunctivitis, which causes a painful red eye with vesicular eyelid lesions, can be treated with aciclovir. Swabs are not useful in diagnosing conjunctivitis.

      Infective conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes that are accompanied by a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, patients are often offered topical antibiotic therapy, such as Chloramphenicol or topical fusidic acid. Chloramphenicol drops are given every two to three hours initially, while chloramphenicol ointment is given four times a day initially. Topical fusidic acid is an alternative and should be used for pregnant women. For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. It is important to advise patients not to share towels and to avoid wearing contact lenses during an episode of conjunctivitis. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 27 - What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement about infection with Epstein-Barr virus (infectious mononucleosis)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deranged liver function is common in infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Infectious Mononucleosis: Symptoms, Transmission, and Complications

      Infectious mononucleosis, commonly known as mono, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). While many patients may not show any symptoms, studies suggest that 90% of people over the age of 25 have antibodies to EBV. The virus is transmitted through droplet exchange and can continue to be excreted for several months.

      Symptoms of mono include deranged liver function, mild hepatomegaly, and splenomegaly, which can cause tenderness over the spleen. Jaundice is rare in young adults but can occur in up to 30% of infected elderly patients. It is important for patients to avoid contact sports for at least a month after infection to prevent the risk of splenic rupture.

      It is crucial to note that ampicillin and amoxicillin should not be given to any patient who may have infectious mononucleosis, as they can cause an itchy maculopapular rash. The illness is typically self-limiting and of short duration, but fatigue and myalgia may persist for several months after the acute infection has resolved.

      In conclusion, infectious mononucleosis is a viral infection that can cause various symptoms and complications. It is important to take precautions to prevent transmission and seek medical attention if symptoms persist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of mouth pain and halitosis. During examination, it...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of mouth pain and halitosis. During examination, it is observed that he has poor dental hygiene, bleeding gums, and extensive gingival ulceration. He also has a fever of 38.0ÂșC. You suggest that he should visit a dentist. What other treatment alternatives should be provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol + oral metronidazole + chlorhexidine mouthwash

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gingivitis and its Management

      Gingivitis is a dental condition that is commonly caused by poor oral hygiene. It is characterized by red and swollen gums that bleed easily. In severe cases, it can lead to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which is accompanied by painful bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers on the gums.

      For patients with simple gingivitis, regular dental check-ups are recommended, and antibiotics are usually not necessary. However, for those with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, it is important to seek immediate dental attention. In the meantime, oral metronidazole or amoxicillin may be prescribed for three days, along with chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and simple pain relief medication.

      It is crucial to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent gingivitis from developing or worsening. This includes brushing teeth twice a day, flossing daily, and using mouthwash regularly. By understanding the causes and management of gingivitis, individuals can take steps to protect their oral health and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old male comes to you seeking advice. He had a splenectomy ten...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male comes to you seeking advice. He had a splenectomy ten years ago after a cycling accident and has been in good health since. However, a friend recently informed him that he should be receiving treatment after having a splenectomy. He is currently not taking any medication. What would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      Asplenic Patients and Infection Risk

      Asplenic patients are at a higher risk of developing overwhelming encapsulated bacterial infections, particularly from pneumococcus and meningococcus. To prevent such infections, it is recommended that patients receive the Pneumovax vaccine two weeks before surgery or immediately after surgery in emergency situations. This vaccine should be repeated every five years. Additionally, influenza vaccination is also recommended to prevent super added bacterial infections.

      In children, oral penicillin is recommended, but its long-term use in adults is still a topic of debate. However, current guidelines suggest that splenectomized patients should receive both antibiotic prophylaxis and appropriate immunization to reduce the risk of infection. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the increased risk of infection in asplenic patients and take appropriate measures to prevent such infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 30 - You are discussing coronary heart disease risk with a patient who has a...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing coronary heart disease risk with a patient who has a 15% 10-year risk of cardiovascular disease. The patient wants to know if he should take a statin.

      Using the NICE patient decision aid on lipid modification you explain to him that if there were 100 people like him and none of them took a statin, on average 15 of these people would develop coronary heart disease (CHD) or have stroke over a 10 year period. If all 100 took a statin then over the same time period, on average nine people would develop CHD or have a stroke.

      Which of the following is correct with regards the use of a statin for cardiovascular disease prevention in this patient population?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The number needed to treat is 25

      Explanation:

      Understanding Statistical Concepts in Medical Practice

      Having a solid understanding of statistical concepts and terminology is crucial when informing patients about the risks and benefits of treatment. One important concept is the absolute risk (AR), which is the number of events in a group of patients divided by the total number of patients in that group. Another important concept is the absolute risk reduction (ARR), which is the difference between the AR in a control group (ARC) and in a treatment group (ART).

      To calculate the ARR, we subtract the ART from the ARC. For example, if the ARC is 10/100 and the ART is 6/100, then the ARR is 0.04 or 4%. The relative risk (RR) is another important concept, which is calculated by dividing the ART by the ARC. In this example, the RR is 0.6. The relative risk reduction (RRR) is calculated by subtracting the RR from 1. In this case, the RRR is 0.4. Finally, the number needed to treat (NNT) is calculated by dividing 1 by the ARR. In this example, the NNT is 25.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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