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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine a skin lesion on their shoulder. The patient reports having noticed the lesion for a few years and that it has slowly been increasing in size. They mention having worked as a builder and property developer, resulting in significant sun exposure. On examination, you note an irregular pale red patch on the right shoulder measuring 6x4mm. The lesion has a slightly raised 'rolled' pearly edge and a small eroded area in the center. There is no surrounding inflammation, and the lesion doesn't feel indurated.

      What is your plan for managing this patient's skin lesion?

      Your Answer: Routine referral to dermatology

      Explanation:

      When a superficial basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is suspected, it is recommended to make a standard referral. This presentation is typical of BCC, which usually grows slowly and hardly ever spreads to other parts of the body. Dermatology referral is necessary in such cases. While Efudix and cryotherapy may be used as substitutes for excision in treating superficial BCC, it is important to seek the guidance of a dermatologist.

      Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma

      Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.

      If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 2 - A 31-year-old woman is experiencing a skin issue and is curious if using...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman is experiencing a skin issue and is curious if using a sunbed could alleviate it. Identify the sole condition that can be positively impacted by exposure to sunlight.

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      The Dangers and Benefits of UV Light Therapy for Skin Conditions

      UV light therapy, including UVB and PUVA, can effectively treat psoriasis, atopic eczema, cutaneous T-cell lymphoma, and even polymorphic light eruption. However, sunlight can worsen conditions like lupus erythematosus and rosacea, and lead to skin ageing and cancer over time. Tanning, whether from the sun or a sunbed, should only be used under medical supervision for phototherapy. It’s important to weigh the potential benefits and risks of UV light therapy for skin conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman has developed a polymorphic eruption over the dorsa of both...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has developed a polymorphic eruption over the dorsa of both hands and feet. The lesions started 2 days ago and she now has some lesions on the arms and legs. Individual lesions are well-demarcated red macules or small urticarial plaques. Some lesions have a small blister or crusting in the centre, which seems darker than the periphery.
      Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that typically begins with lesions on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and the palms and soles may also be involved. The initial lesions are red or pink macules that become raised papules and gradually enlarge to form plaques up to 2-3 cm in diameter. The center of a lesion darkens in color and may develop blistering or crusting. The typical target lesion of erythema multiforme has a sharp margin, regular round shape, and three concentric color zones. Atypical targets may show just two zones and/or an indistinct border. The rash is polymorphous, meaning it can take many forms, and lesions may be at various stages of development. The rash usually fades over 2-4 weeks, but recurrences are common. In more severe cases, there may be blistering of mucous membranes, which can be life-threatening. Some consider erythema multiforme to be part of a spectrum of disease that includes Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, while others argue that it should be classified separately as it is associated with infections rather than certain drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old woman has vulval lichen sclerosus. You are asked by the gynaecologist...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman has vulval lichen sclerosus. You are asked by the gynaecologist to prescribe a very potent topical corticosteroid for her.
      Select from the list the single suitable preparation.

      Your Answer: Clobetasol propionate 0.05% (Dermovate®)

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Lichen Sclerosus with Topical Corticosteroids

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects the genital and anal areas. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of topical corticosteroids. The potency of the corticosteroid used is determined by the formulation and the type of corticosteroid. Mild, moderate, potent, and very potent corticosteroids are available for use.

      The most effective treatment for lichen sclerosus is the very potent topical corticosteroid clobetasol propionate. The recommended regimen for a newly diagnosed case is to apply clobetasol propionate once a night for 4 weeks, then on alternate nights for 4 weeks, and finally twice weekly for the third month. If symptoms return during the reduction of treatment, the frequency that was effective should be resumed.

      Other topical corticosteroids such as mometasone furoate and pimecrolimus have also been shown to be effective in treating genital lichen sclerosus. However, clobetasol propionate has been demonstrated to be more effective than pimecrolimus.

      It is important to note that while treatment with topical corticosteroids can resolve hyperkeratosis, ecchymoses, fissuring, and erosions, atrophy and color change may remain. Maintenance with less frequent use of a very potent corticosteroid or a weaker steroid may be necessary.

      Topical Corticosteroids for Lichen Sclerosus Treatment

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 5 - When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations...

