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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy is referred by his GP with a two-week history of general malaise, fatigue and pharyngitis. On examination, multiple small lymph nodes were palpable in the neck, axillae and groins.
Investigations revealed:
Haemoglobin 125 g/L (130-180)
WBC 16.0 ×109/L (4-11)
Platelets 160 ×109/L (150-400)
Blood film Lymphocytosis noted
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus infection (EBV)
Explanation:Differentiating between Acute EBV, CMV, and Toxoplasmosis
Acute EBV typically presents with symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, fever, pharyngitis, and bilateral lymphadenopathy. Heterophil antibody tests are usually positive. On the other hand, CMV mononucleosis has a lower incidence of pharyngitis and cervical adenopathy. The clinical presentation of CMV infectious mononucleosis may be similar to EBV, but it is usually not accompanied by posterior cervical adenopathy, and non-exudative pharyngitis is minimal or absent.
Primary toxoplasmosis is acquired through the ingestion of undercooked meat containing toxoplasma cysts or fresh food contaminated by toxoplasma excreted in cats’ faeces. The infection is asymptomatic in 80-90% of immunocompetent patients. Highly characteristic of toxoplasmosis is asymmetrical lymphadenopathy limited to an isolated lymph node group. Patients with toxoplasmosis have little or no fever, fatigue, or pharyngitis.
Mild transient thrombocytopenia is not uncommon in EBV infectious mononucleosis. In contrast, patients with toxoplasmosis have little or no fever, fatigue, or pharyngitis. The diagnosis of ALL and HD is made by a combination of blood film examination, bone marrow aspiration and biopsy, and lymph node biopsy.
In summary, while EBV and CMV mononucleosis may have similar clinical presentations, the absence of posterior cervical adenopathy and minimal or absent non-exudative pharyngitis may indicate CMV. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy limited to an isolated lymph node group is highly characteristic of toxoplasmosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Sophie is a 2-year-old girl who is brought in by her father. She has had a fever overnight, along with a sore throat and cough. Her father is worried that she seems more tired than usual today. During the examination, you note the following:
Temperature 38.5 degrees
Heart rate 160 bpm
Respiratory rate 40 / min
Oxygen saturation 95%
The lungs are clear, but there is inflammation and redness in the throat, and there are swollen lymph nodes in the neck.
According to the NICE traffic light system for assessing fever in children, which of the following is considered 'amber'?Your Answer: Temperature 38 degrees
Correct Answer: Heart rate 155 bpm
Explanation:The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A mother seeks advice on routine vaccination for her 4-month-old baby who was born in Spain and has already received their 2-month vaccinations. These included DTaP/IPV/Hib/Hep B, meningococcal group B, and the oral rotavirus vaccine. What vaccinations will this infant require for their 4-month vaccination according to the current UK routine immunization schedule?
Your Answer: DTaP/IPV/Hib/Hep B + pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)
Correct Answer: DTaP/IPV/Hib/Hep B + rotavirus + pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV)
Explanation:The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy complaining of acute abdominal pain is brought to see you by his mother. His mother tells you that he has been having bouts of abdominal pain for the last few days that she thought would settle with time. In addition, she tells you that he has also developed a rash on his legs and has been complaining that his knees and ankles are sore. He is opening his bowels normally and passing urine normally. Prior to the last few days he has been entirely well. He has no significant past medical history and is not on any regular medications.
You examine him and he is afebrile and alert. His blood pressure is 118/82 mmHg. There is no significant lymphadenopathy. His abdomen is soft with no masses. He has some mild tenderness on deep palpation around the umbilicus and lower abdomen. There is an obvious purpuric rash over the extensor surfaces of his legs and buttocks. You also notice a few similar lesions on the extensor surfaces of his arms. His trunk is unaffected by the rash.
He has full range of movements in his joints which are not inflamed, however there is discomfort when manipulating his knees and ankles and his ankles appear slightly puffy.
Which of the following tests is most useful in guiding further management of this patient?Your Answer: Blood film
Correct Answer: Urine dipstick
Explanation:Henoch-Schönlein Purpura (HSP) in Children
Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is a vasculitic condition that commonly affects children between the ages of 3 and 10. The core clinical features of HSP include a characteristic skin rash, joint pain, periarticular oedema, renal involvement, and abdominal pain. The skin rash, known as ‘palpable’ purpura, typically affects the buttocks and extensor surfaces of the legs and arms. Renal involvement can lead to hypertension, haematuria, and proteinuria, which can result in nephrotic and nephritic syndromes.
