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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine check-up. During the examination,...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine check-up. During the examination, she seems generally healthy but slightly fatigued and experiences some breathlessness at rest. Her pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 72 bpm, while her blood pressure is 126/78 mmHg. Upon further examination, no concerning issues are found. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications.
      What is the probable reason for this woman's development of atrial fibrillation (AF)?

      Your Answer: Lone AF

      Explanation:

      Management of Atrial Fibrillation: The ABCD Approach

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common arrhythmia that can be classified as paroxysmal, persistent, or permanent. Treatment options for AF depend on the classification and can be categorized into rate control, rhythm control, and anticoagulation. The ABCD approach is a useful tool for managing AF.

      A – Anticoagulation: Patients with AF are at an increased risk for thromboembolic disease, and anticoagulation should be considered in high-risk patients where the benefit outweighs the risk of hemorrhage.

      B – Better symptom control: Rate control is aimed at controlling the ventricular response rate to improve symptoms. Rhythm control is aimed at restoring and maintaining sinus rhythm to improve symptoms.

      C – Cardiovascular risk factor management: Management of underlying cardiovascular risk factors such as hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia can help reduce the risk of AF recurrence and complications.

      D – Disease management: Management of underlying conditions associated with AF, such as valvular heart disease and heart failure, can help improve AF outcomes.

      In summary, the ABCD approach to managing AF involves anticoagulation, better symptom control, cardiovascular risk factor management, and disease management. This approach can help improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an irregularly irregular and tachycardic pulse, and a systolic murmur is heard on auscultation. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and right axis deviation, while an echocardiogram shows an atrial septal defect.
      What is true about the development of the atrial septum?

      Your Answer: Babies with atrial septal defects are typically cyanosed at birth

      Correct Answer: The septum secundum grows down to the right of the septum primum

      Explanation:

      During embryonic development, the septum primum grows down from the roof of the primitive atrium and fuses with the endocardial cushions. It initially has a hole called the ostium primum, which closes as the septum grows downwards. However, a second hole called the ostium secundum develops in the septum primum before fusion can occur. The septum secundum then grows downwards and to the right of the septum primum and ostium secundum. The foramen ovale is a passage through the septum secundum that allows blood to shunt from the right to the left atrium in the fetus, bypassing the pulmonary circulation. This defect closes at birth due to a drop in pressure within the pulmonary circulation after the infant takes a breath. If there is overlap between the foramen ovale and ostium secundum or if the ostium primum fails to close, an atrial septal defect results. This defect does not cause cyanosis because oxygenated blood flows from left to right through the defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 3 - A 59-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit from the Coronary...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit from the Coronary Care Ward. He has suffered from an acute myocardial infarction two days earlier. On examination, he is profoundly unwell with a blood pressure of 85/60 mmHg and a pulse rate of 110 bpm. He has crackles throughout his lung fields, with markedly decreased oxygen saturations; he has no audible cardiac murmurs. He is intubated and ventilated, and catheterised.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 195 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Troponin T 5.8 ng/ml <0.1 ng/ml
      Urine output 30 ml in the past 3 h
      ECG – consistent with a myocardial infarction 48 h earlier
      Chest X-ray – gross pulmonary oedema
      Which of the following fits best with the clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cardiogenic Shock Following Acute Myocardial Infarction

      Cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction is a serious condition that requires prompt and appropriate treatment. One potential treatment option is the use of an intra-aortic balloon pump, which can provide ventricular support without compromising blood pressure. High-dose dopamine may also be used to preserve renal function, but intermediate and high doses can have negative effects on renal blood flow. The chance of death in this situation is high, but with appropriate treatment, it can be reduced to less than 10%. Nesiritide, a synthetic natriuretic peptide, is not recommended as it can worsen renal function and increase mortality. Nitrate therapy should also be avoided as it can further reduce renal perfusion and worsen the patient’s condition. Overall, careful consideration of treatment options is necessary to improve outcomes for patients with cardiogenic shock following an acute myocardial infarction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - An 82-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing a sudden...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness while shopping. Upon examination, she is fully alert and appears to be in good health.
      Her temperature is normal, and her blood glucose level is 5.8 mmol/l. Her cardiovascular system shows an irregular heart rate of 89 beats per minute with low volume, and her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying down and standing up. Her jugular venous pressure is not elevated, and her apex beat is forceful but undisplaced. Heart sounds include a soft S2 and a soft ejection systolic murmur that is loudest in the right second intercostal space, with a possible fourth heart sound heard. Her chest reveals occasional bibasal crackles that clear with coughing, and there is no peripheral edema. Based on these clinical findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Clinical Presentation of Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition that presents with symptoms of left ventricular failure, angina, and potential collapse or blackout if the stenosis is critical. A patient with significant aortic stenosis may exhibit several clinical signs, including a low-volume pulse, narrow pulse pressure, slow-rising carotid pulse, undisplaced sustained/forceful apex beat, soft or absent A2, ejection systolic murmur with a fourth heart sound, and pulmonary edema.