    Incorrect

    • When assessing the respiratory system of a middle-aged patient, you observe some alterations in the skin. The skin on the back of the neck and axillae is hyperkeratotic and hyperpigmented. What underlying condition do you think is causing these changes?

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia

      Correct Answer: Type 2 diabetes

      Explanation:

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition where certain areas of the skin, such as the neck, armpits, and skin folds, become thickened and darkened with a velvety texture. Skin tags may also be present. While it can occur on its own in individuals with darker skin tones, it is often a sign of insulin resistance and related conditions like type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, or hypothyroidism. Certain medications like corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications can also cause acanthosis nigricans. If it develops quickly and in unusual areas like the mouth, it may indicate an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of brown, velvety plaques that are symmetrical and commonly found on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid.

      The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1). This process results in the formation of the characteristic brown, velvety plaques seen in acanthosis nigricans. Understanding the underlying mechanisms of this condition is crucial in its diagnosis and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 49-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of itching, fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with a complaint of itching, fatigue and malaise for the past six months. She has had no major medical history and is not on any regular medications. There are no visible signs of a skin rash.
      What is the most suitable investigation that is likely to result in a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Liver function tests (LFTs)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Pruritis without a Rash: Primary Biliary Cholangitis

      Pruritis without a rash can be a challenging diagnosis. In this case, the symptoms suggest the possibility of primary biliary cholangitis, an autoimmune disease of the liver that leads to cholestasis and can progress to fibrosis and cirrhosis. To diagnose this condition, a full blood count, serum ferritin, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, urea and electrolytes, thyroid function tests, and liver function tests are necessary. A chest X-ray may be useful to rule out malignancy, but skin biopsy and skin scraping for microscopy are unlikely to be helpful in the absence of a rash. Low serum B12 is not relevant to pruritis. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to diagnose pruritis without a rash, and primary biliary cholangitis should be considered as a potential cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 7 - Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, night...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 30-year-old woman who visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, night sweats, and muscle pains that have been bothering her for a few months. She believes that these symptoms began after she developed a rash on her leg four months ago. She has not traveled anywhere. Samantha is upset and emotional about her symptoms.

      As part of Samantha's evaluation, which tests should be considered?

      Your Answer: Borrelia burgdorferi antibody test

      Explanation:

      Consider Lyme disease as a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with vague and unexplained symptoms such as fever, night sweats, headache, or paraesthesia. These symptoms may also include inflamed lymph nodes, neck pain, and joint/muscle aches. The causative agent of Lyme disease is Borrelia burgdorferi. Malaria is unlikely in patients with no travel history and symptoms lasting for 4 months. Scabies typically presents with an itchy rash, which is not evident in the scenario. Glandular fever may cause fatigue and muscle aches, but the absence of a sore throat and the need for a blood test for diagnosis make it less likely. Toxoplasma gondii is usually asymptomatic but may cause flu-like symptoms and muscle aches, and it is not associated with a rash.

      Lyme Disease: Symptoms and Progression

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. The disease progresses in two stages, with early and later features. The early features of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, which is a small papule that often appears at the site of the tick bite. This papule develops into a larger annular lesion with central clearing, resembling a bulls-eye. This occurs in 70% of patients and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as malaise, fever, and arthralgia.

      As the disease progresses, it can lead to more severe symptoms. The later features of Lyme disease include cardiovascular symptoms such as heart block and myocarditis, as well as neurological symptoms such as cranial nerve palsies and meningitis. Patients may also experience polyarthritis, which is inflammation in multiple joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 8 - Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with...

    Correct

    • Which of the following skin conditions is less frequently observed in individuals with systemic lupus erythematosus?

      Your Answer: Keratoderma blenorrhagica

      Explanation:

      Reiter’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of waxy yellow papules on the palms and soles, a condition known as keratoderma blenorrhagica.