Urine dipstick testing is essential in making a clinical diagnosis and guiding management and follow-up. Regular follow-up is necessary during the convalescent period as HSP can lead to chronic renal problems in some patients. Therefore, early detection and management of renal manifestations are crucial in preventing long-term complications. If left untreated, HSP can cause significant morbidity and mortality in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A health visitor expresses concern about the head growth of a 6-month-old girl who has moved from the 50th to the 91st centile in the last 2 months. Which of the following is not a likely cause for this change?
Your Answer: Hydrocephalus
Correct Answer: Craniosynostosis e.g. Crouzon's syndrome
Explanation:Individuals with Crouzon’s syndrome typically have a reduced cranial size.
Understanding Macrocephaly in Children
Macrocephaly is a condition characterized by an abnormally large head circumference in children. There are several possible causes of macrocephaly, including a normal variant, chronic hydrocephalus, chronic subdural effusion, neurofibromatosis, gigantism (such as Soto’s syndrome), metabolic storage diseases, and bone problems like thalassaemia.
In some cases, macrocephaly may be a normal variant and not a cause for concern. However, it is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocephaly in order to determine the appropriate treatment and management. Chronic hydrocephalus, for example, may require surgical intervention to relieve pressure on the brain. Neurofibromatosis may require ongoing monitoring and management to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl presents with complaints of right knee pain and a limp. Her parents report that over the last two to three days she has been experiencing pain in the right knee, which they thought would settle but as things have persisted, they wanted her to be reviewed. There is no history of trauma or injury. There is no current systemic unwellness and no recent illness is reported. Her past medical history includes asthma and left slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) which required operative fixation about 18 months ago. On examination, she is systemically well and there is no obvious swelling, erythema or heat affecting the right knee which has a full range of movement.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Refer for X ray of the right knee
Correct Answer: Advise anti-inflammatory use, ice, and elevation of the knee
Explanation:Importance of Examining Adjacent Joints in Orthopaedic Cases
It is crucial to examine the joints above and below when an orthopaedic problem presents. This principle applies to all age groups, including paediatric cases. For instance, when a child presents with right knee pain, the clinician should also consider hip and ankle pathology.
In cases where the patient has a history of left slipped upper femoral epiphysis (SUFE) and no signs of knee pathology, the clinician should pay particular attention to adjacent joints, especially the hip. According to NICE CKS, urgent assessment is necessary if a child over nine years old experiences painful or restricted hip movements, especially internal rotation, to exclude slipped upper femoral epiphysis. This condition is more common in this age group and requires immediate investigation, including AP and lateral X-rays of the hips.
In summary, examining adjacent joints is crucial in orthopaedic cases, and clinicians should pay attention to any relevant history and symptoms to ensure prompt and accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Correct
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A parent brings her 2-year-old daughter for her routine vaccinations. What would be a contraindication for her to receive the vaccinations?
Your Answer: Current febrile illness
Explanation:If a child is experiencing a minor illness without fever or systemic illness, it is not necessary to postpone their vaccination. However, if the child is acutely unwell, it is recommended to delay the vaccination until they have fully recovered.
Guidelines for Safe Immunisation
Immunisation is an important aspect of public health, and the Department of Health has published guidelines to ensure its safe administration. The guidelines, titled ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’, outline general contraindications to immunisation, situations where vaccines should be delayed, and specific contraindications to live vaccines.
General contraindications include confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or to another component in the relevant vaccine, such as egg protein. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection.
Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression. In the case of the DTP vaccine, vaccination should be deferred in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition.
However, there are several situations where immunisation is not contraindicated. These include asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), being breastfed, a previous history of natural infection with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella, a history of neonatal jaundice, a family history of autism, neurological conditions such as Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids.
Overall, these guidelines aim to ensure the safe administration of vaccines and protect individuals from infectious diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Correct
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The parents of a 6-month-old baby have brought their child to see you due to ongoing problems with reflux.
The baby has been seen in paediatric outpatients and was started on ranitidine. You can see from the clinic letters that this was started at an initial dose of 1 mg/kg three times a day but to achieve symptom control it has been titrated to 3 mg/kg TDS. The higher dose seems to be controlling symptoms well.
The paediatricians have asked you to continue to prescribe the ranitidine at a dose of 3 mg/kg until they review the child again in four weeks time.
You weigh the child today and the current weight is 6 kg. Ranitidine oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml.