      It is important to note that aortic regurgitation would not cause the same examination findings as aortic stenosis. Aortic regurgitation typically presents with an early diastolic murmur and a collapsing pulse. Similarly, mixed mitral and aortic valve disease would not be evident in this clinical scenario, nor would mitral stenosis or mitral regurgitation. These conditions have distinct clinical presentations and diagnostic criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 5 - A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man has been hospitalized with crushing chest pain. An ECG trace shows ischaemia of the inferior part of the heart. What is the term that best describes the artery or arterial branch that provides blood supply to the inferior aspect of the heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior interventricular branch

      Explanation:

      Coronary Artery Branches and Circulation Dominance

      The coronary artery is responsible for supplying blood to the heart muscles. It branches out into several smaller arteries, each with a specific area of the heart to supply. Here are some of the main branches of the coronary artery:

      1. Posterior Interventricular Branch: This branch supplies the inferior aspect of the heart, with ischaemic changes presenting in leads II, III and aVF. In 90% of the population, it arises as a branch of the right coronary artery, while in 10%, it arises as a branch of the left coronary artery.

      2. Circumflex Branch: This branch supplies the anterolateral area of the heart.

      3. Left Coronary Artery: This artery gives off two branches – the left anterior descending artery supplying the anteroseptal and anteroapical parts of the heart, and the circumflex artery supplying the anterolateral heart. In 10% of the population, the left coronary artery gives off a left anterior interventricular branch that supplies the inferior part of the heart.

      4. Marginal Branch: This branch is a branch of the right coronary artery supplying the right ventricle.

      5. Right Coronary Artery: This artery branches out into the marginal artery and, in 90% of the population, the posterior interventricular branch. These individuals are said to have a right dominant circulation.

      Understanding the different branches of the coronary artery and the circulation dominance can help in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old girl is referred to cardiology outpatients with intermittent palpitations. She describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is referred to cardiology outpatients with intermittent palpitations. She describes occasional spontaneous episodes of being abnormally aware of her heart. She says her heart rate is markedly increased during episodes. She has no significant medical or family history. She is on the oral contraceptive pill. ECG is performed. She is in sinus rhythm at 80 beats per min. PR interval is 108 ms. A slurring slow rise of the initial portion of the QRS complex is noted; QRS duration is 125 ms.
      What is the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome: An Abnormal Congenital Accessory Pathway with Tachyarrhythmia Episodes

      Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a rare condition with an incidence of about 1.5 per 1000. It is characterized by the presence of an abnormal congenital accessory pathway that bypasses the atrioventricular node, known as the Bundle of Kent, and episodes of tachyarrhythmia. While the condition may be asymptomatic or subtle, it can increase the risk of sudden cardiac death.

      The presence of a pre-excitation pathway in WPW results in specific ECG changes, including shortening of the PR interval, a Delta wave, and QRS prolongation. The ST segment and T wave may also be discordant to the major component of the QRS complex. These features may be more pronounced with increased vagal tone.

      Upon diagnosis of WPW, risk stratification is performed based on a combination of history, ECG, and invasive cardiac electrophysiology studies. Treatment is only offered to those who are considered to have significant risk of sudden cardiac death. Definitive treatment involves the destruction of the abnormal electrical pathway by radiofrequency catheter ablation, which has a high success rate but is not without complication. Patients who experience regular tachyarrhythmias may be offered pharmacological treatment based on the specific arrhythmia.

      Other conditions, such as first-degree heart block, pulmonary embolism, hyperthyroidism, and Wenckebach syndrome, have different ECG findings and are not associated with WPW. Understanding the specific features of WPW can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old diabetic woman presents with general malaise and epigastric pain of 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old diabetic woman presents with general malaise and epigastric pain of 2 hours’ duration. She is hypotensive (blood pressure 90/55) and has jugular venous distension. Cardiac workup reveals ST elevation in leads I, aVL, V5 and V6. A diagnosis of high lateral myocardial infarction is made, and the patient is prepared for percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI).
      Blockage of which of the following arteries is most likely to lead to this type of infarction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left (obtuse) marginal artery

      Explanation:

      Coronary Arteries and their Associated ECG Changes

      The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries, and blockages in these arteries can lead to myocardial infarction (heart attack). Different coronary arteries supply blood to different parts of the heart, and the location of the blockage can be identified by changes in the electrocardiogram (ECG) readings.