      Skin Disorders Associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that can affect various organs and tissues in the body, including the skin. Skin manifestations of SLE include a photosensitive butterfly rash, discoid lupus, alopecia, and livedo reticularis, which is a net-like rash. The butterfly rash is a red, flat or raised rash that appears on the cheeks and bridge of the nose, often sparing the nasolabial folds. Discoid lupus is a chronic, scarring skin condition that can cause red, raised patches or plaques on the face, scalp, and other areas of the body. Alopecia is hair loss that can occur on the scalp, eyebrows, and other areas of the body. Livedo reticularis is a mottled, purplish discoloration of the skin that can occur on the arms, legs, and trunk.

      The skin manifestations of SLE can vary in severity and may come and go over time. They can also be a sign of more serious internal organ involvement. Treatment for skin manifestations of SLE may include topical or oral medications, such as corticosteroids, antimalarials, and immunosuppressants, as well as sun protection measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 9 - Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy? ...

    Correct

    • Roughly what proportion of individuals with psoriasis experience a related arthropathy?

      Your Answer: 10-20%

      Explanation:

      Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about 'spots' on the head of his penis. He mentions that they have always been present and have not changed in any way. The patient confirms that he is not sexually active and has never had any sexual partners.

      During the examination, the GP observes several flesh-coloured papules on the corona of the penis. The GP diagnoses the patient with pearly penile papules.

      What is the most important advice the GP can offer the patient?

      Your Answer: Pearly penile papules are benign and do not need to be investigated

      Explanation:

      Pearly penile papules are a common and harmless occurrence that do not require any medical intervention. These small bumps, typically measuring 1-2 mm in size, are found around the corona of the penis and are not a cause for concern. Although patients may worry about their appearance, they are asymptomatic and do not indicate any underlying health issues.

      It is important to note that pearly penile papules are not caused by any sexually transmitted infections, and therefore, routine sexual health screenings are not necessary. Screening should only be conducted if there is a genuine concern or suspicion of an infection. Typically, sexual health initiatives target individuals between the ages of 18 and 25.

      Understanding STI Ulcers

      Genital ulcers are a common symptom of several sexually transmitted infections (STIs). One of the most well-known causes is the herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2, which can cause severe primary attacks with fever and subsequent attacks with multiple painful ulcers. Syphilis, caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, has primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with a painless ulcer (chancre) appearing in the primary stage. Chancroid, a tropical disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, causes painful genital ulcers with a sharply defined, ragged, undermined border and unilateral, painful inguinal lymph node enlargement. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, has three stages, with the first stage showing a small painless pustule that later forms an ulcer, followed by painful inguinal lymphadenopathy in the second stage and proctocolitis in the third stage. LGV is treated with doxycycline. Other causes of genital ulcers include Behcet’s disease, carcinoma, and granuloma inguinale (previously called Calymmatobacterium granulomatis). Understanding the different causes of STI ulcers is crucial in diagnosing and treating these infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 11 - A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Lichen sclerosus

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.

      Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.

      Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old female presents with tender, erythematous nodules over her thighs. Blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female presents with tender, erythematous nodules over her thighs. Blood tests reveal:

      Calcium 2.78 mmol/l

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Granuloma annulare

      Correct Answer: Erythema nodosum

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythema Nodosum

      Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body, such as the forearms and thighs. Fortunately, erythema nodosum usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.

      There are several potential causes of erythema nodosum. Infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis can trigger the condition. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s syndrome may also be responsible. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be linked to malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs, including penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also cause erythema nodosum.

      Overall, understanding the potential causes of erythema nodosum can help individuals recognize the condition and seek appropriate treatment. While the condition can be uncomfortable, it typically resolves on its own within a few weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old male presents to your clinic with a suspected fungal toenail infection....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male presents to your clinic with a suspected fungal toenail infection. The infection has been gradually developing, causing discoloration of the nail unit with white/yellow streaks and distorting the nail bed. The severity of the infection is moderate. During his last visit, nail scrapings were taken for microscopy and culture, which recently confirmed dermatophyte infection. The patient is experiencing discomfort while walking and is seeking treatment for the fungal infection.

      What is the most suitable treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Advice on self-care

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Oral terbinafine is recommended for treating dermatophyte nail infections.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old patient presents for follow-up after being discharged from the hospital. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents for follow-up after being discharged from the hospital. He complains of experiencing itchy, raised red bumps on his skin that appeared about 12 hours after taking his discharge medication for the first time. The symptoms have worsened over the past few days, and he has never experienced anything like this before. On examination, faint pink raised patches are observed on his trunk and upper arms.

