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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman becomes pregnant despite being on the oral contraceptive pill. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman becomes pregnant despite being on the oral contraceptive pill. Upon reviewing her medication, you discover that she has epilepsy and her anticonvulsant therapy was recently altered.
      Which of the following anticonvulsants is most likely to impact the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants have been found to enhance the metabolism of ethinyl estradiol and progestogens. This increased breakdown diminishes the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) in preventing pregnancy. Some examples of enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants include carbamazepine, phenytoin, phenobarbitol, and topiramate.

      On the other hand, non-enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants are unlikely to have an impact on contraception. Some examples of these anticonvulsants are sodium valproate, clonazepam, gabapentin, levetiracetam, and piracetam.

      It is important to note that lamotrigine, although classified as a non-enzyme-inducing anticonvulsant, requires special consideration. While there is no evidence suggesting that the OCP directly affects epilepsy, there is evidence indicating that it reduces the levels of lamotrigine in the bloodstream. This reduction in lamotrigine levels could potentially compromise seizure control and increase the likelihood of experiencing seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with lower abdominal pain, painful urination, painful intercourse, and thick vaginal discharge. A pregnancy test done today is negative. She has no fever and her vital signs are normal. During the exam, her abdomen feels soft, but she experiences cervical motion tenderness during a pelvic examination.

      What is the MOST suitable treatment plan?

      Your Answer: IM ceftriaxone plus oral doxycycline and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a pelvic infection that affects the upper female reproductive tract, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. It is typically caused by an ascending infection from the cervix and is commonly associated with sexually transmitted diseases like chlamydia and gonorrhea. In the UK, genital Chlamydia trachomatis infection is the most common cause of PID seen in genitourinary medicine clinics.

      PID can often be asymptomatic, but when symptoms are present, they may include lower abdominal pain and tenderness, fever, painful urination, painful intercourse, purulent vaginal discharge, abnormal vaginal bleeding, and tenderness in the cervix and adnexa. It is important to note that symptoms of ectopic pregnancy can be similar to those of PID, so a pregnancy test should be conducted for all patients with suspicious symptoms.

      To investigate a possible case of PID, endocervical swabs should be taken to test for C. trachomatis and N. gonorrhoeae using nucleic acid amplification tests if available. Mild to moderate cases of PID can usually be managed in primary care or outpatient settings, while patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics. Signs of severe disease include a fever above 38°C, signs of a tubo-ovarian abscess, signs of pelvic peritonitis, or concurrent pregnancy.

      Empirical antibiotic treatment should be initiated as soon as a presumptive diagnosis of PID is made clinically, without waiting for swab results. The current recommended outpatient treatment for PID is a single intramuscular dose of ceftriaxone 500 mg, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days. An alternative regimen is oral ofloxacin 400 mg twice daily and oral metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for 14 days.

      For severely ill patients in the inpatient setting, initial treatment includes intravenous doxycycline, a single-dose of intravenous ceftriaxone, and intravenous metronidazole. This is then followed by a switch to oral doxycycline and metronidazole to complete a 14-day treatment course. If a patient fails to respond to treatment, laparoscopy is necessary to confirm the diagnosis or consider alternative diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You evaluate a 14-year-old with Down syndrome. The reason for the visit is...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 14-year-old with Down syndrome. The reason for the visit is the caregiver's worry about recent occurrences of nosebleeds and bleeding gums. During the examination, the patient appears pale, but there are no other notable findings.
      What is the PRIMARY diagnosis that should raise the most concern at this point?

      Your Answer: Acute leukaemia

      Explanation:

      There is a known connection between trisomy 21 and acute lymphoblastic leukemia. Therefore, it is important to investigate and rule out this possibility as the first step in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following an...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance following an episode of fainting at home. The parents noticed that the girl suddenly collapsed and appeared pale. After lifting her up, she quickly regained consciousness and her color returned. After a thorough examination and investigation by the pediatric team, a diagnosis of a brief resolved unexplained event (BRUE) is made.
      Which of the following is NOT a recognized risk factor for a BRUE?

      Your Answer: High birth weight

      Explanation:

      The term Apparent Life-Threatening Event (ALTE) has traditionally been used to describe a specific type of event. However, in 2016, the American Academy of Paediatrics (AAP) recommended replacing ALTE with a new term called Brief Resolved Unexplained Event (BRUE).

      An ALTE is defined as an episode that is frightening to the observer and is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as apnoea (central or occasionally obstructive), color change (usually cyanotic or pallid but occasionally erythematous or plethoric), significant change in muscle tone (usually marked limpness), choking, or gagging. In some cases, the observer may even fear that the infant has died.

      On the other hand, BRUE has stricter criteria and is only applicable to episodes that occur in infants under 12 months old. A BRUE is characterized by being brief (lasting less than 1 minute, typically 2-30 seconds), resolved (the infant must have returned to their baseline state), and not explained by any identifiable medical condition. It must also exhibit at least one of the following symptoms: cyanosis or pallor, absent, decreased, or irregular breathing, marked change in muscle tone (hyper- or hypotonia), or altered level of responsiveness.

      To diagnose a BRUE, a thorough history and physical examination of the infant must be conducted, and no explanation for the event should be found. Additionally, there are several risk factors associated with the development of a BRUE, including prematurity, age less than ten weeks, recent anesthesia, airway or maxillofacial abnormalities, history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, previous apnoeic episode, recent upper respiratory tract infection. Low birth weight may also be a risk factor, while high birth weight has no recognized association with BRUEs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      47.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are examining the hip X-rays of a 78-year-old woman who slipped while...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the hip X-rays of a 78-year-old woman who slipped while getting out of bed. What can be helpful in identifying a femoral neck fracture on the anteroposterior X-ray?

      Your Answer: Panginni line

      Correct Answer: Shenton's line

      Explanation:

      Shenton’s line is a useful tool for identifying hip fractures on radiographs. It is a curved line that is drawn along the bottom edge of the upper pubic bone and the inner lower edge of the femur neck. This line should be smooth and uninterrupted. If there are any breaks or irregularities in the line, it could indicate a fracture, dysplasia, or dislocation.