What is the correct dosage in millilitres to prescribe?Your Answer: 1 ml TDS
Explanation:Calculation of Ranitidine Dose for a 5 kg Child
When administering medication to a child, it is important to calculate the correct dosage based on their weight. In this case, the child weighs 5 kg and the prescribed dose of ranitidine is 3 mg/kg TDS. To calculate the correct dose, we multiply the child’s weight by the prescribed dose: 5 x 3 = 15 mg TDS.
The oral solution of ranitidine is available in a concentration of 75 mg/5 ml. This means that there is 15 mg of ranitidine in 1 ml of the solution. Therefore, the correct dose for the child is 1 ml TDS.
It is important to ensure that the correct dosage is administered to avoid any potential adverse effects or ineffective treatment. By following the appropriate calculations and using the correct concentration of medication, healthcare professionals can ensure safe and effective treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are conducting a 12-week postnatal check on a baby boy and his mother. During the examination, you inquire about the child's immunisation schedule. The mother expresses concern about recent measles outbreaks and asks when her son will receive his first MMR vaccine.
At what age is the first dose of the MMR vaccine typically administered?Your Answer: At 3 months of age
Correct Answer: At 12-13 months of age
Explanation:At the age of 12-13 months, the MMR vaccine is administered as a routine, followed by a Preschool booster at 3-4 years of age.
The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at specific intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, PCV, and Men B vaccines are given. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 Preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.
It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine is also offered to new students up to the age of 25 years at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine, while students going to university or college for the first time should contact their GP to have the vaccine before the start of the academic year.
The Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued as there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old child is brought to see you by their parents. They report that for the last couple of days the child has been unwell with a runny nose and 'wheezy cough'. There is no history of apnoea.
The child was born at 37 weeks via a normal vaginal delivery. There is no significant antenatal or postnatal history. The parents tell you that this is the first time the child has been significantly unwell.
The child usually eats well but over the last two days has been eating less and becoming breathless during meals. Despite the reduced amounts taken per meal, the child is maintaining their eating frequency.
On examination, the child looks comfortable at rest. Temperature is recorded as 37.9°C. There is no respiratory distress and no nasal flaring or grunting. Respiratory rate is 38/minute. Auscultation of the chest reveals fine inspiratory crackles and a slight high pitched wheeze heard throughout both lung fields. Oxygen saturations are 96% in room air.
Which of the following factors in this case should prompt acute hospital admission for paediatric assessment?Your Answer: Feeding history
Correct Answer: Oxygen saturations
Explanation:Bronchiolitis in Infants: When to Seek Hospital Admission
Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory illness in infants that can range from mild to severe. While most cases can be managed at home, severe cases may require hospital admission. It is important to be aware of the signs that indicate more severe disease and prompt immediate hospitalization. These signs include reduced feeding, lethargy, history of apnoea, respiratory rate over 60 breaths per minute, respiratory distress, cyanosis, and oxygen saturations of 95% or less.
It is especially important to seek medical attention for infants under 3 months of age and those born at less than 35 weeks gestation, as the threshold for admission should be lowered for these vulnerable populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is presented by his father with a widespread skin rash. The itching started 3 days ago and he has been experiencing fevers. Upon examination, the rash is composed of macules, papules, crusted lesions, and vesicles that are present on most of his body. The father has been administering ibuprofen to alleviate his son's fever and discomfort.
What is the probable diagnosis and why is ibuprofen not advisable in this case?Your Answer: The risk of Reye's syndrome
Correct Answer: The increased risk of necrotising fasciitis
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms are consistent with Chickenpox, as evidenced by the presence of lesions at different stages of healing, fever, and itching. However, it should be noted that the use of NSAIDs can increase the risk of necrotising fasciitis in these patients.
While ibuprofen is an NSAID that can be used in patients of any age, it is not the best option for this patient.
Aspirin should be avoided in children with Chickenpox due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome. In this case, ibuprofen is a safer alternative.
When used for short periods during acute febrile illnesses, the risk of gastrointestinal side effects from this medication is minimal.
Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life and cause shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious from four days before the rash appears until five days after. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever and an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading. The rash goes through stages of macular, papular, and vesicular. Management is supportive, with measures such as keeping cool and using calamine lotion. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin. Complications can include secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, pneumonia, encephalitis, and rare complications such as disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox.
