00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner for a consultation. She has just been diagnosed with Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1 and has developed a rash that is consistent with erythema multiforme.
      What is the most probable finding in this patient?

      Your Answer: Intense itching

      Correct Answer: Target lesions with a central blister

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Erythema multiforme is a self-limiting skin condition that is characterized by sharply demarcated, round, red or pink macules that evolve into papular plaques. The lesions typically develop a central blister or crust and a surrounding paler pink ring that is raised due to oedema, creating the classic target appearance. However, atypical targets may also occur, with just two zones and/or an indistinct border. Mucous membranes may also be involved.

      The most common cause of erythema multiforme is Herpes Simplex Virus Type 1, followed by Mycoplasma, although many other viruses have been reported to cause the eruption. Drugs are an infrequent cause, and conditions such as Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis are now considered distinct from erythema multiforme.

      Unlike monomorphic eruptions, the lesions in erythema multiforme are polymorphous, meaning they take on many forms. The rash may also involve the palms and soles, although this is not always the case. While there may be a mild itch associated with the condition, intense itching is more commonly seen in Chickenpox in children.

      Lesions in erythema multiforme typically start on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet and spread along the limbs towards the trunk. The condition usually resolves without complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      118.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man presents with a skin lesion on his anterior chest wall....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a skin lesion on his anterior chest wall. He reports that he noticed it about four weeks ago and it has grown in size so he has come to get it checked. It is not causing the patient any symptoms.

      On examination there is a pigmented lesion which is 5 mm in diameter. It is two-tone with a dark brown portion and an almost black portion. The lesion has an irregular notched border and is asymmetrical.

      You are unsure of the diagnosis.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to a dermatologist as a suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      The ABCDEF Checklist for Assessing Suspicious Pigmented Lesions

      The ABCDEF checklist is a useful tool for assessing suspicious pigmented lesions, particularly for identifying potential melanomas. The checklist includes six criteria: asymmetry, irregular border, irregular colour, dark or diameter greater than 6 mm, evolutionary change, and funny looking.

      Asymmetry refers to a lack of mirror image in any of the quadrants when the lesion is divided into four quadrants. Irregular border and irregular colour are self-explanatory, with irregular colour indicating at least two different colours in the lesion and lack of even pigmentation throughout the lesion being particularly suspicious. Dark or diameter greater than 6 mm refers to the size and colour of the lesion, with blue or black colour being particularly concerning. Evolutionary change refers to changes in size, colour, shape, or elevation.

      The presence of any one of these criteria should raise suspicion of melanoma and prompt urgent referral to a dermatologist. Additionally, the funny looking criterion, also known as the ugly duckling sign, should be considered. This refers to a mole that appears different from the rest, even if ABCD and E criteria are absent.

      Overall, the ABCDEF checklist is a valuable tool for identifying potentially cancerous pigmented lesions and ensuring prompt referral for specialist assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25 year old woman presents to you with worries about a lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old woman presents to you with worries about a lesion on the dorsal side of her left hand that has grown in size over the last six months. She reports that it disappeared during the summer but has now reappeared. The lesion is asymptomatic. On examination, you observe an annular plaque without any scaling. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica

      Correct Answer: Granuloma annulare

      Explanation:

      A common presentation of granuloma annulare involves the development of circular lesions on the skin. In contrast, tinea often presents as a rash with scales.

      Understanding Granuloma Annulare

      Granuloma annulare is a skin condition characterized by papular lesions that are slightly hyperpigmented and depressed in the center. These lesions typically appear on the dorsal surfaces of the hands and feet, as well as on the extensor aspects of the arms and legs. While there have been associations proposed between granuloma annulare and conditions such as diabetes mellitus, the evidence for these links is weak.

      Despite the lack of clear associations with other conditions, granuloma annulare can still be a frustrating and uncomfortable condition for those who experience it. The lesions can be unsightly and may cause itching or discomfort. Treatment options for granuloma annulare include topical or oral medications, as well as light therapy in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 70-year-old man who is experiencing an issue with his penis. He has been unable to retract his foreskin for a few years now, and the tip of his penis is quite sore. He also reports a foul odor. Apart from this, he is in good health. He believes that this problem developed gradually over several years.

      During the examination, you observe that the man is not circumcised, and there is a tight white ring around the tip of his foreskin. The glans penis is barely visible through the end of the foreskin, and it appears to be inflamed.

      What is the specific condition responsible for causing this man's balanitis?