      Further Reading:

      Fractured neck of femur is a common injury, especially in elderly patients who have experienced a low impact fall. Risk factors for this type of fracture include falls, osteoporosis, and other bone disorders such as metastatic cancers, hyperparathyroidism, and osteomalacia.

      There are different classification systems for hip fractures, but the most important differentiation is between intracapsular and extracapsular fractures. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is primarily from ascending cervical branches that arise from an arterial anastomosis between the medial and lateral circumflex branches of the femoral arteries. Fractures in the intracapsular region can damage the blood supply and lead to avascular necrosis (AVN), with the risk increasing with displacement. The Garden classification can be used to classify intracapsular neck of femur fractures and determine the risk of AVN. Those at highest risk will typically require hip replacement or arthroplasty.

      Fractures below or distal to the capsule are termed extracapsular and can be further described as intertrochanteric or subtrochanteric depending on their location. The blood supply to the femoral neck and head is usually maintained with these fractures, making them amenable to surgery that preserves the femoral head and neck, such as dynamic hip screw fixation.

      Diagnosing hip fractures can be done through radiographs, with Shenton’s line and assessing the trabecular pattern of the proximal femur being helpful techniques. X-rays should be obtained in both the AP and lateral views, and if an occult fracture is suspected, an MRI or CT scan may be necessary.

      In terms of standards of care, it is important to assess the patient’s pain score within 15 minutes of arrival in the emergency department and provide appropriate analgesia within the recommended timeframes. Patients with moderate or severe pain should have their pain reassessed within 30 minutes of receiving analgesia. X-rays should be obtained within 120 minutes of arrival, and patients should be admitted within 4 hours of arrival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department by his parents who...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department by his parents who are worried that he may have croup. What clinical features would you expect to find in a child with croup?

      Your Answer: Barking cough worse at night

      Explanation:

      Croup is identified by a cough that sounds like a seal barking, especially worse during the night. Before the barking cough, there may be initial symptoms of a cough, runny nose, and congestion for 12 to 72 hours. Other signs of croup include a high-pitched sound when breathing (stridor), difficulty breathing (respiratory distress), and fever.

      Further Reading:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 42-year-old man has been brought into the Emergency Department (ED) experiencing seizures...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man has been brought into the Emergency Department (ED) experiencing seizures that have lasted for 40 minutes before his arrival. On arrival, he is still having a tonic-clonic seizure. He is a known epileptic and is currently taking lamotrigine for seizure prevention. He has received a single dose of rectal diazepam by the paramedics en route approximately 15 minutes ago. Upon arrival in the ED, intravenous access is established, and a dose of IV lorazepam is administered. His blood glucose level is checked and is 4.5 mmol/L.

      He continues to have seizures for the next 15 minutes. Which medication should be administered next?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin infusion

      Explanation:

      Status epilepticus is a condition characterized by continuous seizure activity lasting for 5 minutes or more without the return of consciousness, or the occurrence of recurrent seizures (2 or more) without any intervening period of neurological recovery.

      In the management of a patient with status epilepticus, if the patient has already received two doses of benzodiazepine and is still experiencing seizures, the next step should be to initiate a phenytoin infusion. This involves administering a dose of 15-18 mg/kg at a rate of 50 mg/minute. Alternatively, fosphenytoin can be used as an alternative, and a phenobarbital bolus of 10-15 mg/kg at a rate of 100 mg/minute can also be considered. It is important to note that there is no indication for the administration of intravenous glucose or thiamine in this situation.

      The management of status epilepticus involves several general measures. In the early stage (0-10 minutes), the airway should be secured and resuscitation should be performed. Oxygen should be administered and the patient’s cardiorespiratory function should be assessed. Intravenous access should also be established.

      In the second stage (0-30 minutes), regular monitoring should be instituted. It is important to consider the possibility of non-epileptic status and commence emergency antiepileptic drug (AED) therapy. Emergency investigations should be conducted, including the administration of glucose (50 ml of 50% solution) and/or intravenous thiamine if there is any suggestion of alcohol abuse or impaired nutrition. Acidosis should be treated if it is severe.

      In the third stage (0-60 minutes), the underlying cause of the status epilepticus should be identified. The anaesthetist and intensive care unit (ITU) should be alerted, and any medical complications should be identified and treated. Pressor therapy may be appropriate in certain cases.

      In the fourth stage (30-90 minutes), the patient should be transferred to the intensive care unit. Intensive care and EEG monitoring should be established, and intracranial pressure monitoring may be necessary in certain cases. Initial long-term, maintenance AED therapy should also be initiated.

      Emergency investigations should include blood tests for blood gases, glucose, renal and liver function, calcium and magnesium, full blood count (including platelets), blood clotting, and AED drug levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are with a mountain expedition group and have moved from an altitude...

    Correct

    • You are with a mountain expedition group and have moved from an altitude of 3380m to 3760 metres over the past two days. One of your group members, who is in their 50s, has become increasingly breathless over the past 6 hours and is now breathless at rest and has started coughing up blood stained sputum. The patient's observations are shown below:

      Blood pressure 148/94 mmHg
      Pulse 128 bpm
      Respiration rate 30 bpm
      Oxygen saturations 84% on air

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: High altitude pulmonary oedema

      Explanation:

      As a person ascends to higher altitudes, their risk of developing high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE) increases. This patient is displaying signs and symptoms of HAPE, including a dry cough that may progress to frothy sputum, possibly containing blood. Breathlessness, initially experienced during exertion, may progress to being present even at rest.

      Further Reading:

      High Altitude Illnesses

      Altitude & Hypoxia:
      – As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
      – Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
      – At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.

      Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
      – AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
      – Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
      – Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
      – Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
      – The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
      – Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
      – Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
      – Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.

      High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
      – HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
      – It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
      – Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
      – Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
      – Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.

