Malaria Chemoprophylaxis: Choosing the Right Medication

Malaria is a potentially fatal disease that requires chemoprophylaxis for individuals entering known malaria areas. Atovaquone/proguanil (Malarone) is a well-tolerated, once-daily medication that is effective in both preventing and treating malaria. It should be taken 24 hours before entering a malaria zone and continued for seven days after leaving. However, advice on bite avoidance is also crucial in preventing malaria.

Doxycycline is a cheaper alternative to atovaquone/proguanil, but it may cause nausea and photosensitivity, which can be problematic for fair-skinned individuals. Chloroquine is an inferior choice due to widespread resistance, while mefloquine (Larium) may cause psychosis, making it unsuitable for patients with a psychiatric history.

It is important to note that advising against chemoprophylaxis is not appropriate, as malaria poses a serious risk to all individuals, regardless of their previous exposure to malaria areas.

Rifampicin has a strong ability to induce liver enzymes. During the initial two months of treatment, Pyrazinamide should be administered, but it may cause hepatitis and gout as side effects. Isoniazid may cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect.

Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications

Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months, during which patients are given a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves the use of rifampicin and isoniazid. Patients with latent tuberculosis are typically treated with a combination of isoniazid and rifampicin for three or six months, depending on the severity of the infection.

In some cases, patients may require prolonged treatment, particularly if they have meningeal tuberculosis. Steroids may be added to the treatment regimen in these cases. Directly observed therapy may also be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients who are likely to have poor concordance.

While tuberculosis treatment is generally effective, there are some potential complications to be aware of. Immune reconstitution disease can occur several weeks after starting treatment and may present with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects are also possible, with rifampicin being a potent liver enzyme inducer and isoniazid causing peripheral neuropathy. Pyrazinamide can cause hyperuricaemia and ethambutol may lead to optic neuritis, so it is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of adverse effects. Overall, with proper management and monitoring, tuberculosis can be successfully treated.

When there is suspicion of a spinal epidural abscess, a complete MRI of the spine is necessary to detect any skip lesions.

To accurately diagnose a spinal epidural abscess, a full spine MRI is essential. Neither plain x-rays nor CT scans can effectively identify the abscess. It is necessary to scan the entire spine, not just the suspected area, as there may be multiple separate abscesses that are not connected. The MRI should be requested and performed as soon as possible.

Understanding Spinal Epidural Abscess

A spinal epidural abscess (SEA) is a serious condition that occurs when pus collects in the spinal epidural space, which is the area surrounding the spinal cord. This condition requires immediate medical attention to prevent further damage to the spinal cord. SEA can be caused by bacteria that enters the spinal epidural space through contiguous spread from adjacent structures, haematogenous spread from concomitant infection, or direct infection. Patients with immunosuppression are at a higher risk of developing SEA. The most common causative micro-organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Symptoms of SEA include fever, back pain, and focal neurological deficits according to the segment of the cord affected.

To diagnose SEA, doctors may perform blood tests, blood cultures, and an infection screen. An MRI of the whole spine is necessary to identify the extent of the abscess. If the primary source of infection is not clear, further investigations may be required, such as echocardiography and dental x-rays. Treatment for SEA involves a long-term course of antibiotics, which may be refined based on culture results. Patients with large or compressive abscesses, significant or progressive neurological deficits, or those who are not responding to antibiotics alone may require surgical evacuation of the abscess.

If a patient is under section 2 or 3, treatment can be administered even if they refuse it. Patients who are detained under section 3 can be treated against their will, regardless of their capacity. However, after three months, if the patient still refuses treatment, an impartial psychiatrist must review the proposed medication and agree with the treating team’s plan. The Mental Health Act takes precedence over the Mental Capacity Act, so a best interests meeting is not necessary. The treating team must consider the patient’s best interests, and in this case, they believe that medication is necessary for Rosie’s mental health. While benzodiazepines can alleviate agitation and distress, they are unlikely to improve her psychotic symptoms, so they are not a suitable option. If Rosie continues to refuse treatment after three months under section 3, a second opinion will be required.

Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

Effects of Different Anti-Arrhythmic Drugs on QT Interval

The QT interval is an important measure of cardiac repolarization, and abnormalities in this interval can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval.

Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin and ouabain can shorten the QT interval, even at therapeutic doses. This is due to their ability to shorten the atrial and ventricular refractory periods.

Class Ia drugs like disopyramide, class Ic drugs like flecainide, and class III drugs like amiodarone and sotalol all prolong the QT interval. Disopyramide can result in a long PR interval, while flecainide can cause a broad QRS or prolonged QT interval. Amiodarone is a class III drug that prolongs the QT interval, and sotalol causes dose-related prolongation of the QT interval.

β-blockers like atenolol have a neutral effect on the QT interval in patients with a normal QT interval. However, they can act to stabilise the QT interval in patients with long QT syndrome.

In summary, different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval, and it is important to monitor this interval when prescribing these medications.

The patient has flashers and floaters associated with vitreous detachment, which can lead to retinal detachment. This is not central retinal artery occlusion, ischaemic optic neuropathy, macular degeneration, or temporal arteritis.

Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.

Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.

Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.

Hyperkalaemia is caused by ACE inhibitor.

Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

If a patient has a lacunar stroke, they may experience a purely motor, purely sensory, or mixed motor and sensory deficit. A total anterior circulation infarct would cause unilateral weakness in the face, arm, and leg, as well as a homonymous hemianopia and symptoms of higher cerebral dysfunction. A posterior circulation infarct could result in a cerebellar or brainstem syndrome, loss of consciousness, or an isolated homonymous hemianopia. A partial anterior circulation infarct would lead to two of the following: unilateral weakness, homonymous hemianopia, and higher cerebral dysfunction. The absence of hemorrhage on a CT scan suggests that this is most likely a lacunar infarct, as there is only a purely sensory deficit.

Lacunar stroke is a type of ischaemic stroke that accounts for approximately 20-25% of all cases. It occurs when a single penetrating branch of a large cerebral artery becomes blocked, leading to damage in the internal capsule, thalamus, and basal ganglia. The symptoms of lacunar stroke can vary depending on the location of the blockage, but they typically involve either purely motor or purely sensory deficits. Other possible presentations include sensorimotor stroke, ataxic hemiparesis, and dysarthria-clumsy hand syndrome. Unlike other types of stroke, lacunar syndromes tend to lack cortical findings such as aphasia, agnosia, neglect, apraxia, or hemianopsia.

If a patient has had persistent oral ulceration for more than three weeks, it is recommended that they be referred to oral surgery under the two week wait. This is especially important for smokers, as it raises suspicion for malignancy. Referring the patient to oral surgery under the two week wait is more appropriate than routine referral, as it allows for a quicker diagnosis. Following up with a community dentist is not recommended, as it may cause delays in diagnosis if the patient does not attend. While chlorhexidine may provide symptom relief, it does not address the underlying diagnosis, and reassurance alone is also not sufficient. Medical practitioners should refer patients with this presentation to oral surgery.

When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery

Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but does not result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.

Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.

If a patient with tachyarrhythmia has a systolic BP below 90 mmHg, immediate DC cardioversion is necessary. This is because hypotension indicates an unstable tachyarrhythmia that can lead to shock, heart failure, syncope, or myocardial ischemia. Vagal maneuvers and adenosine are not recommended in cases of severe hypotension, and amiodarone is used for pharmacological cardioversion in broad complex tachycardia.

Management of Peri-Arrest Tachycardias

The Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines for the management of peri-arrest tachycardias have been simplified in the 2015 update. The previous separate algorithms for broad-complex tachycardia, narrow complex tachycardia, and atrial fibrillation have been replaced by a unified treatment algorithm. After basic ABC assessment, patients are classified as stable or unstable based on the presence of adverse signs such as hypotension, pallor, sweating, confusion, or impaired consciousness. If any of these signs are present, synchronised DC shocks should be given, up to a maximum of three shocks.

The treatment following this is based on whether the QRS complex is narrow or broad and whether the rhythm is regular or irregular. For broad-complex tachycardia, a loading dose of amiodarone followed by a 24-hour infusion is given if the rhythm is regular. If the rhythm is irregular, expert help should be sought as it could be due to atrial fibrillation with bundle branch block, atrial fibrillation with ventricular pre-excitation, or torsade de pointes.