One common complication of Chickenpox is secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, which can be increased by the use of NSAIDs. This can manifest as a single infected lesion or small area of cellulitis. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications of Chickenpox include pneumonia, encephalitis (which may involve the cerebellum), disseminated haemorrhagic Chickenpox, and very rarely, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis. It is important to note that school exclusion may be necessary, as Chickenpox is highly infectious and can be caught from someone with shingles. It is advised to avoid contact with others until all lesions have crusted over.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Correct
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A mother arrives with her 3-year-old daughter who was diagnosed with cow's milk protein allergy (CMPA) at 6 months old. She has been on a dairy-free diet and fed hydrolysed milk until she turned 2. Recently, she successfully completed the milk ladder and has been drinking raw milk for the past month without any adverse reactions. The mother is curious if this is typical or if her daughter was misdiagnosed earlier. IgE testing was conducted and came back normal.
What advice would you give to the mother of the 3-year-old girl?Your Answer: Milk tolerance is common by 3 years
Explanation:It is common for children with non-IgE-mediated cow’s milk protein allergy to become milk tolerant by the age of 3. This is typically achieved through exposure to increasing levels of milk protein via the milk ladder. Diagnosis of CMPA is based on clinical symptoms and withdrawal of cow’s milk protein-containing substances, followed by re-exposure. Lactose intolerance is rare in children under 3 years old. Milk tolerance is only uncommon in cases of IgE-mediated cow’s milk protein allergy.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 13
Correct
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Which one of the following is not a risk factor for sudden toddler death syndrome?
Your Answer: Female sex
Explanation:Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is more likely to occur in infants who sleep on their stomachs, have parents who smoke, share a bed with their parents, experience overheating or have their heads covered, and are born prematurely. Additionally, male infants are at a higher risk for SIDS than female infants.
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, and maternal drug use. SIDS incidence also tends to increase during the winter months. However, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS, such as breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers. In the event of a SIDS case, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy comes to the General Practitioner with his father complaining of bed-wetting, thirst and increasing lethargy for the past 2 weeks. The father reports that his son has lost some weight. The patient appears healthy and the examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals 4+ glucose and moderate ketones. His capillary blood glucose level is 16 mmol/l.
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Arrange for fasting blood sugar, haemoglobin A1c and Paediatric outpatient review within two weeks
Correct Answer: Acute Paediatric referral to be seen today
Explanation:Appropriate Management of Suspected Diabetes Mellitus in a Paediatric Patient
When a paediatric patient presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, along with a raised capillary blood glucose, diabetes mellitus is a likely diagnosis. This insidious onset over several weeks can make it difficult to detect, and children may appear well despite being in diabetic ketoacidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment on the same day to prevent any life-threatening complications.
While urine culture may be appropriate for suspected urinary tract infections, elevated blood glucose makes diabetes mellitus a more likely diagnosis. Therefore, arranging for fasting blood sugar, haemoglobin A1c, and paediatric outpatient review within two weeks is necessary.
Initiating insulin therapy in primary care is essential, but the patient will also need urgent secondary care investigation, such as blood gas analysis, to rule out ketoacidosis. The patient may require fluid resuscitation and extensive education regarding diabetes, which can be best accessed in secondary care.
Although measuring C-peptide may distinguish between different types of diabetes, it is usually unnecessary in patients with features suggestive of type I diabetes, as seen in this patient. Therefore, appropriate management of suspected diabetes mellitus in a paediatric patient involves prompt diagnosis, initiation of insulin therapy, and urgent secondary care investigation to prevent any life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are conducting a four-week baby check for a full-term newborn. The baby is gaining weight and feeding properly. During the examination, you observe a red lump the size of a bean in the umbilicus with thick white discharge. The abdomen is soft with regular bowel sounds, and the lump cannot be reduced. The baby has no fever. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Umbilical hernia
Correct Answer: Umbilical granuloma
Explanation:To treat umbilical granulomas, salt or silver nitrate cautery can be applied. These granulomas are a common occurrence in babies and appear as a painless lump in the umbilicus, often accompanied by discharge. The umbilical stump typically falls off within ten days of birth, but granulomas can form as the area heals. To speed up the healing process, table salt can be applied for thirty minutes, followed by rinsing the area. This treatment should be repeated twice daily for five days and usually results in resolution within three weeks. If salt treatment is ineffective, silver nitrate cautery can be used, but it’s important to protect the surrounding skin with petroleum jelly.