      High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
      – HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
      – It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
      – Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
      – Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
      – Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65 year old male comes to the emergency department with a 24...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old male comes to the emergency department with a 24 hour history of increasing dizziness. The patient reports feeling a sensation of spinning upon waking up this morning, and it has progressively worsened throughout the day. The patient mentions that head movements exacerbate the symptoms, but even when remaining still, the spinning sensation persists. There are no complaints of hearing loss, ringing in the ears, changes in vision, or focal neurological abnormalities.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vestibular neuronitis

      Explanation:

      Vestibular neuronitis is characterized by the sudden and prolonged onset of rotational vertigo. This vertigo can occur spontaneously, upon waking up, or gradually worsen throughout the day. It is particularly aggravated by changes in head position, although it remains constant even when the head is still. Unlike other conditions, vestibular neuronitis does not cause hearing loss, tinnitus, or focal neurological deficits. On the other hand, in BPPV, episodes of vertigo are usually brief, lasting less than 20 seconds, and only occur when there is a change in head position.

      Further Reading:

      Vestibular neuritis, also known as vestibular neuronitis, is a condition characterized by sudden and prolonged vertigo of peripheral origin. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often following a viral infection. It is important to note that vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis are not the same condition, as labyrinthitis involves inflammation of the labyrinth. Vestibular neuritis typically affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 60, with a 1:1 ratio of males to females. The annual incidence is approximately 3.5 per 100,000 people, making it one of the most commonly diagnosed causes of vertigo.

      Clinical features of vestibular neuritis include nystagmus, which is a rapid, involuntary eye movement, typically in a horizontal or horizontal-torsional direction away from the affected ear. The head impulse test may also be positive. Other symptoms include spontaneous onset of rotational vertigo, which is worsened by changes in head position, as well as nausea, vomiting, and unsteadiness. These severe symptoms usually last for 2-3 days, followed by a gradual recovery over a few weeks. It is important to note that hearing is not affected in vestibular neuritis, and symptoms such as tinnitus and focal neurological deficits are not present.

      Differential diagnosis for vestibular neuritis includes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), labyrinthitis, Meniere’s disease, migraine, stroke, and cerebellar lesions. Management of vestibular neuritis involves drug treatment for nausea and vomiting associated with vertigo, typically through short courses of medication such as prochlorperazine or cyclizine. If symptoms are severe and fluids cannot be tolerated, admission and administration of IV fluids may be necessary. General advice should also be given, including avoiding driving while symptomatic, considering the suitability to work based on occupation and duties, and the increased risk of falls. Follow-up is required, and referral is necessary if there are atypical symptoms, symptoms do not improve after a week of treatment, or symptoms persist for more than 6 weeks.

      The prognosis for vestibular neuritis is generally good, with the majority of individuals fully recovering within 6 weeks. Recurrence is thought to occur in 2-11% of cases, and approximately 10% of individuals may develop BPPV following an episode of vestibular neuritis. A very rare complication of vestibular neuritis is ph

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department (ED) after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old is brought into the emergency department (ED) after experiencing a head injury. As part of the initial assessment, you evaluate the patient's Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score. In an adult patient, what is the minimum GCS score that necessitates an urgent CT scan of the head?

      Your Answer: 14

      Correct Answer: 13

      Explanation:

      In an adult patient, a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13 or lower necessitates an urgent CT scan of the head. The GCS is a neurological assessment tool that evaluates a patient’s level of consciousness and neurological functioning. It consists of three components: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Each component is assigned a score ranging from 1 to 4 or 5, with a higher score indicating a higher level of consciousness.

      A GCS score of 15 is considered normal and indicates that the patient is fully conscious. A score of 14 or 13 suggests a mild impairment in consciousness, but it may not necessarily require an urgent CT scan unless there are other concerning symptoms or signs. However, a GCS score of 11 or 9 indicates a moderate to severe impairment in consciousness, which raises concerns for a potentially serious head injury. In these cases, an urgent CT scan of the head is necessary to assess for any structural brain abnormalities or bleeding that may require immediate intervention.

      Therefore, in this case, the minimum GCS score that necessitates an urgent CT scan of the head is 13.

      Further Reading:

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
      – GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
      – GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – Post-traumatic seizure
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – > 1 episode of vomiting

      Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
      – Suspicion of non-accidental injury
      – Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
      – GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
      – Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
      – At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
      – Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
      – Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
      – New focal neurological deficit
      – For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head

      – CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
      – Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
      – Abnormal drowsiness
      – Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
      – Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height of

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old man presents with acute severe asthma. You initiate management for the...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with acute severe asthma. You initiate management for the patient, guided by the most recent BTS guidelines.

      According to the BTS guidelines, which of the following is NOT a suitable treatment?

      Your Answer: 1 hourly ipratropium bromide nebulisers

      Explanation:

      The BTS guidelines for managing acute asthma in adults provide the following recommendations:

      Oxygen:
      – It is important to give supplementary oxygen to all patients with acute severe asthma who have low levels of oxygen in their blood (hypoxemia). The goal is to maintain a blood oxygen saturation level (SpO2) between 94-98%. Even if pulse oximetry is not available, oxygen should still be administered.

      β2 agonists therapy:
      – High-dose inhaled β2 agonists should be used as the first-line treatment for patients with acute asthma. It is important to administer these medications as early as possible.
      – Intravenous β2 agonists should be reserved for patients who cannot reliably use inhaled therapy.
      – For patients with life-threatening asthma symptoms, nebulized β2 agonists driven by oxygen are recommended.
      – In cases of severe asthma that does not respond well to an initial dose of β2 agonist, continuous nebulization with an appropriate nebulizer may be considered.

      Ipratropium bromide:
      – Nebulized ipratropium bromide (0.5 mg every 4-6 hours) should be added to β2 agonist treatment for patients with acute severe or life-threatening asthma, or those who do not respond well to initial β2 agonist therapy.

      Steroid therapy:
      – Steroids should be given in adequate doses for all cases of acute asthma attacks.
      – Prednisolone should be continued at a dose of 40-50 mg daily for at least five days or until the patient recovers.

      Other therapies:
      – Nebulized magnesium is not recommended for the treatment of acute asthma in adults.
      – A single dose of intravenous magnesium sulfate may be considered for patients with acute severe asthma (peak expiratory flow rate <50% of the best or predicted value) who do not respond well to inhaled bronchodilator therapy. However, this should only be done after consulting with senior medical staff.
      – Routine prescription of antibiotics is not necessary for patients with acute asthma.

      For more information, please refer to the BTS/SIGN Guideline on the Management of Asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 4-week-old baby girl is brought in by her parents with projectile vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old baby girl is brought in by her parents with projectile vomiting. She is vomiting approximately every 45 minutes after each feed but remains hungry. On examination, she appears dehydrated, and you can palpate a small mass in the upper abdomen.