      Which medication is the most probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Ticagrelor

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Aspirin is the most likely cause of the patient’s urticaria, as it is a known trigger for this condition. Atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and metformin are not commonly associated with urticaria, although they may have other side effects.

      Urticaria, also known as hives, can be caused by various drugs. Some of the most common drugs that can trigger urticaria include aspirin, penicillins, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and opiates. These medications can cause an allergic reaction in some individuals, leading to the development of hives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for an urgent appointment with the...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic for an urgent appointment with the duty doctor. He reports experiencing severe chest pain on the right side, along with fever and malaise for the past three days. Upon examination, there are red papules and vesicles closely grouped on the affected area. No abnormalities are noted in his respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurological assessments.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Prescribe emollients and advise the patient that he is not infectious

      Correct Answer: Advise the patient that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over and prescribe a course of antivirals

      Explanation:

      The patient should be informed that he is infectious until the vesicles have crusted over, which usually takes 5-7 days following onset of shingles. Therefore, a course of antiviral therapy should be prescribed to reduce the risk of postherpetic neuralgia. Analgesia should also be given to alleviate severe pain. Prescribing antibiotics or emollients would not be useful in this case.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old man comes to you with a widespread fungal skin infection in...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to you with a widespread fungal skin infection in his groin area. You decide to send skin scrapings for testing, but in the meantime, you believe it is appropriate to start him on an oral antifungal based on your clinical assessment and judgement. He has no significant medical history, is not taking any other medications, and has no known drug allergies.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment to administer?

      Your Answer: Ketoconazole

      Correct Answer: Terbinafine

      Explanation:

      Oral Antifungal Treatment for Severe Fungal Disease

      Oral antifungal treatment may be necessary for adults with severe or extensive fungal disease. In some cases, treatment can begin before mycology results are obtained, based on clinical judgement. Terbinafine is the preferred first-line treatment for oral antifungal therapy in primary care. However, if terbinafine is not tolerated or contraindicated, oral itraconazole or oral griseofulvin may be used as alternatives. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and prevent the spread of fungal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man visits your clinic with a concern about spots on his face, neck, and trunk that have been present for a few months. Despite using an over-the-counter facial wash, the spots have not improved. The patient is becoming increasingly self-conscious about them and seeks treatment. Upon examination, you observe comedones and inflamed lesions on his face, as well as nodules, pustules, and scarring. The patient is in good health, with normal vital signs.

      What is the most appropriate initial approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassure the patient that this condition will likely improve and review in 2 months

      Correct Answer: Refer to dermatology

      Explanation:

      A patient with severe acne, including scarring, hyperpigmentation, and widespread pustules, should be referred to a dermatologist for specialized treatment. In this case, the patient has nodules, pustules, and scarring, indicating the need for consideration of oral isotretinoin. A trial of low-strength topical benzoyl peroxide would not be appropriate for severe and widespread acne, but may be suitable for mild to moderate cases. Same-day hospital admission is unnecessary for a patient with normal observations and no other health concerns. A review in 2 months is not appropriate for severe acne, which should be managed with topical therapies, oral antibiotics, or referral to a dermatologist. Topical antibiotics are also not recommended for severe and widespread acne, and a dermatology referral is necessary for this patient with lesions on the face, neck, and trunk.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that usually affects teenagers and is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, resulting in comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the number and type of lesions present. Treatment for acne typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy and progressing to combination therapy or oral antibiotics if necessary. Tetracyclines are commonly used but should be avoided in certain populations, and a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide should always be co-prescribed to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance. Combined oral contraceptives can also be used in women, and oral isotretinoin is reserved for severe cases under specialist supervision. Dietary modification has no role in the management of acne.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about hair loss that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to you with concerns about hair loss that she believes began after giving birth to her second child 10 months ago. She reports being in good health and not taking any medications. During your examination, you observe areas of hair loss on the back of her head. The skin appears normal, and you notice a few short, broken hairs at the edges of two of the patches. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Telogen effluvium