      Your Answer: Circinate balanitis

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lichen Sclerosus

      Lichen sclerosus, previously known as lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, is an inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genitalia, particularly in elderly females. It is characterized by the formation of white plaques that lead to atrophy of the epidermis. The condition can cause discomfort, with itch being a prominent symptom. Pain during intercourse or urination may also occur.

      Diagnosis of lichen sclerosus is usually based on clinical examination, although a biopsy may be necessary if atypical features are present. Treatment typically involves the use of topical steroids and emollients. However, patients with lichen sclerosus are at an increased risk of developing vulval cancer, so regular follow-up is recommended.

      According to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, skin biopsy is not necessary for diagnosis unless the woman fails to respond to treatment or there is clinical suspicion of cancer. The British Association of Dermatologists also advises that biopsy is not always essential when the clinical features are typical, but it is advisable if there are atypical features or diagnostic uncertainty. Biopsy is mandatory if there is any suspicion of neoplastic change. Patients under routine follow-up will need a biopsy if there is a suspicion of neoplastic change, if the disease fails to respond to treatment, if there is extragenital LS, if there are pigmented areas, or if second-line therapy is to be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of cracked and peeling feet...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of cracked and peeling feet for the past 3 weeks. Her soles appear shiny and glazed, but her heels are not affected. The web spaces between her toes are also spared. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Juvenile plantar dermatosis

      Explanation:

      It is crucial to correctly diagnose juvenile plantar dermatosis as it can be misidentified as athlete’s foot, and therefore requires different treatment.

      Juvenile plantar dermatosis is a prevalent condition that causes dry skin on the feet in children and adolescents, typically affecting those aged 3 to 14, although it can occur in individuals of any age. One key distinguishing factor is that juvenile plantar dermatosis spares the web spaces, whereas tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) commonly affects these areas.

      The initial treatment for juvenile plantar dermatosis involves using moisturizing cream at night and barrier cream during the day. Additionally, patients can be advised to reduce friction by wearing well-fitting shoes, two pairs of cotton socks, and changing socks frequently.

      Eczema typically presents as scaly, red patches in flexor creases, such as the elbow or knee.

      Contact dermatitis may appear similar to juvenile plantar dermatosis, but there would be a history of exposure to a potential trigger.

      In summary, accurately diagnosing juvenile plantar dermatosis is crucial to ensure appropriate treatment is provided, as it can be mistaken for other conditions such as athlete’s foot.

      Understanding Athlete’s Foot

      Athlete’s foot, medically known as tinea pedis, is a common fungal infection that affects the skin on the feet. It is caused by fungi in the Trichophyton genus and is characterized by scaling, flaking, and itching between the toes. The condition is highly contagious and can spread through contact with infected surfaces or people.

      To treat athlete’s foot, clinical knowledge summaries recommend using a topical imidazole, undecenoate, or terbinafine as a first-line treatment. These medications work by killing the fungi responsible for the infection and relieving symptoms. It is important to maintain good foot hygiene and avoid sharing personal items such as socks and shoes to prevent the spread of the infection. With proper treatment and prevention measures, athlete’s foot can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of skin lesion usually goes away on its own without requiring any treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Granuloma Annulare and Actinic Keratoses

      Granuloma annulare is a common skin condition that is characterized by palpable annular lesions that can appear anywhere on the body. The cause of this condition is unknown, and it is rarely associated with diabetes. In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the lesions will resolve on their own within a year.

      On the other hand, actinic keratoses are rough, scaly lesions that develop on sun-damaged skin. These lesions can also be a precursor to squamous cell carcinoma. Treatment options for actinic keratoses include cryotherapy, topical 5-fluorouracil (Efudix), topical diclofenac (Solaraze), excision, and curettage. While spontaneous regression of actinic keratoses is possible, it is not common.

      In summary, both granuloma annulare and actinic keratoses are skin conditions that require different approaches to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - During a 4-week baby check, you observe a flat, pink-colored, vascular skin lesion...

    Incorrect

    • During a 4-week baby check, you observe a flat, pink-colored, vascular skin lesion measuring 30x20mm over the baby's nape. The lesion blanches on pressure and has been present since birth without any significant changes. The baby is developing normally. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salmon patch

      Explanation:

      Salmon patches are a type of birthmark caused by excess blood vessels, but they typically go away on their own. If a person has a flat birthmark that was present from birth, it could only be a port-wine stain or a salmon patch. Salmon patches are more common and often appear as a pink discoloration on the back of the neck. Atopic dermatitis, a type of eczema, doesn’t appear at birth but may develop later in life, often on the neck and other areas that bend. Strawberry birthmarks, on the other hand, usually appear shortly after birth and are raised above the skin’s surface. They can either disappear, shrink, or remain the same over time.