      What is the first test to be done in this case?

      Your Answer: Abdominal X-ray

      Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition characterized by the thickening and enlargement of the smooth muscle in the antrum of the stomach, leading to the narrowing of the pyloric canal. This narrowing can easily cause obstruction. It is a relatively common condition, occurring in about 1 in 500 live births, and is more frequently seen in males than females, with a ratio of 4 to 1. It is most commonly observed in first-born male children, although it can rarely occur in adults as well.

      The main symptom of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is vomiting, which typically begins between 2 to 8 weeks of age. The vomit is usually non-bilious and forcefully expelled. It tends to occur around 30 to 60 minutes after feeding, leaving the baby hungry despite the vomiting. In some cases, there may be blood in the vomit. Other clinical features include persistent hunger, dehydration, weight loss, and constipation. An enlarged pylorus, often described as olive-shaped, can be felt in the right upper quadrant or epigastric in approximately 95% of cases. This is most noticeable at the beginning of a feed.

      The typical acid-base disturbance seen in this condition is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. This occurs due to the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit, as well as decreased secretion of pancreatic bicarbonate. The increased bicarbonate ions in the distal tubule of the kidney lead to the production of alkaline urine. Hyponatremia and hypokalemia are also commonly present.

      Ultrasound scanning is the preferred diagnostic tool for infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, as it is reliable and easy to perform. It has replaced barium studies as the investigation of choice.

      Initial management involves fluid resuscitation, which should be tailored to the weight and degree of dehydration. Any electrolyte imbalances should also be corrected.

      The definitive treatment for this condition is surgical intervention, with the Ramstedt pyloromyotomy being the procedure of choice. Laparoscopic pyloromyotomy is also an effective alternative if suitable facilities are available. The prognosis for infants with this condition is excellent, as long as there is no delay in diagnosis and treatment initiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 7-year-old girl is brought into the resus room after a car accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought into the resus room after a car accident. She is struggling to breathe, and you cannot hear any breath sounds on the right side. Her trachea is shifted to the left, and her neck veins are swollen. Based on your clinical assessment, you diagnose her with a tension pneumothorax and decide to perform a needle thoracocentesis.
      Where should you perform the needle thoracocentesis?

      Your Answer: 4th intercostal space midaxillary line

      Correct Answer: 2nd intercostal space midclavicular line

      Explanation:

      A tension pneumothorax occurs when there is an air leak from the lung or chest wall that acts like a one-way valve. This causes air to build up in the pleural space without any way to escape. As a result, pressure in the pleural space increases and pushes the mediastinum into the opposite hemithorax. If left untreated, this can lead to cardiovascular instability, shock, and cardiac arrest.

      The clinical features of tension pneumothorax include respiratory distress and cardiovascular instability. Tracheal deviation away from the side of the injury, unilateral absence of breath sounds on the affected side, and a hyper-resonant percussion note are also characteristic. Other signs include distended neck veins and cyanosis, which is a late sign. It’s important to note that both tension pneumothorax and massive haemothorax can cause decreased breath sounds on auscultation. However, percussion can help differentiate between the two conditions. Hyper-resonance suggests tension pneumothorax, while dullness suggests a massive haemothorax.

      Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis and should not be delayed for radiological confirmation. Requesting a chest X-ray in this situation can delay treatment and put the patient at risk. Immediate decompression through needle thoracocentesis is the recommended treatment. Traditionally, a large-bore needle or cannula is inserted into the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line of the affected hemithorax. However, studies on cadavers have shown better success in reaching the thoracic cavity when the 4th or 5th intercostal space in the midaxillary line is used in adult patients. ATLS now recommends this location for needle decompression in adults. The site for needle thoracocentesis in children remains the same, using the 2nd intercostal space in the midclavicular line. It’s important to remember that needle thoracocentesis is a temporary measure, and the insertion of a chest drain is the definitive treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is injured in a car crash and sustains severe facial trauma. Imaging tests show that she has a Le Fort II fracture.
      What is the most accurate description of the injury pattern seen in a Le Fort II fracture?

      Your Answer: Vertical fracture through the maxilla and mandible

      Correct Answer: Pyramidal-shaped fracture, with the teeth at the base of the pyramid and the nasofrontal suture at the apex

      Explanation:

      Le Fort fractures are complex fractures of the midface that involve the maxillary bone and surrounding structures. These fractures can occur in a horizontal, pyramidal, or transverse direction. The distinguishing feature of Le Fort fractures is the traumatic separation of the pterygomaxillary region. They make up approximately 10% to 20% of all facial fractures and can have severe consequences, both in terms of potential life-threatening injuries and disfigurement.

      The Le Fort classification system categorizes midface fractures into three groups based on the plane of injury. As the classification level increases, the location of the maxillary fracture moves from inferior to superior within the maxilla.

      Le Fort I fractures are horizontal fractures that occur across the lower aspect of the maxilla. These fractures cause the teeth to separate from the upper face and extend through the lower nasal septum, the lateral wall of the maxillary sinus, and into the palatine bones and pterygoid plates. They are sometimes referred to as a floating palate because they often result in the mobility of the hard palate from the midface. Common accompanying symptoms include facial swelling, loose teeth, dental fractures, and misalignment of the teeth.

      Le Fort II fractures are pyramidal-shaped fractures, with the base of the pyramid located at the level of the teeth and the apex at the nasofrontal suture. The fracture line extends from the nasal bridge and passes through the superior wall of the maxilla, the lacrimal bones, the inferior orbital floor and rim, and the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus. These fractures are sometimes called a floating maxilla because they typically result in the mobility of the maxilla from the midface. Common symptoms include facial swelling, nosebleeds, subconjunctival hemorrhage, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the nose, and widening and flattening of the nasal bridge.

