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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after tripping on a rocky...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old male presents to the Emergency department after tripping on a rocky trail during a hike. He has scrapes on both shins and a heavily soiled deep wound on his right palm. An x-ray of his hand reveals the existence of a foreign object. The patient reports being up-to-date on his tetanus immunization (last vaccination 5 years ago). What measures should be taken in this situation?

      Your Answer: An immediate dose of tetanus immunoglobulin should be given

      Correct Answer: Both a reinforcing dose of vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin should be given immediately

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Tetanus-Prone Wounds

      When a patient presents with a wound that is prone to tetanus, such as one that has come into contact with soil and has a foreign body, immediate treatment is necessary. According to guidance, a fully immunised patient with a tetanus-prone wound should receive both a reinforcing dose of vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin. This treatment should be administered as soon as possible to prevent the development of tetanus, a serious and potentially fatal condition. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      38.7
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  • Question 2 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a Pretibial laceration and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with a Pretibial laceration and skin flap after injuring her leg on furniture at home. She is currently taking prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica. What is the optimal approach to managing this injury?

      Your Answer: Clean then suture the laceration with an absorbable suture

      Correct Answer: Clean then steristrip the laceration

      Explanation:

      Management of Pretibial Lacerations in Different Patient Populations

      In managing Pretibial lacerations, the approach may vary depending on the patient’s age and skin condition. For young patients with good skin, suturing with non-absorbable sutures is usually done and removed after seven to 10 days. However, for elderly patients with thin skin or those taking warfarin or steroids, suturing may not be possible due to fragile skin. In this case, the wound is cleaned thoroughly and steristripped meticulously to promote skin healing. A non-adherent dressing and light bandage are applied, and the patient is advised to elevate the leg.

      After a week, patients should be reviewed to monitor the wound’s progress. It is important to note that Pretibial lacerations may take several months to heal, and some may require skin grafting procedures. By tailoring the management approach to the patient’s specific needs, optimal wound healing can be achieved.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male presents to the Emergency department with complaints of severe chest pain that has been ongoing for an hour. Upon examination, he is tall and slim with a blood pressure reading of 135/80 mmHg and an early diastolic murmur. The electrocardiogram reveals 1 mm ST elevation in II, III, and aVF. What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Enoxaparin plus 300 mg of aspirin and 300 mg of clopidogrel

      Correct Answer: Urgent CT scan of chest

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Young Patient with Chest Pain

      This patient’s presentation of chest pain may not be typical and could potentially be caused by an inferior myocardial infarction or aortic artery dissection. However, thrombolysis could be dangerous and should be avoided until a proper diagnosis is made. Due to the patient’s young age, a wide range of potential diagnoses should be considered.

      The patient’s physical characteristics, including being tall and slim with an aortic diastolic murmur, suggest the possibility of Marfan’s syndrome and aortic dissection. To confirm this diagnosis, a thorough examination of all peripheral pulses should be conducted, as well as checking for discrepancies in blood pressure between limbs. Additionally, a plain chest x-ray should be scrutinized for signs of a widened mediastinum, an enlarged cardiac silhouette, or pleural effusions.

      In summary, a young patient presenting with chest pain requires a thorough differential diagnosis to determine the underlying cause. Careful examination of physical characteristics and diagnostic tests can help identify potential conditions such as Marfan’s syndrome and aortic dissection, and avoid potentially harmful treatments like thrombolysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      33.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male presents to the clinic with sudden onset of headache while engaging in sexual activity. He reports no focal neurological symptoms but complains of neck stiffness. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: CT head scan

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

      When a patient is suspected of having subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH), the initial diagnostic test should be a computerised tomography (CT) head scan. This test can identify over 93% of SAH cases within 24 hours. However, if the CT scan is normal or inconclusive and there is still a high clinical suspicion of SAH, a lumbar puncture should be performed.

      During the lumbar puncture, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is collected in four tubes and the red blood cell (RBC) count is determined in tubes one and four. If the RBC count does not decrease between these tubes and there is an elevated opening pressure, along with the development of xanthochromia (which may take up to 12 hours from the onset of headache), SAH is suggested. It is important to note that a Glasgow coma scale score of 15 does not rule out SAH.

      While magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) may be a useful diagnostic tool, it takes too long to arrange and CT head scans are an excellent first line investigation for SAH. Early diagnosis and treatment of SAH is crucial for improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      28.5
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old asthmatic has been feeling unwell for the past day, experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old asthmatic has been feeling unwell for the past day, experiencing a productive cough, fever, and occasional wheezing. Despite using his regular salbutamol inhaler, his shortness of breath has been worsening, prompting him to seek medical attention at the hospital.

      After being assessed by a colleague, the patient has received four rounds of back-to-back salbutamol nebulisers, one round of ipratropium nebulisers, and intravenous hydrocortisone. However, the patient's condition is deteriorating, with increasing respiratory rate and speaking in words only. His chest is now silent, and his oxygen saturation is at 90% despite receiving 10 litres of oxygen.