Paediatric Umbilical Disorders
Embryology plays a significant role in the development of umbilical disorders in children. The umbilicus has two umbilical arteries and one umbilical vein during development. After birth, the cord separates, and the umbilical ring closes. Umbilical hernia is a common disorder in neonates, with up to 20% of infants affected. It is more prevalent in premature infants and usually resolves spontaneously within three years. Strangulation is rare. Paraumbilical hernia is another disorder caused by defects in the linea alba near the umbilicus. It is less likely to resolve spontaneously than an umbilical hernia. Omphalitis is a severe condition caused by an infection of the umbilicus, usually by Staphylococcus aureus. It can spread rapidly through the umbilical vessels, leading to portal pyaemia and portal vein thrombosis. Treatment involves a combination of topical and systemic antibiotics. Umbilical granuloma is characterised by cherry red lesions surrounding the umbilicus, which may bleed on contact and discharge seropurulent fluid. Chemical cautery with silver nitrate is an effective treatment. Persistent urachus is characterised by urinary discharge from the umbilicus and is caused by the persistence of the urachus, which attaches to the bladder. It is associated with other urogenital abnormalities. Persistent vitello-intestinal duct presents as an umbilical discharge that discharges small bowel content. It is best imaged using a contrast study to delineate the anatomy and is managed by laparotomy and surgical closure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are called to give evidence in court in a case of suspected child abuse. The child in question is a 6-year-old boy., who you saw six months ago with burns on his arms. You are asked to give evidence related to the burns. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Your Answer: Burns with discrete edges are rarely a sign of abuse
Correct Answer: There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse
Explanation:- Infected burns are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Infected burns can indeed be a sign of abuse. Neglect in treating burns can lead to infection, which may indicate a lack of proper care and potentially abusive behavior.
- Burns from hot water where there are no splash marks are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns from hot water without splash marks are often a sign of abuse. These burns may indicate forced immersion, where the child is held in hot water intentionally, resulting in clear demarcation lines instead of splashes.
- Burns on the back are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns on the back can be indicative of abuse, as accidental burns typically occur on accessible areas like the front of the body, arms, and legs. Unusual burn locations, such as the back, should raise suspicion for abuse.
- There is no pathognomonic pattern of burns in child abuse:
- Correct: There is no single pathognomonic pattern of burns that definitively indicates child abuse. However, certain patterns, such as immersion burns, cigarette burns, and patterned burns (e.g., from an iron), are highly suspicious for abuse but not exclusively diagnostic. The absence of a single definitive pattern underscores the need for careful assessment and consideration of the context in which the burns occurred.
- Burns with discrete edges are rarely a sign of abuse:
- Incorrect: Burns with discrete edges can be a sign of abuse, especially when they are from forced immersion in hot water or contact with a hot object. These burns typically show clear boundaries, unlike accidental burns, which often have irregular edges.
- Infected burns are rarely a sign of abuse:
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 17
Correct
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A child of 6 years is suspected to have Giardiasis.
Which one of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment?Your Answer: Metronidazole
Explanation:Giardia Lamblia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Giardia lamblia is a parasite that can cause malabsorption and non-bloody diarrhea. The condition can be acquired locally, and stool microscopy may not always detect it. However, the good news is that it can be treated with metronidazole. Once treated, malabsorption typically resolves. If you experience symptoms of giardia lamblia, it is important to seek medical attention promptly to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A parent brings her 5-year-old son to the pediatrician's office. She informs you that her son has head lice and the school nurse has recommended keeping him at home until the treatment is finished to prevent the spread of head lice to other children. The parent asks for your advice on what to do next.
Your Answer: Remain off school until treatment finished
Correct Answer: No school exclusions apply
Explanation:There is no need to exclude children with head lice from school, so the answer to the question is no. The mother should be comforted that her daughter can still attend school, and there is no reason for the patient to stay home. Therefore, the other answer options for this question are incorrect.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and Chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered for 48 hours.
Regarding Chickenpox, Public Health England recommends that children should be excluded until all lesions are crusted over, while Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest that infectivity continues until all lesions are dry and have crusted over, usually about 5 days after the onset of the rash. It is important to follow official guidance and consult with healthcare professionals if unsure about exclusion periods for infectious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. He was prescribed Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100 mcg prn via a spacer before discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal.
What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Switch Clenil to Pulmicort (budesonide)
Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2017 for the management of asthma in children aged 5-16. These guidelines follow a stepwise approach, with treatment options based on the severity of the child’s symptoms. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonists (SABA) are recommended. If symptoms persist or worsen, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) may be used. Leukotriene receptor antagonists (LTRA) and long-acting beta agonists (LABA) may also be added to the treatment plan.