      Correct Answer: Alopecia areata

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alopecia Areata

      Alopecia areata is a condition that is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response, resulting in localized hair loss that is well-defined and demarcated. This condition is characterized by the presence of small, broken hairs that resemble exclamation marks at the edge of the hair loss. While hair regrowth occurs in about 50% of patients within a year, it eventually occurs in 80-90% of patients. In many cases, a careful explanation of the condition is sufficient for patients. However, there are several treatment options available, including topical or intralesional corticosteroids, topical minoxidil, phototherapy, dithranol, contact immunotherapy, and wigs. It is important to understand the causes and treatment options for alopecia areata to effectively manage this condition.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 19 - You see a 3-year-old boy who has presented with a high fever.

    He was...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 3-year-old boy who has presented with a high fever.

      He was first seen almost two weeks ago by a colleague and diagnosed with a viral upper respiratory tract infection and given simple advice. His parents have brought him back today as his fever doesn't seem to be settling and they have noticed that his eyes have become irritated and his lips are very red and have cracked.

      On examination, the child has a temperature of 38.1°C and has dry fissured lips. There is an obvious widespread polymorphous skin rash present. Examination of the mouth reveals pharyngeal injection and a prominent red tongue. Significant cervical lymphadenopathy and conjunctival inflammation is noted. There is palmar erythema bilaterally and his hands and feet appear puffy with peeling of the skin of the fingers and toes.

      Which of the following is a complication of this condition?

      Your Answer: Pneumonitis

      Correct Answer: Coronary artery aneurysms

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki’s Disease: A Rare but Serious Condition in Children

      Kawasaki’s disease (KD) is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children between 6 months to 4 years old. The exact cause of KD is unknown, but it is believed to be caused by a bacterial toxin acting as a superantigen similar to staphylococcal and streptococcal toxic shock syndromes.

      The hallmark symptom of KD is a sustained fever lasting more than five days, accompanied by cervical lymphadenopathy, conjunctival infection, rash, mucous membrane signs (such as dry fissured lips, red ‘strawberry’ tongue, and pharyngeal injection), and erythematous and oedematous hands and feet with subsequent peeling of the fingers and toes.

      It is crucial to make a clinical diagnosis of KD as about a third of those affected may develop coronary artery involvement, which can lead to the formation of coronary artery aneurysms. Early treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin within the first 10 days can help reduce the risk of this complication. Aspirin is also an important treatment in this condition, used to reduce the risk of thrombosis.

      In conclusion, KD is a rare but serious condition that can have severe consequences if not diagnosed and treated promptly. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the symptoms and to consider KD in children presenting with a prolonged fever and other associated symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 20 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of a bullous rash?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      The bullous form of lichen planus is an exceptionally uncommon occurrence.

      Bullous Disorders: Causes and Types

      Bullous disorders are characterized by the formation of fluid-filled blisters or bullae on the skin. These can be caused by a variety of factors, including congenital conditions like epidermolysis bullosa, autoimmune diseases like bullous pemphigoid and pemphigus, insect bites, trauma or friction, and certain medications such as barbiturates and furosemide.

      Epidermolysis bullosa is a rare genetic disorder that affects the skin’s ability to adhere to the underlying tissue, leading to the formation of blisters and sores. Autoimmune bullous disorders occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks proteins in the skin, causing blistering and inflammation. Insect bites can also cause bullae to form, as can trauma or friction from activities like sports or manual labor.

      Certain medications can also cause bullous disorders as a side effect. Barbiturates, for example, have been known to cause blistering and skin rashes in some people. Furosemide, a diuretic used to treat high blood pressure and edema, can also cause bullae to form in some cases.

      Overall, bullous disorders can be caused by a variety of factors and can range from mild to severe. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause and may include medications, wound care, and lifestyle modifications.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - A 39-year-old lady presents with a mild cellulitis of the hand. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old lady presents with a mild cellulitis of the hand. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. A finger prick blood glucose test shows a reading of 4.5 mmol/l. There are no complications and she appears to be in good health. You decide to prescribe flucloxacillin 500 mg qds. As per NICE guidelines, what is the standard duration for this course of antibiotics?

