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Question 1
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman who is pregnant at 37 weeks gestation develops spontaneous labour. She has a history of pre-eclampsia. Her blood pressure is 170/110 mmHg.
Blood results are as follows:
Hb 110 g/L
Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 100 * 109/L
(150 - 400)
WBC 15.0 * 109/L
(4.0 - 11.0)
The medical team decides to administer magnesium sulphate to the patient. However, shortly after receiving the medication, the patient experiences respiratory depression with a respiratory rate of 6 breaths per minute.
What is the urgent treatment required for this patient?Your Answer: Calcium gluconate
Explanation:The patient is showing signs of severe pre-eclampsia, including high blood pressure and thrombocytopenia, and requires urgent delivery and magnesium sulphate. While magnesium sulphate is effective in preventing and treating seizures, it can also cause toxicity, which is characterized by loss of deep tendon reflexes, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrest. In this case, the patient is likely experiencing magnesium sulphate toxicity due to respiratory depression. The appropriate treatment is calcium gluconate, which is the first-line option for this condition. BiPAP and CPAP are not suitable in this situation, and intubation and ventilation should only be considered if non-invasive strategies fail.
Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment
Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.
In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about BCG vaccination?
Your Answer: Is presently routinely offered in the UK at age 16 years
Correct Answer: Provides protection against leprosy
Explanation:The Versatility of the BCG Vaccine
The BCG vaccine was originally developed to combat Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria responsible for tuberculosis. However, research has shown that it also provides protection against leprosy, with up to 80% efficacy. This is because the organism that causes leprosy, M. leprae, is also a type of Mycobacterium. While the potential use of the BCG vaccine in clinical practice for leprosy is still being considered, it is currently recommended for newborns at high risk of exposure.
Previously, the BCG vaccine was given to children at comprehensive school entry (age 11-13). However, recent updates suggest that it should be administered to neonates in high-risk groups. In addition to its use in preventing tuberculosis and leprosy, the BCG vaccine has also been found to stimulate the immune system for the treatment of some cancers, particularly bladder carcinoma.
It is important to note that the BCG vaccine should not be given to children who have a strongly positive tuberculin test. Before administration, a Mantoux test should be documented to ensure the safety and efficacy of the vaccine. Overall, the versatility of the BCG vaccine highlights its potential to combat a range of diseases and conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You have just helped deliver a 3 week premature baby and are asked to quickly assess the current APGAR score. The baby has a slow irregular cry, is pink all over, a slight grimace, with a heart rate of 140 BPM and moving both arms and legs freely. What is the current APGAR score?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 8
Explanation:The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents to his GP with ongoing sleep issues due to tension in his relationship with his girlfriend. He feels she is distant and suspects she is spending time with her ex-boyfriend who works in the same office. Upon further questioning, he reveals a history of feeling uninterested in past relationships and struggles with mood swings. He expresses feeling alone in the world and that even his friends are against him. Although he self-harms, he denies any suicidal thoughts. A referral to psychiatry leads to a diagnosis of borderline personality disorder. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT)
Explanation:Dialectical behaviour therapy (DBT) is an effective treatment for borderline personality disorder, as it is specifically designed to help individuals who experience intense emotions. Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is not a targeted therapy for personality disorder patients and is more beneficial for those with depression or anxiety-related conditions. Exposure and response prevention therapy (ERP) is a treatment option for patients with obsessive-compulsive disorder, while eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy (EMDR) is a treatment option for patients with post-traumatic stress disorder.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A premature infant is born at 30 weeks gestation through a spontaneous vaginal delivery. The amniotic fluid did not show any signs of meconium staining. However, the baby develops sternal recession, tachypnea, grunting, and cyanosis shortly after birth. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS)
Explanation:When answering questions about respiratory issues in newborns, it is important to consider the risk factors involved. Prematurity is the primary risk factor for neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS), while caesarean section increases the risk of tachypnea of the newborn (TTN). Meconium staining is a significant risk factor for aspiration pneumonia.
Symptoms of NRDS typically include respiratory distress that worsens over the first few days after birth. TTN, on the other hand, is characterized by rapid breathing shortly after birth, which often resolves within the first day of life. A chest X-ray can be helpful in diagnosing these conditions. NRDS is typically indicated by a diffuse ground glass appearance in the lungs, low lung volumes, and a bell-shaped thorax. TTN, on the other hand, may show a pattern similar to heart failure on the X-ray, with interstitial edema and pleural effusions, but with a normal heart size and rapid resolution of the pattern within a few days.
Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants
Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.
The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.
Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old primigravida presents to your clinic with a complaint of persistent vomiting. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing this symptom for the past four days. Upon examination, you note that she has a fast heart rate, low blood pressure upon standing, and her urine test shows the presence of ketones. What is the most significant risk factor for hyperemesis gravidarum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Twin pregnancy
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum, a severe form of nausea and vomiting in pregnancy, is associated with multiple pregnancies, molar pregnancies, young maternal age, first pregnancy, and obesity. The condition may be caused by high beta hCG and oestrogen levels, nutritional deficiencies, and gastric dysfunction due to high progesterone levels. Prolonged and frequent vomiting can be problematic.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The blood results of a 58-year-old man were analyzed, revealing the following plasma values: Total Ca2+ at 2.80 mmol/l (normal range: 2.20–2.60 mmol/l), Albumin at 40 g/l (normal range: 35–55 g/l), PO43− at 0.25 mmol/l (normal range: 0.70–1.40 mmol/l), Alkaline phosphatase at 170 iu/l (normal range: 30–130 IU/l), and Parathyroid hormone (PTH) at 8 ng/l (normal range: 10–65 ng/l). Based on these results, what condition is this patient likely experiencing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell lung cancer
Explanation:Disorders of Parathyroid Hormone: Causes and Effects
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) plays a crucial role in regulating calcium and phosphate levels in the body. However, various disorders can disrupt this delicate balance, leading to a range of health problems. Here are some common disorders of PTH and their effects:
Squamous Cell Lung Cancer
In some cases of squamous cell lung cancer, breast cancer, and renal cell carcinomas, the body produces parathyroid-related protein (PTHrP), which mimics the action of PTH. This leads to increased calcium and decreased phosphate levels, as well as elevated alkaline phosphatase due to increased bone turnover. However, unlike primary hyperparathyroidism, PTH levels are lowered due to negative feedback.Chronic Renal Failure
In chronic renal failure, the body’s ability to convert 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to calcitriol is impaired. This results in decreased calcium and increased phosphate reabsorption, leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism as the body tries to compensate for low calcium levels.Primary Hyperparathyroidism
In primary hyperparathyroidism, the parathyroid glands produce too much PTH, leading to elevated calcium levels and decreased phosphate levels. This can cause a range of symptoms, including bone pain, kidney stones, and digestive issues.Post-Thyroidectomy
Thyroidectomy, or the surgical removal of the thyroid gland, can sometimes result in damage or removal of the parathyroid glands. This leads to low PTH levels, which in turn causes low calcium and high phosphate levels. This can cause muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and other symptoms.Pseudohypoparathyroidism
In pseudohypoparathyroidism, the body’s cells fail to respond appropriately to PTH, leading to elevated PTH levels but low calcium and high phosphate levels. This can cause a range of symptoms, including muscle spasms, seizures, and developmental delays.In conclusion, disorders of PTH can have a significant impact on the body’s calcium and phosphate levels, leading to a range of symptoms and health problems. Understanding these disorders and their effects is crucial for effective diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A new test for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is trialled in a high-prevalence HIV population. Sensitivity is found to be 90%, and specificity 94%. The test is then used in a population with a low prevalence of HIV.
Which one of the following statements about the test is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The negative predictive value will be lower in the high-prevalence population
Explanation:Impact of Disease Prevalence on Test Accuracy: Explained
The accuracy of a medical test is influenced by various factors, including disease prevalence in the population being tested. In a high-prevalence population, the negative predictive value of a test will be lower as fewer people will have a negative test result. However, the sensitivity and specificity of the test should remain similar in different populations assuming the test has been rigorously evaluated. The positive predictive value will also be lower in a high-prevalence population unless the sensitivity and specificity of the test are both 100%. Therefore, it is important to consider disease prevalence when interpreting the accuracy of a medical test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby within the last 24 hours. She has no plans of having another child anytime soon and wishes to begin a long-term contraceptive method. The patient has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding and intends to exclusively breastfeed.
What would be the most suitable contraception for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel intrauterine system
Explanation:The Levonorgestrel intrauterine system is the appropriate choice for this patient as it is a long-acting contraceptive that can also help prevent heavy menstrual bleeding. It can be inserted immediately as the patient is within 48 hours of childbirth. The Copper intrauterine device should be avoided in those with a history of heavy menstrual bleeding. The lactational amenorrhoea method is only effective for up to 6 months post-partum, and progesterone injections must be repeated every 10-12 weeks, making them unsuitable for this patient’s desire for a long-term contraceptive.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old soccer player hits the side of his head on a goal post while attempting to make a save. Initially, he seems disoriented but quickly recovers and walks off the field without assistance. However, after the game ends, approximately 60 minutes later, he experiences confusion and complains of a severe headache. He stumbles and falls before becoming drowsy and starting to lose consciousness. Emergency services are contacted.
Which artery is most likely to have been affected by the impact to this individual's head?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Head: Middle Meningeal, Temporal, Occipital, Supraorbital, and Posterior Auricular Arteries
The head is supplied by various arteries, each with its own unique course and function. One of these arteries is the middle meningeal artery, which arises from the maxillary artery and enters the middle cranial fossa via the foramen spinosum. It supplies the dura and calvaria and can be injured by a direct blow to the side of the head, resulting in an extradural hematoma.
Another important artery is the temporal artery, which originates from the external carotid artery and supplies various parts of the scalp and face. It is commonly biopsied to aid in the diagnosis of temporal arthritis.
The occipital artery, on the other hand, arises from the external carotid artery at the level of the digastric muscle and supplies the neck and auricular structures. It is not involved in blunt trauma to the side of the head.
The supraorbital artery, a branch of the ophthalmic artery, supplies the extraocular muscles and exits the orbit via the supraorbital notch. It is not damaged in blunt injuries to the side of the head as it runs in the frontal area.
Lastly, the posterior auricular artery, a branch of the external carotid artery, supplies the auricle and the scalp posterior to it. It ascends posteriorly to the parotid gland, between the auricular cartilage and mastoid process of the temporal bone.
Understanding the different arteries of the head is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurosurgery
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