      Le Fort III fractures are transverse fractures of the midface. The fracture line passes through the nasofrontal suture, the maxillo frontal suture, the orbital wall, and the zygomatic arch and zygomaticofrontal suture. These fractures cause separation of all facial bones from the cranial base, earning them the nickname craniofacial disjunction or floating face fractures. They are the rarest and most severe type of Le Fort fracture. Common symptoms include significant facial swelling, bruising around the eyes, facial flattening, and the entire face can be shifted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      12.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You are asked to assess an older patient who has fainted. They have...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess an older patient who has fainted. They have a bradyarrhythmia evident on their ECG, and you determine to administer a dose of atropine.
      Which ONE statement about the use of atropine is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is recommended in the treatment of haemodynamically stable bradycardias

      Correct Answer: It blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA and AV nodes

      Explanation:

      Atropine acts as an antagonist to the parasympathetic neurotransmitter acetylcholine at muscarinic receptors. This means that it blocks the effects of the vagus nerve on both the SA node and the AV node, resulting in increased sinus automaticity and improved AV node conduction.

      The side effects of atropine are dependent on the dosage and may include dry mouth, nausea and vomiting, blurred vision, urinary retention, and tachyarrhythmias. Elderly patients may also experience acute confusion and hallucinations.

      Atropine is recommended for use in cases of sinus, atrial, or nodal bradycardia or AV block when the patient’s hemodynamic condition is unstable due to the bradycardia. According to the ALS bradycardia algorithm, an initial dose of 500 mcg IV is suggested if any adverse features such as shock, syncope, myocardial ischemia, or heart failure are present. If this initial dose is unsuccessful, additional 500 mcg doses can be administered at 3-5 minute intervals, with a maximum dose of 3 mg. It is important to avoid doses exceeding 3 mg as they can paradoxically slow the heart rate.

      Asystole during cardiac arrest is typically caused by primary myocardial pathology rather than excessive vagal tone. Therefore, there is no evidence supporting the routine use of atropine in the treatment of asystole or PEA. Consequently, atropine is no longer included in the non-shockable part of the ALS algorithm.

      Aside from its use in cardiac conditions, atropine also has other applications. It can be used topically in the eyes as a cycloplegic and mydriatic, to reduce secretions during anesthesia, and in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A middle-aged man who lives alone is brought in by ambulance; he is...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged man who lives alone is brought in by ambulance; he is drowsy, vomiting and complaining of a headache. There is currently a summer heatwave, and you suspect a diagnosis of heat stroke.

      What is the threshold temperature used in the definition of heat stroke?

      Your Answer: Above 40.6°C

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a systemic inflammatory response, where the core body temperature rises above 40.6°C. It is accompanied by alterations in mental state and varying degrees of organ dysfunction.

      There are two types of heat stroke. The first is classic non-exertional heat stroke, which occurs when individuals are exposed to high environmental temperatures. This form of heat stroke is commonly seen in elderly patients during heat waves.

      The second type is exertional heat stroke, which occurs during intense physical activity in hot weather conditions. This form of heat stroke is often observed in endurance athletes who participate in strenuous exercise in high temperatures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
    Which characteristic is considered...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
      Which characteristic is considered to be a ‘B’ symptom of Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

      Your Answer: Night sweats

      Explanation:

      The ‘B’ symptoms associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma include fever, night sweats, and weight loss. Fever is defined as a body temperature exceeding 38 degrees Celsius. Night sweats refer to excessive sweating during sleep. Weight loss is considered significant if it amounts to more than 10% of a person’s body weight over a period of six months. It is important to note that pain after consuming alcohol is a distinctive sign of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it is not classified as a ‘B’ symptom. This symptom is relatively rare, occurring in only 2-3% of individuals diagnosed with Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25 year old male with severe thoracic trauma is brought into the...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old male with severe thoracic trauma is brought into the emergency department. A FAST scan is conducted and cardiac tamponade is identified. The attending physician requests you to carry out a pericardiocentesis. Which of the following accurately describes the anatomical landmark utilized for inserting the needle during this procedure?

      Your Answer: Skin punctured 1-2 cm below and just to the left of the xiphisternum

      Explanation:

      During pericardiocentesis, a needle is inserted approximately 1-2 cm below and to the left of the xiphisternum. The procedure involves the following steps:
      1. Prepare the skin and administer local anesthesia, if time permits.
      2. Ensure ECG monitoring is in place.
      3. Puncture the skin using a long 16-18g catheter, 1-2 cm below and to the left of the xiphisternum.
      4. Advance the catheter towards the tip of the left scapula at a 45-degree angle to the skin.
      5. Aspirate fluid from the pericardium while monitoring the ECG for any signs of injury.
      6. Once blood from the pericardium is aspirated, leave the catheter in place with a 3-way tap until a formal thoracotomy can be performed.
      It is important to note that knowledge of pericardiocentesis is included in the CEM syllabus, although the RCEM may recommend direct thoracotomy as the preferred approach.

      Further Reading:

      Cardiac tamponade, also known as pericardial tamponade, occurs when fluid accumulates in the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, leading to compromised blood flow. Classic clinical signs of cardiac tamponade include distended neck veins, hypotension, muffled heart sounds, and pulseless electrical activity (PEA). Diagnosis is typically done through a FAST scan or an echocardiogram.

      Management of cardiac tamponade involves assessing for other injuries, administering IV fluids to reduce preload, performing pericardiocentesis (inserting a needle into the pericardial cavity to drain fluid), and potentially performing a thoracotomy. It is important to note that untreated expanding cardiac tamponade can progress to PEA cardiac arrest.

      Pericardiocentesis can be done using the subxiphoid approach or by inserting a needle between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border. Echo guidance is the gold standard for pericardiocentesis, but it may not be available in a resuscitation situation. Complications of pericardiocentesis include ST elevation or ventricular ectopics, myocardial perforation, bleeding, pneumothorax, arrhythmia, acute pulmonary edema, and acute ventricular dilatation.

      It is important to note that pericardiocentesis is typically used as a temporary measure until a thoracotomy can be performed. Recent articles published on the RCEM learning platform suggest that pericardiocentesis has a low success rate and may delay thoracotomy, so it is advised against unless there are no other options available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Resus
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old man has had discoloured teeth since taking a medication in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has had discoloured teeth since taking a medication in his youth. Upon examination, visible greyish-brown horizontal stripes can be observed across all of his teeth.
      Which SINGLE medication is most likely responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline antibiotics, such as tetracycline and doxycycline, have the potential to cause staining on permanent teeth while they are still forming beneath the gum line. This staining occurs when the drug becomes calcified within the tooth during its development. It is important to note that children are vulnerable to tetracycline-related tooth staining until approximately the age of 8. Additionally, pregnant women should avoid taking tetracycline as it can affect the development of teeth in the unborn child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old engineering student returns from a hiking trip in South America with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old engineering student returns from a hiking trip in South America with a high temperature, body pains, and shivering. After further examination, they are diagnosed with malaria.