      Left (obtuse) Marginal Artery: This artery supplies the lateral wall of the left ventricle. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads I, aVL, V2, V5, and V6, with reciprocal changes in the inferior leads.

      Anterior Interventricular (Left Anterior Descending) Artery: This artery supplies the anterior walls of both ventricles and the anterior part of the interventricular septum. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads V2-V4, sometimes extending to V1 and V5.

      Posterior Interventricular Artery: This artery is a branch of the right coronary artery and supplies the posterior walls of both ventricles. ECG changes associated with blockages in this artery are not specific.

      Right (Acute) Marginal Artery: This artery supplies the right ventricle. Blockages in this artery can cause changes in ECG leads II, III, aVF, and sometimes V1.

      Right Mainstem Coronary Artery: Inferior myocardial infarction is most commonly associated with blockages in this artery (80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (20% of cases). ECG changes in this type of infarct are seen in leads II, III, and aVF.

      Understanding Coronary Arteries and ECG Changes in Myocardial Infarction

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 8 - A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with rheumatic fever after presenting with a 3-day...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl is diagnosed with rheumatic fever after presenting with a 3-day history of fever and polyarthralgia. The patient’s mother is concerned about any potential lasting damage to the heart.
      What is the most common cardiac sequelae of rheumatic fever?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic Fever and its Effects on Cardiac Valves

      Rheumatic fever is a condition caused by group A β-haemolytic streptococcal infection. To diagnose it, the revised Duckett-Jones criteria are used, which require evidence of streptococcal infection and the presence of certain criteria. While all four cardiac valves may be damaged as a result of rheumatic fever, the mitral valve is the most commonly affected, with major criteria including carditis, subcutaneous nodule, migratory polyarthritis, erythema marginatum, and Sydenham’s chorea. Minor criteria include arthralgia, fever, raised CRP or ESR, raised WCC, heart block, and previous rheumatic fever. Mitral stenosis is the most common result of rheumatic fever, but it is becoming less frequently seen in clinical practice. Pulmonary regurgitation, aortic sclerosis, and tricuspid regurgitation are also possible effects, but they are less common than mitral valve damage. Ventricular septal defect is not commonly associated with rheumatic fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man presents with a 1-hour history of chest pain and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a 1-hour history of chest pain and is found to have an acute ST elevation inferior myocardial infarct. His blood pressure is 126/78 mmHg and has a pulse of 58 bpm. He is loaded with anti-platelets, and the cardiac monitor shows second-degree heart block (Wenckebach’s phenomenon).
      What would you consider next for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporary pacing and primary PCI

      Explanation:

      Management of Heart Block in Acute Myocardial Infarction

      Wenckebach’s phenomenon is usually not a cause for concern in patients with normal haemodynamics. However, if it occurs alongside acute myocardial infarction, complete heart block, or symptomatic Mobitz type II block, temporary pacing is necessary. Even with complete heart block, revascularisation can improve conduction if the patient is haemodynamically stable. Beta blockers should be avoided in second- and third-degree heart block as they can worsen the situation. Temporary pacing is required before proceeding to primary percutaneous intervention (PCI). A permanent pacemaker may be necessary for patients with irreversible heart block, but revascularisation should be prioritised as it may improve conduction. The block may be complete or second- or third-degree. If the heart block is reversible, temporary pacing should be followed by an assessment for permanent pacing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 10 - A 51-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism experiences a collapse during her...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman with a history of hypothyroidism experiences a collapse during her yoga class. She has been reporting occasional chest pains and difficulty breathing during exercise in the past few weeks. During her physical examination, an ejection systolic murmur is detected at the right upper sternal edge, and her second heart sound is faint. Additionally, she has a slow-rising pulse. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Aortic and Mitral Valve Disorders

      When evaluating a patient with a heart murmur, it is important to consider the characteristics of the murmur and associated symptoms to determine the underlying valve disorder. In a patient under 70 years old, a slow-rising and weak pulse with a history of collapse is indicative of critical stenosis caused by a bicuspid aortic valve. On the other hand, calcific aortic stenosis is more common in patients over 70 years old and presents differently. Aortic valve regurgitation is characterized by a murmur heard during early diastole and a collapsing pulse, but it is less likely to cause syncope. Mitral valve regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur at the apex with a laterally displaced apex beat, but it may present with congestive heart failure rather than syncope or angina. Mitral valve prolapse may cause a mid-systolic click, but a pan-systolic murmur at the apex may be present if there is coexisting mitral regurgitation. By understanding the unique features of each valve disorder, clinicians can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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Cardiology (1/2) 50%
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