      Your Answer: 28 days

      Correct Answer: 10 to 14 days

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Cellulitis and Erysipelas Treatment

      NICE has recently updated its guidance on the treatment of cellulitis and erysipelas with NG141. According to the new guidelines, Flucloxacillin 500mg qds is the first choice treatment for people over the age of 18. The recommended course of treatment is an oral course for 5 to 7 days. However, if a person is severely unwell or unable to take oral medication, a twice daily course of the intravenous antibiotic may be necessary. Based on clinical assessment, a longer course of up to 14 days may be needed. It is important to note that skin takes time to return to normal, and full resolution at 5 to 7 days is not expected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 22 - A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old obese woman presents with a leg ulcer. This followed a superficial traumatic abrasion a month ago that never healed. She has a past history of ischaemic heart disease. Examination reveals a 5cm ulcer over the left shin; it is superficial with an irregular border and slough in the base. There is mild pitting oedema and haemosiderin deposition bilaterally on the legs. The ipsilateral foot pulses are weakly palpable.
      Which diagnosis fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Venous ulcer

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Venous Ulcers from Other Types of Leg Ulcers

      Venous leg ulcers are a common type of leg ulcer in the UK, accounting for around 3% of all new cases attending dermatology clinics. These ulcers are typically large and superficial, and are accompanied by signs of chronic venous insufficiency. This condition leads to venous stasis and increased capillary pressure, resulting in secondary skin changes whose mechanisms are not well understood. Predisposing factors to venous insufficiency include obesity, history of varicose veins, leg trauma, and deep vein thrombosis.

      In contrast, arterial ulcers are typically small and punched out, occurring most commonly over a bony prominence such as a malleolus or on the toes. Bowen’s disease, a form of squamous cell carcinoma in situ, commonly occurs on the legs in women but would not reach a size of 5cm in only a month. Neuropathic ulcers, on the other hand, occur on the feet in the context of peripheral neuropathy. Vasculitic ulcers are also a possibility, but there are no clues in the history or findings to suggest their presence.

      To differentiate venous ulcers from other types of leg ulcers, it is important to look for corroborating signs of chronic venous insufficiency, such as peripheral edema, venous eczema, haemosiderin deposition, lipodermatosclerosis, and atrophie blanche. Workup should include measurement of the ankle brachial pressure indices (ABPIs) to exclude coexistent arterial disease. If the ABPIs are satisfactory, the cornerstone of management is compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a history of breast cancer...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to your clinic with a history of breast cancer and a right-sided mastectomy with subsequent lymphoedema of the right arm. She reports the development of a new painful rash on her right arm over the past 24 hours. On examination, there is mild chronic lymphoedema to the arm with an area of mild erythema and warmth measuring approximately 3x3cm that is tender to the touch. You suspect erysipelas. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      This patient is suffering from erysipelas, a skin infection caused by beta-hemolytic group A streptococcus. It affects the superficial layer of the skin and is different from cellulitis, which affects deeper tissues. Flucloxacillin is the recommended first-line treatment for erysipelas, unless the patient has a penicillin allergy, in which case clarithromycin is used. Co-amoxiclav is preferred if the infection affects the tissues around the nose or eyes, while fusidic acid is used to treat impetigo, a superficial skin infection.

      Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections

      Respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis and community-acquired pneumonia are typically treated with amoxicillin, tetracycline, or clarithromycin. In cases where atypical pathogens may be the cause of pneumonia, clarithromycin is recommended. Hospital-acquired pneumonia within five days of admission is treated with co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime, while infections occurring more than five days after admission are treated with piperacillin with tazobactam, a broad-spectrum cephalosporin, or a quinolone.

      For urinary tract infections, lower UTIs are treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis is treated with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis is treated with a quinolone or trimethoprim.

      Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, and erysipelas are treated with topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, or erythromycin if the infection is widespread. Animal or human bites are treated with co-amoxiclav, while mastitis during breastfeeding is treated with flucloxacillin.

      Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, and otitis media are treated with phenoxymethylpenicillin or amoxicillin. Otitis externa is treated with flucloxacillin or erythromycin, while periapical or periodontal abscesses are treated with amoxicillin.

      Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis are treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline or azithromycin, and oral or topical metronidazole or topical clindamycin, respectively. Pelvic inflammatory disease is treated with oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.

      Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis are treated with oral vancomycin, clarithromycin, ciprofloxacin, and ciprofloxacin, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these have led to little improvement. Other than aching in his legs, he is otherwise well. An ABPI was measured at 0.7.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?

      Your Answer: Any class of compression stocking but avoid closed toe

      Correct Answer: Class 2 compression stockings

      Explanation:

      Understanding ABPI and Compression Stockings

      When a patient is found to have an ABPI of 0.7, it is likely that they have other symptoms of arterial insufficiency. An ABPI less than 0.8 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, while an ABPI greater than 1.3 may be due to calcified and incompressible arteries. It is important to note that compression stockings are contraindicated in patients with ABPIs less than 0.8 or greater than 1.3.

      The class of stocking used is not based on the ABPI, but rather the condition being treated. Closed toe stockings are generally used, but open toe stockings may be necessary if the patient has arthritic or clawed toes, has a fungal infection, prefers to wear a sock over the compression stocking, or has a long foot size compared with their calf size. Understanding ABPI and the appropriate use of compression stockings can help improve patient outcomes and prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - You see a pediatric patient with a suspected fungal skin infection but the...

    Incorrect

    • You see a pediatric patient with a suspected fungal skin infection but the appearance is atypical and so you want to send skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture.

      Which of the following forms part of best practice with regards the sample?

      Your Answer: Skin should be scraped from the advancing edge of the lesion

      Correct Answer: The patient should be informed that microscopy and culture results should be available within 1-2 days

      Explanation:

      Obtaining Skin Samples for Fungal Microscopy and Culture

      To obtain skin samples for fungal microscopy and culture, it is recommended to scrape the skin from the advancing edge of the lesion(s) using a blunt scalpel blade. This area typically provides a higher yield of dermatophyte. It is important to obtain at least 5 mm2 of skin flakes, which should be placed into folded dark paper and secured with a paperclip. Alternatively, commercially available packs can be used.

      The sample should be kept at room temperature as dermatophytes are inhibited at low temperatures. Microscopy results typically take 1-2 days, while culture results take 2-3 weeks. By following these steps, accurate and timely results can be obtained for the diagnosis and treatment of fungal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 26 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of epilepsy and was started on phenytoin three weeks ago. One week ago, he developed mouth ulcers, malaise, and a cough. Two days ago, he developed a widespread red rash that has now formed large fluid-filled blisters, covering approximately 30% of his body area. The lesions separate when slight pressure is applied. On examination, his temperature is 38.3ºC and pulse is 126/min. His blood results show:

      - Na+ 144 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      - Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
      - Urea 13.4 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 121 µmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. The condition causes the skin to appear scalded over a large area and is considered by some to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include feeling unwell, a high temperature, and a rapid heartbeat. Additionally, the skin may separate with mild lateral pressure, a sign known as Nikolsky’s sign.

      Several drugs are known to cause TEN, including phenytoin, sulphonamides, allopurinol, penicillins, carbamazepine, and NSAIDs. If TEN is suspected, the first step is to stop the use of the drug that is causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Electrolyte derangement and volume loss are potential complications that need to be monitored. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment that has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents such as ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.

      In summary, TEN is a severe skin disorder that can be caused by certain drugs. It is important to recognize the symptoms and stop the use of the drug causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment, and other options include immunosuppressive agents and plasmapheresis.

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      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - Sophie has just turned 30 and has recently started taking Microgynon 30. However,...

    Correct

    • Sophie has just turned 30 and has recently started taking Microgynon 30. However, she is concerned about the impact it may have on her skin as she has an important event coming up soon. What is a typical skin-related adverse effect of Microgynon 30?

      Your Answer: Melasma

      Explanation:

      The use of combined oral contraceptive pills can lead to skin-related side effects that are similar to those observed during pregnancy. The high levels of estrogen in these pills can cause hyperpigmentation, known as melasma, on areas of the skin that are exposed to the sun. This side effect is more common in women who use the pill for longer durations or at higher doses. However, melasma usually disappears after discontinuing the pill or after pregnancy.