      Understanding Salmon Patches in Newborns

      Salmon patches, also known as stork marks or stork bites, are a type of birthmark that can be found in approximately 50% of newborn babies. These marks are characterized by their pink and blotchy appearance and are commonly found on the forehead, eyelids, and nape of the neck. While they may cause concern for new parents, salmon patches typically fade over the course of a few months. However, marks on the neck may persist. These birthmarks are caused by an overgrowth of blood vessels and are completely harmless. It is important for parents to understand that salmon patches are a common occurrence in newborns and do not require any medical treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of epilepsy and was started on phenytoin three weeks ago. One week ago, he developed mouth ulcers, malaise, and a cough. Two days ago, he developed a widespread red rash that has now formed large fluid-filled blisters, covering approximately 30% of his body area. The lesions separate when slight pressure is applied. On examination, his temperature is 38.3ºC and pulse is 126/min. His blood results show:

      - Na+ 144 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      - Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
      - Urea 13.4 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 121 µmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. The condition causes the skin to appear scalded over a large area and is considered by some to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include feeling unwell, a high temperature, and a rapid heartbeat. Additionally, the skin may separate with mild lateral pressure, a sign known as Nikolsky’s sign.

      Several drugs are known to cause TEN, including phenytoin, sulphonamides, allopurinol, penicillins, carbamazepine, and NSAIDs. If TEN is suspected, the first step is to stop the use of the drug that is causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Electrolyte derangement and volume loss are potential complications that need to be monitored. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment that has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents such as ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.

      In summary, TEN is a severe skin disorder that can be caused by certain drugs. It is important to recognize the symptoms and stop the use of the drug causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment, and other options include immunosuppressive agents and plasmapheresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a rash that came on about two weeks ago.

      She tells you that it started with some 'itchy red lumps around the belly-button' and has progressed. She has an itchy blistering rash that is most prominent around her umbilicus, but over the last few days has spread to the surrounding trunk, back and proximal limbs.

      You note a few tense, fluid-filled blisters. The rash appears slightly raised and plaque-like. Her head, face, hands and feet are spared; her mouth and mucous membranes are also unaffected. She is systemically well.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are specific dermatological conditions that should be considered when assessing a skin complaint. However, it is important to note that pregnancy doesn’t exclude the usual causes of rashes, and infectious causes must also be considered as they may pose a risk to the developing fetus.

      One such condition is pemphigoid gestationis (PG), an autoimmune blistering condition that causes fluid-filled blisters on an itchy rash, typically starting around the umbilicus. Topical steroids and oral antihistamines are used for milder cases, while oral steroids may be necessary for more severe disease.

      Cholestasis of pregnancy causes generalised pruritus, particularly affecting the palms and soles, and is typically seen in the latter half of pregnancy. Symptoms resolve after delivery, but recurrence occurs in up to 40% of pregnancies. Abnormal liver function tests are also seen.

      Parvovirus, although uncommon in pregnancy, can cause serious fetal complications, including hydrops, growth retardation, anaemia, and hepatomegaly. It typically causes a slapped cheek rash followed by a lace-pattern rash on the limbs and trunk. Approximately 1 in 10 of those affected in the first half of pregnancy will miscarry, and in the remainder, there is a 1% risk of congenital abnormality.

      Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, also known as pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP), is characterised by an itchy rash of pink papules that occurs in the stretch marks of the abdomen in the third trimester. It clears with delivery and is thought to be related to an allergy to the stretch marks.

      Varicella can cause a vesicular rash, but the description of tense blisters in combination with the rash distribution and other features are typical of PG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old man comes to you with a bothersome skin rash. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to you with a bothersome skin rash. He has been experiencing this for a few weeks now and has not found relief with an emollient cream. The itching is described as 'severe' and has caused him difficulty sleeping. Upon examination, you observe a mixture of papules and vesicles on his buttocks and the extensor surface of his knees and elbows. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatitis herpetiformis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dermatitis Herpetiformis

      Dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is linked to coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions that appear on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows, knees, and buttocks.

      To diagnose dermatitis herpetiformis, a skin biopsy is performed, and direct immunofluorescence is used to show the deposition of IgA in a granular pattern in the upper dermis.