      Which of the following statements about malaria is correct?

      Your Answer: Plasmodium vivax is usually treated with quinine

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment is suggestive of Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium ovale has the longest incubation period, which can extend up to 40 days. On the other hand, Plasmodium falciparum has a shorter incubation period of 7-14 days. The transmission of malaria occurs through the female mosquitoes belonging to the Anopheles genus.

      Blackwater fever, which is caused by Plasmodium falciparum, can be indicated by the presence of haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment. This condition is a result of an autoimmune reaction between the parasite and quinine, leading to haemolysis, haemoglobinuria, jaundice, and renal failure. It is a potentially fatal complication. The diagnosis of malaria is typically done using the Indirect Fluorescence Antibody Test (IFAT).

      Currently, the recommended treatment for P. falciparum malaria is artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT). This involves combining fast-acting artemisinin-based compounds with a drug from a different class. Some companion drugs used in ACT include lumefantrine, mefloquine, amodiaquine, sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine, piperaquine, and chlorproguanil/dapsone. Artemisinin derivatives such as dihydroartemisinin, artesunate, and artemether are also used.

      In cases where artemisinin combination therapy is not available, oral quinine or atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride can be used as an alternative. However, quinine is highly effective but not well-tolerated in prolonged treatment, so it is usually combined with another drug, typically oral doxycycline (or clindamycin in pregnant women and young children).

      Severe or complicated falciparum malaria requires management in a high dependency unit or intensive care setting. Intravenous artesunate is recommended for all patients with severe or complicated falciparum malaria, or those at high risk of developing severe disease (e.g., if more than 2% of red blood cells are parasitized), or if the patient is unable to take oral treatment. After a minimum of 24 hours of intravenous artesunate treatment and improvement in the patient’s condition, a full course of artemisinin combination therapy should be administered orally.

      The benign malarias, namely P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. ovale,

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      41.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old artist returns from a vacation in Thailand with a severely painful...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old artist returns from a vacation in Thailand with a severely painful and red right eye. The symptoms appeared rapidly within a day, and the eye now has excessive mucopurulent discharge and swelling of the eyelid. During the examination, tender pre-auricular lymphadenopathy is observed on the right side. Upon further inquiry, the patient confesses to having visited a sex worker during their trip to Thailand.

      Which of the following antibiotics would be the most suitable to prescribe for this individual?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Sexually transmitted eye infections can be quite severe and are often characterized by prolonged mucopurulent discharge. There are two main causes of these infections: Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoea. Differentiating between the two can be done by considering certain features.

      Chlamydia trachomatis infection typically presents with chronic low-grade irritation and mucous discharge that lasts for more than two weeks in sexually active individuals. It may also be accompanied by pre-auricular lymphadenopathy. This type of infection is usually unilateral but can sometimes affect both eyes.

      On the other hand, Neisseria gonorrhoea infection tends to develop rapidly, usually within 12 to 24 hours. It is characterized by copious mucopurulent discharge, eyelid swelling, and tender preauricular lymphadenopathy. This type of infection carries a higher risk of complications, such as uveitis, severe keratitis, and corneal perforation.

      Based on the patient’s symptoms, it appears that they are more consistent with a Neisseria gonorrhoea infection. The rapid onset, copious discharge, and tender preauricular lymphadenopathy are indicative of this type of infection.

      Treatment for gonococcal conjunctivitis in adults is typically based on limited research. However, a study has shown that all 12 patients responded well to a single 1 g intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone, along with a single episode of ocular lavage with saline.

      In summary, sexually transmitted eye infections can be caused by either Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoea. Differentiating between the two is important in order to provide appropriate treatment. The patient in this case exhibits symptoms that align more closely with a Neisseria gonorrhoea infection, which carries a higher risk of complications. Treatment options for gonococcal conjunctivitis are limited, but a single injection of ceftriaxone has shown positive results in previous studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 5 year old child is brought to the emergency department by worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old child is brought to the emergency department by worried parents due to a foul smelling purulent discharge from the right ear and intermittent sneezing for the past 3 days.

      What condition should be considered in this child?

      Your Answer: Ethmoid sinusitis

      Correct Answer: Nasal foreign body

      Explanation:

      The most common sign of a foreign body (FB) in the nose in children is unilateral purulent nasal discharge. This discharge may have a foul smell. It is important to note that children often deny putting foreign bodies in their nose due to fear of getting in trouble. Purulent nasal discharge is more likely to occur with organic FBs, as they can absorb water and minerals, creating a breeding ground for bacterial colonization and infection. This type of discharge is more likely to occur after the FB has been in the nose for a few days.

      Further Reading:

      Foreign bodies in the ear or nose are a common occurrence, especially in children between the ages of 2 and 8. Foreign bodies in the ear are more common than those in the nose. Symptoms of foreign bodies in the ear may include ear pain, a feeling of fullness, impaired hearing, discharge, tinnitus, and vertigo. It is important to consider referral to an ENT specialist for the removal of potentially harmful foreign bodies such as glass, sharp objects, button batteries, and tightly wedged items. ENT involvement is also necessary if there is a perforation of the eardrum or if the foreign body is embedded in the eardrum.

      When preparing a patient for removal, it is important to establish rapport and keep the patient relaxed, especially if they are a young child. The patient should be positioned comfortably and securely, and ear drops may be used to anesthetize the ear. Removal methods for foreign bodies in the ear include the use of forceps or a hook, irrigation (except for batteries, perforations, or organic material), suction, and magnets for ferrous metal foreign bodies. If there is an insect in the ear, it should be killed with alcohol, lignocaine, or mineral oil before removal.

      After the foreign body is removed, it is important to check for any residual foreign bodies and to discharge the patient with appropriate safety net advice. Prophylactic antibiotic drops may be considered if there has been an abrasion of the skin.