      What is the next recommended therapeutic intervention for this patient?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline nebuliser 5 mg 1:1000

      Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate 2 g

      Explanation:

      The British Thoracic Society guidelines should be followed for managing acute asthma, with patients stratified into moderate, severe, or life threatening categories. This patient has life threatening features and may require anaesthetic intervention for intubation and ventilation. Magnesium sulphate is the next important drug intervention. Adrenaline nebulisers have no role unless there are signs of upper airway obstruction. Aminophylline infusions are no longer recommended for initial stabilisation. Salbutamol inhalers can be used as a rescue measure in moderate exacerbations but have no role in severe or life threatening cases. Both prednisone and hydrocortisone are equally effective for steroid treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      48
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - As the orthopaedic foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the nurse...

    Correct

    • As the orthopaedic foundation year doctor, you have been requested by the nurse in charge to assess a patient who is experiencing acute shortness of breath and right-sided chest pain 8 days after undergoing total knee replacement surgery. The patient is a 66-year-old builder with a medical history of COPD and high cholesterol. He has a BMI of 35 and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. His vital signs are as follows: regular heart rate of 115 beats per minute, blood pressure of 135/60 mmHg, and oxygen saturation of 91% on room air. What is the most effective diagnostic test to perform on this patient?

      Your Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Pulmonary Embolism in Postoperative Patients

      In postoperative patients who become acutely unwell, pulmonary embolism (PE) must be considered and excluded as a crucial diagnosis. After initial resuscitation, diagnostic tests such as arterial blood gas sampling, full blood count, and C-reactive protein count are likely to be performed. However, these tests cannot confirm a specific diagnosis and may be abnormal in various conditions such as PE, pneumonia, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), pneumothorax, or cardiac events.

      D-dimer is often used to assess the risk of PE, but in patients with major risk factors such as surgery and minor risk factors such as obesity, a negative D-dimer cannot rule out PE. Chest X-ray can reveal underlying chest pathology, but it is rarely diagnostic for PE. The wedge-shaped infarcts that are often associated with PE are not common. However, a chest X-ray can determine whether a ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan is possible or whether a computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) is required.

      In patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), there is already an underlying V/Q mismatch, making it difficult to diagnose PE with a low probability result. Therefore, a CTPA is necessary to confirm or exclude the diagnosis of PE. Patients with suspected PE should be placed on a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) until a definitive diagnosis is made. In conclusion, clinicians must have a high degree of suspicion for PE in postoperative patients and use a diagnostic rationale to exclude other potential diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      83.6
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old homosexual male has tested positive for both IgM anti-HBc antibody and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old homosexual male has tested positive for both IgM anti-HBc antibody and hepatitis B surface antigens. What is his current disease state?

      Your Answer: Susceptible to infection

      Correct Answer: Acutely infected

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B and its Markers

      Hepatitis B surface antigen is a marker that indicates the presence of the hepatitis B virus in the cells of the host. This marker is present in both chronic and acute infections. Patients infected with hepatitis B will produce antibodies to the core antigen. IgM antibodies are indicative of acute infection and are not present in chronic infections. On the other hand, IgG antibodies to the core antigen are present even after the infection has been cleared.

      Antibodies to the surface antigen are produced in individuals who have been vaccinated against hepatitis B. This confers natural immunity once the infection has been cleared. the markers of hepatitis B is crucial in diagnosing and managing the infection. It is important to note that chronic hepatitis B can lead to serious liver damage and even liver cancer if left untreated. Therefore, early detection and treatment are essential in preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the...

    Correct

    • Which of the following indicates a verbal response score of 1 on the Glasgow Coma Scale?

      Your Answer: No response

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow coma scale is a widely used tool to assess the severity of brain injuries. It is scored between 3 and 15, with 3 being the worst and 15 the best. The scale comprises three parameters: best eye response, best verbal response, and best motor response. The verbal response is scored from 1 to 5, with 1 indicating no response and 5 indicating orientation.

      A score of 13 or higher on the Glasgow coma scale indicates a mild brain injury, while a score of 9 to 12 indicates a moderate injury. A score of 8 or less indicates a severe brain injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      13.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department after taking 60 of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department after taking 60 of his father's fluoxetine tablets about four hours ago.

      Which of the following symptoms is consistent with his reported ingestion?

      Your Answer: QRS duration of 120 ms (<100)

      Correct Answer: Vomiting

      Explanation:

      Safety and Adverse Effects of Fluoxetine Overdose

      Fluoxetine, an SSRI, is considered safe in overdose and has minimal adverse effects compared to tricyclic antidepressants. However, there have been rare reports of tachycardia occurring alongside symptoms such as tremors, drowsiness, nausea, and vomiting. If pupillary constriction or respiratory suppression is present, it may suggest an opiate overdose. On the other hand, a prolonged QRS complex is consistent with a tricyclic antidepressant overdose. Despite these potential symptoms, fluoxetine remains a relatively safe option for treating depression and anxiety disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old woman came in with an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG revealed...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman came in with an acute myocardial infarction. The ECG revealed ST segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is the most probable to be blocked?

      Your Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Correct Answer: Right coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Localisation of Myocardial Infarction

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a medical emergency that occurs when there is a blockage in the blood flow to the heart muscle. The location of the blockage determines the type of MI and the treatment required. An inferior MI is caused by the occlusion of the right coronary artery, which supplies blood to the bottom of the heart. This type of MI can cause symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea. It is important to identify the location of the MI quickly to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Proper diagnosis and management can improve the patient’s chances of survival and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      63.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Emergency Medicine (3/10) 30%
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