For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis and treatment. The stepwise approach for this age group includes an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS for newly-diagnosed asthma or uncontrolled symptoms. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose ICS with LTRA may be used. If symptoms still persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It is important to note that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment for patients with well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. Additionally, maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) may be used for combined ICS and LABA treatment, but only for LABAs with a fast-acting component. The definitions for low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for children and adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Correct
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A tall, twelve-year-old girl complains of mid-foot pain and stiffness that worsens with activity. Upon examination, there is tenderness over the head of the second metatarsal and diffuse swelling in the area. The patient denies any significant trauma.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Freiberg's disease
Explanation:Young women presenting with midfoot pain on walking should consider Freiberg’s disease as a possible cause. This condition occurs when the blood supply to the metatarsal head is interrupted, leading to infarction and flattening of the affected area. It is most commonly seen in adolescents, particularly tall, athletic females, whose bones may grow faster than blood vessels can keep up with. Symptoms include pain, swelling, and stiffness, which can be managed with conservative measures, although improvement may take up to a year. Other conditions that may cause similar symptoms include Morton’s neuroma, complex regional pain syndrome, and sesamoiditis, but each has its own unique presentation and risk factors.
Understanding Freiberg Disease
Freiberg disease, also known as metatarsal avascular necrosis, is a condition that occurs when the blood supply to the metatarsal head is disrupted, leading to infarction and flattening of the affected area. This condition is most commonly observed in adolescents, particularly tall, athletic females, as their bones may grow faster than blood vessels can keep up with. The second metatarsal is the most commonly affected area.
The symptoms of Freiberg’s disease include pain, swelling, and stiffness, which can be managed through conservative measures such as activity limitation, analgesia, and orthotic devices like walking casts or boots. While operative management is rarely necessary, it is important to inform patients that improvement can be gradual and may take up to a year.
Overall, understanding Freiberg disease is crucial for individuals who may be at risk, as early detection and management can help prevent further complications and improve overall outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A father brings his 3-month-old baby to the pediatrician's office, reporting that the infant has been vomiting and regurgitating after every feeding with a cow's milk-based formula. The vomiting is not forceful, and there is no unusual coloration with blood or bile. The baby doesn't appear to be in significant distress, but the father has also noticed that the child has persistent diarrhea. The father had to switch to formula as the mother was unable to produce enough breast milk. He tried a soy milk-based formula on the advice of a friend, but it did not make any difference.
What would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extensive hydrolysed formula milk
Explanation:Soya milk may not be a suitable alternative for infants with cow’s milk protein allergy as many of them are also intolerant to it. Amino acid-based formula is the recommended management for severe cases or when extensive hydrolysed formula milk is ineffective.
Breastfeeding is encouraged if the mother eliminates cows milk proteins from her diet, but it may not be practical if she cannot produce enough milk for the child. For infants with mild to moderate cows milk protein allergy who are formula-fed, extensive hydrolysed milk formula is the first-line management.
Gastro-oesophageal reflux (GORD) may be managed with omeprazole or ranitidine, but only after a 1-2 week trial of alginate therapy. However, if the infant presents with persistent diarrhoea, cow’s milk protein allergy is a more likely diagnosis than GORD.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Regarding croup, which is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Both dexamethasone and prednisolone are approved for treating it
Explanation:Croup is a respiratory infection that affects young children, typically those between 6 months and 3 years old. It is most common in the autumn and is caused by parainfluenza viruses. The main symptom is stridor, which is caused by swelling and secretions in the larynx. Other symptoms include a barking cough, fever, and cold-like symptoms. The severity of croup can be graded based on the child’s symptoms, with mild cases having occasional coughing and no audible stridor at rest, and severe cases having frequent coughing, prominent stridor, and significant distress or lethargy. Children with moderate or severe croup should be admitted to the hospital, especially if they are under 6 months old or have other airway abnormalities. Diagnosis is usually made based on clinical symptoms, but a chest x-ray can show subglottic narrowing. Treatment typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, and emergency treatment may include high-flow oxygen or nebulized adrenaline. While dexamethasone is the preferred and commonly used treatment for croup, prednisolone is not typically recommended as a first-line treatment for croup in clinical guidelines. Dexamethasone is the standard corticosteroid used due to its efficacy and safety profile in managing croup symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a 16-year-old girl with a diagnosis of mild depression. She has no past or current history of self harm or suicidal thoughts. She was initially seen six weeks ago and is being reviewed today for the second time over this period.
You discuss her symptoms and things are unchanged from when she was last seen four weeks ago with persistence of the mild depression. She tells you that she cannot see herself improving and is keen to engage with any help that may be appropriate.