      The management of dermatitis herpetiformis involves a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone. By adhering to a gluten-free diet, patients can reduce the severity of their symptoms and prevent further damage to their skin. Dapsone is a medication that can help to alleviate the symptoms of dermatitis herpetiformis by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune system.

      In summary, dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disorder that is associated with coeliac disease and is caused by the deposition of IgA in the dermis. It is characterized by itchy, vesicular skin lesions and can be managed through a gluten-free diet and the use of dapsone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
    In...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient of yours has just been diagnosed with malignant melanoma.
      In what age group is the highest incidence rate per 100,000 population with this type of malignancy in the US?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60-69 years

      Explanation:

      Melanoma Skin Cancer in the UK

      According to Cancer Research UK, melanoma skin cancer is the 5th most common cancer in the UK, accounting for 4% of all new cancer cases. Every year, there are approximately 16,700 new cases of melanoma skin cancer in the UK, which equates to 46 new cases every day.

      Melanoma skin cancer affects both males and females, with around 8,400 new cases reported in each gender annually. The incidence rates for melanoma skin cancer are highest in people aged 85 to 89.

      It is important to be aware of the risks and symptoms of melanoma skin cancer, such as changes in the size, shape, or color of moles or other skin lesions. Early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of successful treatment and recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of wheals and urticaria. He is currently taking multiple medications.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of his allergic reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Urticarial Eruption

      Urticaria, commonly known as hives, is a skin condition characterized by itchy, raised, and red welts. One of the most likely causes of an urticarial eruption is aspirin. However, other drugs are also frequently associated with this condition, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), penicillin, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, thiazides, and codeine. It is important to identify the underlying cause of urticaria to prevent further episodes and manage symptoms effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You are prescribing oral terbinafine to an elderly patient with a fungal nail...

    Incorrect

    • You are prescribing oral terbinafine to an elderly patient with a fungal nail infection.

      What are the monitoring requirements?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal function pre-treatment and then every 3-4 weeks during treatment

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Requirements for Oral Terbinafine Use

      Oral terbinafine can lead to liver toxicity, which is why it is important to monitor hepatic function before and during treatment. If symptoms of liver toxicity, such as jaundice, develop, terbinafine should be discontinued immediately. The British National Formulary (BNF) specifies that hepatic function should be monitored before treatment and periodically after 4-6 weeks of treatment. If liver function abnormalities are detected, terbinafine should be discontinued.

      There is no need for additional monitoring, but if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 50 mL/minute/1.73 m2, half the normal dose should be used if there is no suitable alternative. It is important to follow these monitoring requirements to ensure the safe and effective use of oral terbinafine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old girl comes to you with concerns about her acne. Upon examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to you with concerns about her acne. Upon examination, you observe several pustules, nodules, and some scarring. The patient expresses a desire for treatment as her acne is affecting her mood. While waiting for a dermatology referral, what initial treatment would you recommend?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe an oral antibiotic in combination with topical Benzoyl Peroxide

      Explanation:

      Severe acne is characterized by the presence of nodules, cysts, and a high risk of scarring. It is recommended to refer patients with severe acne for specialist assessment and treatment, which may include oral isotretinoin. In the meantime, a combination of oral antibiotics and topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide can be prescribed.

      Topical antibiotics should be avoided when using oral antibiotics. Tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline, or lymecycline are the first-line antibiotic options, while erythromycin can be used as an alternative. Minocycline is not recommended.

      It is not recommended to prescribe antibiotics alone or to combine a topical and oral antibiotic. Women who require contraception can be prescribed a combined oral contraceptive (COC), with a standard COC being suitable for most women. Co-cyprindiol (Dianette®) should only be considered when other treatments have failed and should be discontinued after three to four menstrual cycles once the acne has resolved.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • Working in the minor injury unit on bonfire night, you see a 7-year-old girl with a burn from a sparkler on her forearm.
      Select from the list the single statement regarding the management of burns that is correct.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full thickness burns are associated with loss of sensation on palpation of the affected area

      Explanation:

      Management of Burn Injuries

      Burn injuries can cause thermal damage and inflammation, which can be reduced by cooling the affected area with water at 15oC. However, ice-cold water should be avoided as it can cause vasospasm and further ischaemia. Sensation and capillary refill should be assessed at initial presentation, as full thickness burns are insensitive. Silver sulfadiazine has not been proven to prevent infection. Epidermal burns are characterized by erythema, while larger or awkwardly positioned blisters should be aspirated under aseptic technique to prevent bursting and infection. De-roofing blisters should not be routinely done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your GP surgery. He has noticed that she has been scratching her face, particularly around her mouth and that she has developed some 'spots and scabs' in the area. The patient doesn't appear systemically unwell or distressed. The child has a history of atopic eczema and viral-induced wheeze.