      The oral contraceptive pill can also cause vascular effects such as spider naevi, telangiectasia, and angiomas due to high levels of estrogen. Women taking the pill may also experience genital candidiasis (thrush). The progesterone used in the pill can be androgenic, leading to acne vulgaris, hirsutism, greasy hair, and alopecia. However, some progesterones, such as drospirenone (in Yasmin) and desogestrel (in Marvelon), are less androgenic and induce acne less. For effective treatment of acne, the estrogen dose must be sufficient to counteract the androgenic nature of the progesterone used.

      There is no evidence to suggest that taking the oral contraceptive pill increases the risk of eczema, rosacea, or dermatographia. However, the pill may cause erythema nodosum more commonly than erythema multiforme.

      Understanding Melasma: A Common Skin Condition

      Melasma is a skin condition that causes the development of dark patches or macules on sun-exposed areas, especially the face. It is more common in women and people with darker skin. The term chloasma is sometimes used to describe melasma during pregnancy. The condition is often associated with hormonal changes, such as those that occur during pregnancy or with the use of hormonal medications like the combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 28 - A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash on his hands and feet. He travels frequently to the Middle East for business purposes and has engaged in unprotected sexual activity during one of his trips. Upon examination, the palms and soles show an itchy vesicular rash with erythema and excoriation. What is the probable cause of this rash, considering the patient's exposure?

      Your Answer: Sunlight

      Correct Answer: Humidity

      Explanation:

      Pompholyx eczema can be triggered by high humidity levels, such as sweating, and hot temperatures. This is evidenced by the recurrent vesicles that appear on the palms and soles, accompanied by erythema. The patient’s frequent travels to the Middle East, which is known for its high humidity levels, may have contributed to the development of this condition.

      Chlamydia is not a factor in the development of pompholyx eczema. While chlamydia can cause keratoderma blennorrhagica, which affects the soles of the feet and palms, it has a different appearance and is not typically itchy or erythematous.

      Cold temperatures are not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although they may cause Raynaud’s phenomenon.

      Sunlight exposure is not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although it may cause other skin conditions such as lupus and polymorphic light eruption.

      Understanding Pompholyx Eczema

      Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.

      To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - You see a 35-year-old man with psoriasis. As part of his treatment plan,...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old man with psoriasis. As part of his treatment plan, you prescribe topical Betnovate (Betamethasone valerate 0.1%) cream for a psoriasis flare-up on his leg. He inquires about the duration for which he can use this cream on his leg.
      According to NICE guidelines, what is the maximum duration for which this type of corticosteroid can be used?

      Your Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Do not use continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines on the Use of Potent Corticosteroids

      Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids. Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.

      Spacing:

      Potent corticosteroids should not be used continuously at any site for longer than 8 weeks, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.

      It is important to note that the potency of steroid formulations can be difficult to remember from the trade name, so it is recommended to have a reference on hand. The Eczema Society provides a helpful table of commonly used topical steroids.

      Remembering these guidelines can help ensure safe and effective use of potent corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old patient complains of toe-nail problems. She has been experiencing discoloration of her left great toe for the past 6 weeks. The patient is seeking treatment as it is causing her significant embarrassment. Upon examination, there is a yellowish discoloration on the medial left great toe with nail thickening and mild onycholysis.

      What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Take nail sample for laboratory testing

      Explanation:

      Before prescribing any treatment, laboratory testing should confirm the presence of a fungal nail infection. Although it is likely that the patient’s symptoms are due to onychomycosis, other conditions such as psoriasis should be ruled out. Oral terbinafine would be a suitable treatment option if the test confirms a fungal infection. However, topical antifungal treatments are generally not ideal for nail infections. A topical corticosteroid is not appropriate for treating a fungal nail infection, but may be considered if the test reveals no fungal involvement and there are signs of an inflammatory dermatosis like psoriasis. While taking a nail sample is necessary, antifungal treatment should not be initiated until the fungal cause is confirmed. This is because different nail conditions can have similar appearances, and starting treatment without confirmation would not be beneficial.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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