What is the most appropriate approach in this instance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Offer psychological therapy in the form of individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive therapy behavioural therapy, or guided self-help
Explanation:NICE Guidance on Depression in Children and Young People
NICE has released guidance on how to manage depression in children and young people. For those presenting with mild depression, a ‘watchful waiting’ approach should be taken, with a further assessment arranged two weeks later. If the depression persists after up to four weeks of watchful waiting, psychological therapies such as individual non-directive supportive therapy, group cognitive behavioural therapy, or guided self-help can be offered for a limited period of around two to three months. Antidepressant medication should not be used at this stage. If the mild depression remains unresponsive to psychological therapies after two to three months, referral to tier 2-3 CAMHS can be made for further assessment and management. This guidance aims to provide a structured approach to managing depression in children and young people, ensuring that appropriate interventions are offered at the right time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You see a 3-month old baby girl with her mother. She is worried about her daughter's weight gain as she seems to be struggling. The baby is formula fed and frequently vomits after feeds. She also has loose stools which have been blood stained today. Her mother has noticed that she develops a raised red rash around her mouth after feeds. The baby seems to experience abdominal pain after feeds and draws her knees up to her stomach.
You suspect that the baby has cows milk protein allergy and discuss this with her mother before referring her for acute admission under the paediatric team for urgent assessment.
Which statement below regarding cows' milk protein allergy is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Typically presents in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants
Explanation:To confirm the suspected IgE mediated allergy diagnosis, an atopy patch test is utilized.
Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects approximately 3-6% of children and typically presents in formula-fed infants within the first 3 months of life. However, it can also occur in exclusively breastfed infants, although this is rare. Both immediate (IgE mediated) and delayed (non-IgE mediated) reactions can occur, with CMPA usually used to describe immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms of CMPI/CMPA include regurgitation and vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms such as irritability and crying, wheezing, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis.
Diagnosis of CMPI/CMPA is often based on clinical presentation, such as improvement with cow’s milk protein elimination. However, investigations such as skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein may also be performed. If symptoms are severe, such as failure to thrive, referral to a pediatrician is necessary.
Management of CMPI/CMPA depends on whether the child is formula-fed or breastfed. For formula-fed infants with mild-moderate symptoms, extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk is the first-line replacement formula, while amino acid-based formula (AAF) is used for infants with severe CMPA or if there is no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants with CMPI/CMPA are also intolerant to soy milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should continue breastfeeding while eliminating cow’s milk protein from their diet. Calcium supplements may be prescribed to prevent deficiency while excluding dairy from the diet. When breastfeeding stops, eHF milk should be used until the child is at least 12 months old and for at least 6 months.
The prognosis for CMPI/CMPA is generally good, with most children eventually becoming milk tolerant. In children with IgE-mediated intolerance, around 55% will be milk tolerant by the age of 5 years, while in children with non-IgE mediated intolerance, most will be milk tolerant by the age of 3 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A three-year-old is brought to see you by his father. The father describes how this morning his son 'blacked out'.
On further questioning, the child was having a tantrum and started crying, he then seemed to turn blue and collapsed. Dad reports that after the collapse the child seemed to stiffen briefly but then recovered quickly. The child was well before the incident and has been well since.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breath holding attack
Explanation:Breath Holding Attacks and Reflex Anoxic Seizures in Toddlers
Breath holding attacks and reflex anoxic seizures are two types of episodes that can occur in toddlers. Breath holding attacks are triggered by upset and can start as early as six months of age, with a peak incidence at two years and typically stopping by five years of age. During a breath holding attack, the child cries, holds their breath, and becomes cyanosed, which can sometimes lead to loss of consciousness and stiffening. However, rapid recovery is common, and no treatment is required.
On the other hand, reflex anoxic seizures are triggered by pain or discomfort, such as minor head trauma, cold food, or fright. After the trigger, the child becomes pale and falls to the floor, which can induce a seizure due to hypoxia resulting from cardiac asystole from vagal inhibition. These episodes are characterized by the pallor typically seen in reflex anoxic seizures.
It is important to note that breath holding attacks can be confused with other options, especially when the child stiffens or progresses to a seizure. However, understanding the differences between these two types of episodes can help parents and caregivers provide appropriate care and reassurance to the child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A father brings his 2-month-old daughter to the clinic. He expresses his concern about her constant crying in the evenings, which has been happening since birth. The baby also arches her back when crying. However, she appears to be content during the day and is exclusively breastfed, with regular wet and soiled nappies and appropriate weight gain. The physical examination reveals no abnormalities.