      Foreign bodies in the nose are less common but should be dealt with promptly due to the risk of posterior dislodgement into the airway. Symptoms of foreign bodies in the nose may include nasal discharge, sinusitis, nasal pain, epistaxis, or blood-stained discharge. Most nasal foreign bodies are found on the anterior or middle third of the nose and may not show up on x-rays.

      Methods for removing foreign bodies from the nose include the mother’s kiss technique, suction, forceps, Jobson horne probe, and foley catheter. The mother’s kiss technique involves occluding the patent nostril and having a parent blow into the patient’s mouth. A foley catheter can be used by inserting it past the foreign body and inflating the balloon to gently push the foreign body out. ENT referral may be necessary if the foreign body cannot be visualized but there is a high suspicion, if attempts to remove the foreign body have failed, if the patient requires sed

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You review a 30-year-old man who presents with an acute exacerbation of asthma...

    Correct

    • You review a 30-year-old man who presents with an acute exacerbation of asthma and consider ordering a chest X-ray.
      Which of the following is NOT a reason to perform a chest X-ray in the evaluation of acute asthma?

      Your Answer: Acute severe asthma

      Explanation:

      Chest X-rays are not typically recommended as a routine investigation for acute asthma. However, they may be necessary in specific situations. These situations include suspected pneumomediastinum or consolidation, as well as cases of life-threatening asthma. Additionally, if a patient fails to respond adequately to treatment or requires ventilation, a chest X-ray may be performed. It is important to note that these circumstances warrant the use of chest X-rays, but they are not routinely indicated for the investigation of acute asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old man comes in with a dry cough that has been going...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man comes in with a dry cough that has been going on for a week. He also complains of muscle aches, fatigue, and a sore throat. In the past day, he has developed diarrhea and a mild throbbing headache. During the examination, his temperature is measured at 37.8°C, and faint crackles are heard at the base of his lungs.

      What is the SINGLE most probable organism responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      This patient is displaying symptoms and signs that are consistent with an atypical pneumonia, most likely caused by an infection from Mycoplasma pneumoniae. The clinical features commonly associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection include a flu-like illness that occurs before respiratory symptoms, fever, myalgia, headache, diarrhea, and cough (initially dry but often becoming productive). Focal chest signs typically develop later in the course of the illness. It is worth noting that Mycoplasma pneumoniae is frequently linked to the development of erythema multiforme and can also be a cause of Steven-Johnson syndrome. The rash associated with erythema multiforme is characterized by multiple red lesions on the limbs that develop into target lesions a few days after the rash first appears.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      14.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with facial swelling that worsens when she eats....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with facial swelling that worsens when she eats. You suspect she may have sialolithiasis.
      Which salivary gland is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Minor salivary gland

      Correct Answer: Submandibular gland

      Explanation:

      Sialolithiasis is a medical condition characterized by the formation of a calcified stone, known as a sialolith, within one of the salivary glands. The submandibular gland, specifically Wharton’s duct, is the site of approximately 90% of these occurrences, while the parotid gland accounts for most of the remaining cases. In rare instances, sialoliths may also develop in the sublingual gland or minor salivary glands.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      27.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old girl is hit by a car while crossing the street. She...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is hit by a car while crossing the street. She is brought to the resus area of your Emergency Department by a blue light ambulance. A trauma call is initiated, and a primary survey is conducted. She is stable hemodynamically, and the only abnormality found is a significantly swollen and deformed left thigh area. An X-ray is taken, which shows a fracture in the proximal femoral shaft. The child is experiencing intense pain, and you prepare to apply skin traction to immobilize the fracture.
      What percentage of the child's body weight should be applied to the skin traction?

      Your Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      Femoral shaft fractures are quite common among children and have a significant impact on both the child and their family. It is important to carefully examine children with these fractures for any associated injuries, such as soft-tissue injury, head trauma, or additional fractures. In fact, up to 40% of children who experience a femoral shaft fracture due to high-energy trauma may have these associated injuries. Additionally, a thorough neurovascular examination should be conducted.

      Rapidly immobilizing the limb is crucial for managing pain and limiting further blood loss from the fracture. For distal femoral shaft fractures, well-padded long leg splints with split plaster casts can be applied. However, for more proximal shaft fractures, long leg splints alone may not provide adequate control. In these cases, skin traction is a better option. Skin traction involves attaching a large foam pad to the patient’s lower leg using spray adhesive. A weight, approximately 10% of the child’s body weight, is then applied to the foam pad and allowed to hang over the foot of the bed. This constant longitudinal traction helps keep the bone fragments aligned.

      When children experience severe pain, it is important to manage it aggressively yet safely. Immobilizing the fracture can provide significant relief. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine recommends other pain control measures for children, such as intranasal diamorphine (0.1 mg/kg in 0.2 ml sterile water), intravenous morphine (0.1-0.2 mg/kg), and oral analgesia (e.g., paracetamol 20 mg/kg, max 1 g, and ibuprofen 10 mg/kg, max 400 mg).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 30 year old patient is brought to the emergency department by bystanders...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old patient is brought to the emergency department by bystanders after a hit and run incident. Upon examination, you observe that the patient is experiencing difficulty breathing and has tracheal deviation towards the left side. Based on these findings, you suspect the presence of a tension pneumothorax. What signs would you anticipate observing in this patient?

      Your Answer: Absent breath sounds on left side

      Correct Answer: Elevated jugular venous pressure

      Explanation:

      Tension pneumothorax is a condition characterized by certain clinical signs. These signs include pulsus paradoxus, which is an abnormal decrease in blood pressure during inspiration; elevated JVP or distended neck veins; diaphoresis or excessive sweating; and cyanosis, which is a bluish discoloration of the skin. Tracheal deviation to the left is often observed in patients with a right-sided pneumothorax. On the affected side, hyper-resonance and absent breath sounds can be expected. Patients with tension pneumothorax typically appear agitated and distressed, and they experience noticeable difficulty in breathing. Hypotension, a pulse rate exceeding 135 bpm, pulsus paradoxus, and elevated JVP are additional signs associated with tension pneumothorax. These signs occur because the expanding pneumothorax compresses the mediastinum, leading to impaired venous return and cardiac output.