      On examination of the child's face you note the presence of pustules and vesicles surrounding the mouth and nose area along with some honey-coloured plaques. You diagnose impetigo and prescribe topical fusidic acid as well as advising good hygiene measures.

      The father is concerned about sending the child to preschool. What do you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The patient must have been on treatment for 48h before returning to daycare

      Explanation:

      Patients with impetigo can go back to school or work once they are no longer contagious, which is either when all lesions have crusted over or after 48 hours of starting treatment. For measles or rubella, it is recommended to wait for at least 4 days after the rash appears before returning to work or school.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man presents with a rash on his penis. He reports having...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a rash on his penis. He reports having the rash on his glans penis for approximately 6 months, with no growth and no associated itching, pain, or discharge. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, a well-defined, shiny, moist, orange-red plaque is observed on the glans penis. Pin-point red lesions are present within and surrounding the lesion. The patient is uncircumcised.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Zoon's balanitis

      Explanation:

      Zoon’s balanitis is a benign condition affecting uncircumcised men, presenting with orange-red lesions with pinpoint redder spots on the glans and adjacent areas of the foreskin. It may be secondary to other conditions such as lichen sclerosus or erythroplasia of Queyrat. Differential diagnoses include lichen sclerosus, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and psoriasis.

      Understanding Zoon’s Balanitis

      Zoon’s balanitis, also known as plasma cell balanitis, is a chronic condition that affects the head of the penis. It is commonly seen in middle-aged or elderly men who are not circumcised. The condition is characterized by erythematous, well-defined, and shiny patches that appear on the head of the penis.

      Although Zoon’s balanitis is generally benign, a biopsy may be necessary to rule out other possible diagnoses. Circumcision is often the most effective treatment for this condition. However, carbon dioxide laser therapy and topical corticosteroids may also be used to manage the symptoms.

      In summary, Zoon’s balanitis is a chronic condition that affects the head of the penis. It is typically seen in older men who are not circumcised. While circumcision is the most effective treatment, other options such as laser therapy and topical corticosteroids may also be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man attends as he is concerned about his 'moles'. His father was diagnosed with a malignant melanoma at the age of 49. He has worked in construction since leaving school and has spent many years working outside. He tells you that he has spent about 10 years working in North Africa, the majority of the time he spent outside in the sun.

      The patient has fair hair and blue eyes. You examine his skin and he has about 60 common naevi 2 mm or less in diameter. He also has four atypical naevi (naevi with flat and raised areas, oval in shape, with some colour variation) which are all 6 mm or more in diameter. He reports no changes in any of the moles but as he has so many is worried about his risk of skin cancer.

      What is the greatest risk factor for this patient to develop a melanoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: His history of high sun exposure

      Explanation:

      Assessing Pigmented Skin Lesions and Identifying Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When assessing a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider any risk factors for melanoma. The number and characteristics of naevi are the greatest risk factors for melanoma, with individuals who have more than 50 melanocytic naevi, of which 3 or more are atypical in appearance, classified as having atypical mole syndrome. This syndrome occurs in about 2% of the population and increases the risk of developing melanoma by 7 to 10 fold. The risk is further increased if there is a family history of melanoma in a first or second degree relative, known as familial atypical mole syndrome. Other risk factors include light-colored eyes, unusually high sun exposure, and red or light-colored hair.

      It is important to understand the extent of risk associated with these factors, as identifying high-risk patients presents an opportunity to advise them accordingly. Patients at moderately increased risk of melanoma should be taught how to self-examine, including those with atypical mole phenotype, previous melanoma, and organ transplant recipients. Patients with giant congenital pigmented naevi also require long-term follow-up by a specialist, usually a dermatologist. By understanding these risk factors and providing appropriate guidance, healthcare professionals can help prevent and detect melanoma in high-risk patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You see a 50-year-old woman with generalised hair loss from her scalp over...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old woman with generalised hair loss from her scalp over the past year. She has no features of androgen excess. She has no medical history and is not on any regular medication. Recent blood tests including ferritin were unremarkable. On examination, you note some mild thinning around the crown area and widening of the central parting of her hair. You make a diagnosis of androgenetic alopecia.