For narrow-complex tachycardia, vagal manoeuvres followed by IV adenosine are given if the rhythm is regular. If unsuccessful, atrial flutter is considered, and rate control is achieved with beta-blockers. If the rhythm is irregular, it is likely due to atrial fibrillation, and electrical or chemical cardioversion is considered if the onset is less than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are usually the first-line treatment for rate control unless contraindicated. The full treatment algorithm can be found on the Resuscitation Council website.

If a person has undergone a splenectomy, their HbA1c level may be falsely elevated due to the longer lifespan of their red blood cells. HbA1c testing is commonly used to determine diabetes, as it provides an average blood glucose level over a three-month period, which is the lifespan of a typical red blood cell. A higher HbA1c reading can be caused by either a higher average blood glucose concentration or a longer red cell lifespan. Therefore, only a splenectomy would result in an overestimation of blood sugar levels, as it increases the lifespan of red blood cells, while all other conditions would decrease their lifespan and lower the HbA1c reading.

Understanding Glycosylated Haemoglobin (HbA1c) in Diabetes Mellitus

Glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is a commonly used measure of long-term blood sugar control in diabetes mellitus. It is produced when glucose attaches to haemoglobin in the blood at a rate proportional to the glucose concentration. The level of HbA1c is influenced by the lifespan of red blood cells and the average blood glucose concentration. However, certain conditions such as sickle-cell anaemia, GP6D deficiency, and haemodialysis can interfere with accurate interpretation of HbA1c levels.

HbA1c is believed to reflect the blood glucose levels over the past 2-4 weeks, although it is generally thought to represent the previous 3 months. It is recommended that HbA1c be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then every 6 months. The Diabetes Control and Complications Trial (DCCT) has studied the complex relationship between HbA1c and average blood glucose. The International Federation of Clinical Chemistry (IFCC) has developed a new standardised method for reporting HbA1c in mmol per mol of haemoglobin without glucose attached.

Understanding HbA1c is crucial in managing diabetes mellitus and achieving optimal blood sugar control.

Procyclidine is the usual treatment for acute dystonia caused by antipsychotics. This patient’s acute dystonic reaction can be reversed with procyclidine, which is an anticholinergic medication that blocks acetylcholine. This medication can alleviate muscle stiffness, sweating, and excessive saliva production, and can also improve walking ability in individuals with Parkinson’s disease. The patient most likely developed this reaction due to long-term use of antipsychotics and subsequent administration of metoclopramide. While midazolam and lorazepam can relieve anxiety, they are not effective in treating dystonia.

Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

The patient should be advised to avoid deep-sea diving for life due to the risk of pneumothorax. However, they can fly one week after having a chest x-ray showing complete resolution of the pneumothorax. There is no increased risk of catamenial pneumothoraces. Pleurodesis is not necessary for a single pneumothorax, whether primary or secondary.

Management of Pneumothorax: BTS Guidelines

Pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) has published updated guidelines for the management of spontaneous pneumothorax, which can be primary or secondary. Primary pneumothorax occurs without any underlying lung disease, while secondary pneumothorax is associated with lung disease.

The BTS guidelines recommend that patients with a rim of air less than 2cm and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with a larger rim of air or shortness of breath should undergo aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, patients over 50 years old with a rim of air greater than 2cm or shortness of breath should undergo chest drain insertion. Aspiration may be attempted for those with a rim of air between 1-2cm, but chest drain insertion is necessary if aspiration fails.

For iatrogenic pneumothorax, observation is usually sufficient, but chest drain insertion may be necessary in some cases. Ventilated patients and those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) may require chest drain insertion. If a patient has persistent or recurrent pneumothorax, video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) may be necessary.

Patients should be advised to avoid smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes. Fitness to fly is an absolute contraindication, but patients may travel 1 week after successful drainage if there is no residual air. Scuba diving should be permanently avoided unless the patient has undergone bilateral surgical pleurectomy and has normal lung function and chest CT scan postoperatively.

Overall, the BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the management of pneumothorax, taking into account the type of pneumothorax, patient characteristics, and potential complications.