      Further Reading:

      A pneumothorax is an abnormal collection of air in the pleural cavity of the lung. It can be classified by cause as primary spontaneous, secondary spontaneous, or traumatic. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs without any obvious cause in the absence of underlying lung disease, while secondary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs in patients with significant underlying lung diseases. Traumatic pneumothorax is caused by trauma to the lung, often from blunt or penetrating chest wall injuries.

      Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition where the collection of air in the pleural cavity expands and compresses normal lung tissue and mediastinal structures. It can be caused by any of the aforementioned types of pneumothorax. Immediate management of tension pneumothorax involves the ABCDE approach, which includes ensuring a patent airway, controlling the C-spine, providing supplemental oxygen, establishing IV access for fluid resuscitation, and assessing and managing other injuries.

      Treatment of tension pneumothorax involves needle thoracocentesis as a temporary measure to provide immediate decompression, followed by tube thoracostomy as definitive management. Needle thoracocentesis involves inserting a 14g cannula into the pleural space, typically via the 4th or 5th intercostal space midaxillary line. If the patient is peri-arrest, immediate thoracostomy is advised.

      The pathophysiology of tension pneumothorax involves disruption to the visceral or parietal pleura, allowing air to flow into the pleural space. This can occur through an injury to the lung parenchyma and visceral pleura, or through an entry wound to the external chest wall in the case of a sucking pneumothorax. Injured tissue forms a one-way valve, allowing air to enter the pleural space with inhalation but prohibiting air outflow. This leads to a progressive increase in the volume of non-absorbable intrapleural air with each inspiration, causing pleural volume and pressure to rise within the affected hemithorax.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department by his wife after...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department by his wife after taking an overdose of paracetamol. The patient claims that he wants to end it all and refuses to stay in the hospital for treatment. His wife insists that he must be treated because he is not thinking clearly.

      Which medication is the primary treatment for paracetamol overdose in an inpatient setting?

      Your Answer: Acetylcysteine

      Explanation:

      Paracetamol overdose is the most common overdose in the U.K. and is also the leading cause of acute liver failure. The liver damage occurs due to a metabolite of paracetamol called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI), which depletes the liver’s glutathione stores and directly harms liver cells. Severe liver damage and even death can result from an overdose of more than 12 g or > 150 mg/kg body weight.

      The clinical manifestations of paracetamol overdose can be divided into four stages:

      Stage 1 (0-24 hours): Patients may not show any symptoms, but common signs include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal discomfort.

      Stage 2 (24-48 hours): Right upper quadrant pain and tenderness develop, along with the possibility of hypoglycemia and reduced consciousness.

      Stage 3 (48-96 hours): Hepatic failure begins, characterized by jaundice, coagulopathy, and encephalopathy. Loin pain, haematuria, and proteinuria may indicate early renal failure.

      Stage 4 (> 96 hours): Hepatic failure worsens progressively, leading to cerebral edema, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and ultimately death.

      The earliest and most sensitive indicator of liver damage is a prolonged INR, which starts to rise approximately 24 hours after the overdose. Liver function tests (LFTs) typically remain normal until 18 hours after the overdose. However, AST and ALT levels then sharply increase and can exceed 10,000 units/L by 72-96 hours. Bilirubin levels rise more slowly and peak around 5 days.

      The primary treatment for paracetamol overdose is acetylcysteine. Acetylcysteine is a highly effective antidote, but its efficacy diminishes rapidly if administered more than 8 hours after a significant ingestion. Ingestions exceeding 75 mg/kg are considered significant.

      Acetylcysteine should be given based on a 4-hour level or administered empirically if the presentation occurs more than 8 hours after a significant overdose. If the overdose is staggered or the timing is uncertain, empirical treatment is also recommended. The treatment regimen is as follows:

      – First dose: 150 mg/kg in 200 mL 5% glucose over 1 hour
      – Second dose 50 mg/kg in 500 mL 5% glucose over 4 hours
      – Third dose 100 mg/kg in 1000 mL 5% glucose over 16 hours

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old individual comes in with a recent onset of low back pain...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old individual comes in with a recent onset of low back pain that is more severe in the mornings. They mention that their mother has ankylosing spondylitis and express concern about the possibility of having the same condition.
      Which of the following is NOT a red flag characteristic that suggests spondyloarthritis as the underlying cause of back pain?

      Your Answer: Progressive neurological deficit

      Explanation:

      Spondyloarthritis is a term that encompasses various inflammatory conditions affecting both the joints and the sites where ligaments and tendons attach to the bones, known as entheses. The primary cause of spondyloarthritis is ankylosing spondylitis, but it can also be caused by reactive arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, and enteropathic arthropathies.

      If individuals under the age of 45 exhibit four or more of the following symptoms, they should be referred for a potential diagnosis of spondyloarthritis:
      – Presence of low back pain and being younger than 35 years old
      – Waking up in the second half of the night due to pain
      – Experiencing buttock pain
      – Pain that improves with movement or within 48 hours of using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
      – Having a first-degree relative with spondyloarthritis
      – History of current or past arthritis, psoriasis, or enthesitis

      It is important to note that a progressive neurological deficit would be an atypical presentation for spondyloarthritis and may instead indicate cauda equina syndrome (CES).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
      81.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old man with a known history of Alzheimer's disease and a previous...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a known history of Alzheimer's disease and a previous heart attack experiences urinary incontinence and a sudden decline in his cognitive function. He denies experiencing any abdominal pain or discomfort while urinating.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI) can be difficult to detect in elderly patients, especially those with dementia. Common signs like painful urination and abdominal discomfort may be absent. Instead, these patients often experience increased confusion, restlessness, and a decline in cognitive abilities. Therefore, if an elderly patient suddenly develops urinary incontinence and experiences a rapid deterioration in cognitive function, it is highly likely that they have a UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      39.2
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology & Poisoning (1/3) 33%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (2/2) 100%
Elderly Care / Frailty (1/2) 50%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Environmental Emergencies (2/2) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/3) 33%
Respiratory (2/4) 50%
Neonatal Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Maxillofacial & Dental (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Resus (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Pain & Sedation (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic) (1/1) 100%
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