      What would be the next most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyproterone acetate

      Explanation:

      NICE Recommends Topical Minoxidil as First-Line Treatment for Female Androgenetic Alopecia

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of topical minoxidil 2% solution as the first-line treatment for androgenetic alopecia in women. This medication is available over-the-counter and has been found to be effective in promoting hair growth. However, NICE advises against prescribing other drug treatments in primary care.

      Referral to dermatology should be considered in certain cases. For instance, if a woman has an atypical presentation of hair loss, or if she experiences extensive hair loss. Additionally, if treatment with topical minoxidil has been ineffective after one year, referral to a dermatologist may be necessary. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that women with androgenetic alopecia receive appropriate and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory infection and suddenly develops a painful red rash on her trunk that spreads to her face and limbs. The rash consists of macules, some of which resemble target lesions, and numerous flaccid bullae. Skin erosion is present in areas where the bullae have ruptured. She has conjunctivitis, crusted red lips, mouth ulcers, and dysuria. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug induced

      Explanation:

      Stevens-Johnson Syndrome: A Serious Skin Reaction

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a rare but serious skin reaction that can be fatal. It is considered to be part of a disease spectrum that includes erythema multiforme and toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, some experts believe that erythema multiforme should not be classified as part of the same spectrum as it is associated with infections while SJS and TEN are reactions to certain drugs.

      The most common drugs implicated in SJS are sulphonamides, but other medications such as penicillins, antifungals, and anticonvulsants can also cause the reaction. Less than 10% of the epidermis sloughs off in SJS, compared to over 30% in TEN.

      Management involves stopping the suspected causative drugs as soon as possible and immediate admission to an intensive care or burns unit. The prognosis is better if the drugs are stopped within 24 hours of bullae appearing.

      Staphylococcal scalded-skin syndrome is a differential diagnosis that can be mistaken for SJS. It is caused by a bacterial infection and tends to occur in young children.

      Herpes simplex virus can cause erythema multiforme, but this rash is not the same as SJS. Shingles, caused by varicella-zoster virus, is another condition with a painful blistering rash that is confined to a dermatome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old carpenter presents to you with concerns about his thumb nail that has been black for a few weeks. He suspects that he may have injured the nail while working, but he expected the discoloration to have disappeared by now. Upon examination, you notice a dark stripe running along the length of the nail plate of his left thumb. The adjacent nail fold is also dark.

      What would be the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral (2 week wait) to dermatology

      Explanation:

      If a new pigmented line appears in a nail, especially if there is damage to the nail, it is important to be highly suspicious of subungual melanoma and seek urgent referral. Subungual melanoma is a type of acral-lentiginous melanoma that can be mistaken for trauma. It typically presents as a longitudinal, pigmented band on the nail, with wider bands being more likely to be melanoma. Hutchinson’s sign, where the pigment extends onto the nail fold, may also be present. The lesion may also cause ulceration and destruction of the nail-plate.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1 mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2 mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old female patient visits your GP clinic with a history of psoriasis...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits your GP clinic with a history of psoriasis and an abnormality in her nails. Although it is not causing her any discomfort, she wants to know if any treatment is necessary. Upon examination, you diagnose her with mild nail psoriasis. What is your plan for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment required

      Explanation:

      If nail psoriasis is mild and not causing any distress or cosmetic concerns for the patient, NICE recommends that treatment is not necessary. Topical treatments such as tar, emollients, or low dose steroids are not effective for nail disease. Urgent referral to dermatology is not needed for mild cases that do not cause distress. The best course of action is to monitor the condition and offer the patient the option to return if it worsens. Therefore, no treatment is required in this case.

      Psoriasis can cause changes in the nails of both fingers and toes. These changes do not necessarily indicate the severity of psoriasis, but they are often associated with psoriatic arthropathy. In fact, around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy experience nail changes. Some of the nail changes that may occur in psoriasis include pitting, onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed), subungual hyperkeratosis, and even loss of the nail. It is important to note that these changes can be distressing for patients and may require medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with a highly sensitive 0.5 cm nodule on the free border of the helix of his left ear. The nodule has been there for approximately six weeks and has a small amount of scale attached to its surface. He has trouble sleeping on that side of his head. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

      Explanation:

      Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Chronica Helicis: A Benign Tender Lump in the Ear Cartilage

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is a common condition characterized by a benign tender lump in the cartilaginous portion of the ear, specifically in the helix or antihelix. It is often caused by pressure between the head and pillow during sleep, particularly in individuals who predominantly sleep on one side. Minor trauma, exposure to cold, and tight headgear or telephone headsets can also trigger the condition.