The most common causes of a mass in the anterior mediastinum are referred to as the 4 T’s: teratoma, terrible lymphadenopathy, thymic mass, and thyroid mass. The woman’s symptoms and positive anti-AChR suggest that she may have myasthenia gravis, which requires a CT chest to check for a thymoma. Other conditions that may show up on a CT chest, such as benign lung nodules, lung tumors, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis, are unlikely given her presentation. It is important to note that the mediastinum is not the same as the lungs, and therefore, all other answer options are incorrect as the question specifically asks for an anterior mediastinal mass.

The Mediastinum and its Regions

The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.

The superior mediastinum is located between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5 and contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve.

The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.

In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area of the chest that contains many important structures and is divided into four distinct regions.

Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is a condition characterized by waxy yellow shin lesions that often occur in individuals with diabetes.

Understanding Shin Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristic Features

Shin lesions can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. The four most common conditions that can cause shin lesions are erythema nodosum, pretibial myxoedema, pyoderma gangrenosum, and necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum.

Erythema nodosum is characterized by symmetrical, tender, erythematous nodules that heal without scarring. It is often caused by streptococcal infections, sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, or certain medications such as penicillins, sulphonamides, or oral contraceptive pills.

Pretibial myxoedema, on the other hand, is seen in Graves’ disease and is characterized by symmetrical, erythematous lesions that give the skin a shiny, orange peel appearance.

Pyoderma gangrenosum initially presents as a small red papule, which later develops into deep, red, necrotic ulcers with a violaceous border. It is idiopathic in 50% of cases, but may also be seen in inflammatory bowel disease, connective tissue disorders, and myeloproliferative disorders.

Finally, necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum is characterized by shiny, painless areas of yellow/red skin typically found on the shin of diabetics. It is often associated with telangiectasia.

In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis and characteristic features of shin lesions can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

After a myocardial infarction, Sertraline is the preferred SSRI due to its extensive research in this patient population compared to other SSRIs. It is important to note that the patient may also be taking antiplatelets and should be cautioned about the potential for dyspepsia and gastrointestinal bleeding. Co-prescribing a proton pump inhibitor should be considered.

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

Acute angle closure glaucoma is identified by symptoms such as eye pain, reduced visual clarity, aggravation with mydriasis (e.g. in a dark cinema), and haloes around lights. It may also cause a general feeling of illness. Migraine with aura is an unlikely diagnosis as it does not involve eye pain. Sudden painless loss of vision is a symptom of vitreous haemorrhage. While optic neuritis can cause eye pain, it typically does not worsen with mydriasis.

Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

When taking oral bisphosphonates, it is important to swallow them with plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or any other oral medication. After taking the medication, the patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes. Effective counseling on administration is necessary as oral bisphosphonates can cause oesophageal retention and increase the risk of esophagitis. Oesophageal disorders and an unsafe swallow are contraindications for oral bisphosphonate therapy. Acute phase response may occur as a reaction to the bisphosphonate therapy itself, not the route of administration. Long-term bisphosphonate therapy is associated with atypical stress fractures, but this risk is not affected by the route of administration. Hypocalcaemia may occur with long-term bisphosphonate therapy, but it is not associated with the route of administration.

Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

When it comes to treating hypertension, there are several medications to choose from. NICE recommends an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB) as first-line treatment for those under 55, while calcium channel blockers (CCBs) are preferred for patients over 55 and those of Afro-Caribbean origin. Beta blockers, once a common choice, are no longer recommended as first-line treatment.

If initial treatment is not effective, a thiazide diuretic can be added to an ACE inhibitor or ARB and CCB. Alpha blockers, such as doxazosin, are no longer commonly used for hypertension and are contraindicated in patients with urinary incontinence. Valsartan, an ARB, is an alternative for patients who cannot tolerate an ACE inhibitor.

For elderly patients with isolated systolic hypertension, a dihydropyridine CCB like amlodipine is the drug of choice, especially if thiazides are not an option. Beta blockers should be used with caution in patients with asthma and are not indicated in this case. By carefully considering the patient’s age, ethnicity, and medical history, healthcare providers can choose the most appropriate medication for treating hypertension.