What advice would be most suitable in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise simple measures such as holding, gentle motion and white noise
Explanation:The baby is displaying signs that suggest infantile colic, which typically begins in the first few weeks of life and resolves by 3-4 months of age. The crying usually occurs in the late afternoon or evening, and the baby may arch their back or draw their knees up to their abdomen while crying. The symptoms appear to be ongoing but occasional, as the baby is happy during the day.
Although antimuscarinics have been shown to be effective, they come with serious adverse effects and are not recommended. Simeticone (Infacol) is commonly used, but there is no evidence to support its use and it is not recommended by CKS. Gaviscon is not necessary as there is no indication of gastro-oesophageal reflux. Low-lactose formula and paracetamol are also not recommended.
Since the baby is happy during the day, it is unlikely that they have cow’s milk protein allergy, which is rare in breastfed infants. Therefore, there is no need for the mother to exclude dairy from her diet.
Understanding Infantile Colic
Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.
Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Incorrect
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You see a 6-week old baby boy who has infantile colic. His dad describes episodes where he cries without any obvious trigger and he is unable to console him. The episodes last about 30 minutes and can occur up to approximately 12 times in 24 hours. He is otherwise very well. He is breastfed with formula top ups feeds in the evening and is gaining weight without any concerns.
Examination of the infant is normal.
Which statement below is true regarding infantile colic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Infantile colic normally resolves around 6 months of age
Explanation:Understanding Infantile Colic
Infantile colic is a common condition that affects infants under three months old. It is characterized by excessive crying and pulling up of the legs, usually worse in the evening. This condition affects up to 20% of infants, and its cause is unknown.
Despite its prevalence, the use of simeticone and lactase drops is not recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. These drops are commonly used to alleviate the symptoms of infantile colic, but their effectiveness is not supported by evidence. Therefore, it is important to seek medical advice before using any medication to treat infantile colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old boy has been brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his father for a routine check-up. The GP is assessing the development of the child.
Which of the following would be the most advanced developmental skill in this child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uses four or five words in a sentence
Explanation:Developmental Milestones for Infants
As infants grow and develop, they acquire new skills at different rates. However, there are certain milestones that most children will have achieved by a certain age. For instance, naming a simple picture in a book is a skill that is typically mastered by the age of 23 months. By 25-26 months, most children can name several body parts. Removing socks and shoes without assistance is a skill that is usually achieved by 27-28 months. By 31-32 months, throwing a ball overarm is a skill that most children will have mastered. Finally, using four or five words in a sentence is a milestone that is typically achieved by the age of 35-36 months. It’s important to remember that there is variation in the rate of development among infants, but these milestones can serve as a general guide for parents and caregivers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You see a 3-year-old girl who presents with fever, irritability and offensive smelling urine. A urine dipstick shows leucocytes+, nitrites -.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Send for MC&S and start antibiotic treatment
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for UTI in Children
According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), children between 3 months to 3 years old with suspected urinary tract infection (UTI) can start antibiotic treatment if their urine sample shows either leucocyte or nitrite positive, or both. However, it is still recommended to send off the sample for culture to confirm the diagnosis and ensure appropriate treatment. These guidelines aim to provide a standardized approach in managing UTI in children and prevent complications associated with untreated infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father complaining of bedwetting at night. He is wetting the bed almost every night. Despite trying to use the toilet before bedtime, limiting fluid intake before bedtime, and implementing a reward system for dry nights, there has been no improvement. What should be the next course of action for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enuresis alarm
Explanation:If lifestyle measures and a reward chart have not helped with nocturnal enuresis in a child over the age of 5, the next step would be to consider an enuresis alarm or desmopressin. As the child in this scenario is 6 years-old, the first-line treatment would be to try an enuresis alarm before considering other options. Desmopressin may be used first-line for children over the age of 7 who do not wish to use an enuresis alarm or if a short term solution is needed.
Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children
Nocturnal enuresis, also known as bedwetting, is a common condition in children. It is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine during sleep in children aged 5 years or older who have not yet achieved continence. There are two types of nocturnal enuresis: primary and secondary. Primary enuresis occurs when a child has never achieved continence, while secondary enuresis occurs when a child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing nocturnal enuresis, it is important to look for possible underlying causes or triggers such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset urinary tract infections. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Lifting and waking techniques and reward systems, such as star charts, can also be effective.
The first-line treatment for nocturnal enuresis is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up when they start to wet the bed. If an enuresis alarm is not effective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin can be used for short-term control, such as for sleepovers. It is important to note that reward systems should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights, such as using the toilet to pass urine before sleep. By following these management strategies, children with nocturnal enuresis can achieve continence and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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