      The lesion rarely resolves on its own and conservative measures such as using a soft pillow or sleeping on the opposite side may be attempted. Wearing a protective pressure-relieving device, using topical and intralesional steroids, or applying topical glyceryl trinitrate may also provide relief. Cryotherapy is sometimes used as well.

      Excision of the damaged cartilage area is often successful, but recurrence can occur at the edge of the excised area. The distinctive feature of chondrodermatitis nodularis chronica helicis is the associated pain and tenderness, which sets it apart from painless cutaneous tumors and non-tender actinic keratoses.

      It is important to note that tophi, which contain a white pasty material and are usually not painful or tender, typically develop around 10 years after the first attack of gout in untreated patients and are commonly found around the elbows, hands, and feet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents with severe acne on...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant presents with severe acne on her face, chest, and shoulders. The inflammation, papules, and pustules are widespread and causing her significant pain, even waking her from sleep. She had been receiving treatment from dermatology but stopped when she began trying to conceive. Her next appointment is not for another 6 weeks. To improve her quality of life, you decide to initiate oral antibiotic therapy. Which antibiotic would be the most appropriate for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Acne vulgaris is a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. The severity of acne can range from mild to severe, and in this case, the patient has moderate to severe acne. Treatment with an oral antibiotic is recommended, and a referral to a dermatologist has already been scheduled.

      Tetracyclines are typically the first-line treatment for acne vulgaris, but they are contraindicated in pregnant women. This patient is pregnant, so an alternative antibiotic is needed. Oral tetracyclines should also be avoided in breastfeeding women and children under 12 years old due to the risk of deposition in developing teeth and bones.

      Erythromycin is a suitable alternative to tetracyclines for the treatment of acne vulgaris in pregnancy. The usual dose is 500 mg twice a day. Some specialists may use trimethoprim, but it is unlicensed for this indication. Women of childbearing age should use effective contraception, especially if using a topical retinoid concomitantly.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents with a non-healing ulcer at the site of a flame burn injury on his foot 7 years ago. The burn injury was managed with dressings and skin grafting but has never healed completely. Over the last 4 months, he has suffered from recurrent bleeding and ulceration at this site.

      Upon examination, there is extensive scarring on the dorsal aspect of his foot, and there is a 35mm ulcerated area with associated tenderness.

      The histopathology report confirmed the presence of malignant disease, describing the presence of keratin pearls. Imaging showed evidence of metastases.

      What is the most likely type of malignancy in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin

      Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that is commonly seen in individuals who have had excessive exposure to sunlight or have undergone psoralen UVA therapy. Other risk factors include actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease, immunosuppression, smoking, long-standing leg ulcers, and genetic conditions. While metastases are rare, they may occur in 2-5% of patients.

      This type of cancer typically appears on sun-exposed areas such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms. The nodules are painless, rapidly expanding, and may have a cauliflower-like appearance. Bleeding may also occur in some cases.

      Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma involves surgical excision with margins of 4mm for lesions less than 20 mm in diameter and 6mm for larger tumors. Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites. Prognosis is generally good for well-differentiated tumors that are less than 20 mm in diameter and less than 2 mm deep. However, poorly differentiated tumors that are larger than 20 mm in diameter and deeper than 4mm, as well as those associated with immunosuppression, have a poorer prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old man with a history of atopic eczema and contact dermatitis experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a history of atopic eczema and contact dermatitis experiences worsening of his dermatitis due to irritants at work. What is the most frequent irritant that leads to contact dermatitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Soap and cleaning agents

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Contact Dermatitis

      Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that occurs when the skin comes into contact with an irritant or allergen. The most common causes of contact dermatitis include soap and cleaning agents, which can affect people in various fields, especially cleaners and healthcare workers. Wet work is also a significant cause of dermatitis. Latex, particularly in the form of latex-powdered gloves, used to be a common irritant, but the use of latex-free gloves has reduced its occurrence. Nickel found in jewelry can cause a localized reaction, but it is less common than dermatitis caused by soap and cleaning products. Acrylics can also cause contact dermatitis, but they are less common than other irritants. Natural fibers like cotton are less likely to cause a dermatitis reaction compared to synthetic fibers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 67-year-old woman complains of bullae on her forearms after returning from a...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman complains of bullae on her forearms after returning from a trip to Spain. She also reports that her hands have delicate skin that tears easily. The patient has a history of hypertrichosis and has previously been referred to a dermatologist. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Porphyria cutanea tarda

      Explanation:

      Understanding Porphyria Cutanea Tarda

      Porphyria cutanea tarda is a type of hepatic porphyria that is commonly inherited due to a defect in uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase. However, it can also be caused by liver damage from factors such as alcohol, hepatitis C, or estrogen. The condition is characterized by a rash that is sensitive to sunlight, with blistering and skin fragility on the face and hands being the most common features. Other symptoms include hypertrichosis and hyperpigmentation.

      To diagnose porphyria cutanea tarda, doctors typically look for elevated levels of uroporphyrinogen in the urine, as well as pink fluorescence under a Wood’s lamp. Additionally, serum iron ferritin levels are used to guide therapy.

      Treatment for porphyria cutanea tarda typically involves the use of chloroquine or venesection. Venesection is preferred if the iron ferritin level is above 600 ng/ml. With proper management, individuals with porphyria cutanea tarda can lead normal lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

    She describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old lady has a limited superficial thrombophlebitis around her left ankle.

      She describes pain and tenderness of the superficial veins.

      There is no fever or malaise and no evidence of arterial insufficiency (her ankle brachial pressure index is 1).

      She is allergic to penicillin.

      What are the two most appropriate treatments for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical non-steroidal

      Explanation:

      Management of Limited Superficial Thrombophlebitis

      In the management of limited superficial thrombophlebitis, the most appropriate treatment option is the use of class 1 compression stockings. This is because most patients find class 2 compression stockings too painful. Additionally, an ankle brachial pressure index of between 0.8 and 1.3 means that arterial disease is unlikely, and compression stockings are generally safe to wear. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there are signs of infection, and the patient’s allergy to penicillin precludes the use of antibiotics as a treatment option. Topical non-steroidals can be used for mild and limited superficial thrombophlebitis, such as is presented here. Although an oral non-steroidal or paracetamol may be suggested, it is not presented as an option. As this condition is relatively common in primary care, it is important to be familiar with the most appropriate treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man presented with a small lump on his temple that is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presented with a small lump on his temple that is shiny with visible telangiectasiae and is gradually increasing in size.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basal cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Skin Tumours: Types, Symptoms, and Management

      Skin tumours are abnormal growths of skin cells that can be benign or malignant. Basal cell carcinomas are the most common malignant skin tumour, usually caused by excessive sun exposure in early life and previous sunburn. They often present as a slow-growing nodule or papule that forms an ulcer with a raised ‘rolled’ edge. Basal cell carcinomas grow slowly and rarely metastasise.

      Low-risk basal cell carcinomas can be managed in primary care if the GP meets the requirements to perform skin surgery. A specialist referral is appropriate for most people with a suspicious skin lesion, and urgent referral is necessary if there is a concern that a delay may have a significant impact.

      Squamous cell carcinomas have a crusted or ulcerated surface, while seborrhoeic warts have a warty pigmented surface appearance. Lentigo maligna is a melanoma in situ that progresses slowly and can remain non-invasive for years. In amelanotic melanoma, the colour may be pink, red, purple, or the colour of normal skin, and growth is likely to be rapid with a poor prognosis.

      In conclusion, early detection and management of skin tumours are crucial for better outcomes. Regular skin checks and seeking medical advice for any suspicious skin lesion are recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a painful rash on her shins. Upon examination, there are multiple tender nodules that appear purple in color. She has no significant medical history. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Erythema Nodosum, Insect Bites, Discoid Eczema, Erysipelas, and Post-Traumatic Ecchymoses

      Erythema nodosum is a painful skin condition characterized by tender, red nodules caused by inflammation of subcutaneous fat. It is more common in women aged 25-40 and can be associated with underlying conditions or occur in isolation.

      Insect bites from non-venomous insects like mosquitoes, fleas, lice, and bed bugs can result in itchy papules or blisters grouped in the exposed body site. Bites often appear in clusters.

      Discoid eczema is a type of eczema with unknown causes. It is characterized by round-to-oval, itchy, red, scaly plaques that may contain vesicles with serous exudate.

      Erysipelas is a tender, red, indurated plaque with a well-defined border caused by group A beta-hemolytic streptococci.

      Post-traumatic ecchymosis or bruises are large blood extravasations under the skin that may be caused by coagulation or vascular disorders. However, there is no history of trauma to support this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (1/4) 25%
Passmed