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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old first-time mother is interested in learning about the benefits of breastfeeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old first-time mother is interested in learning about the benefits of breastfeeding for her newborn. You inform her that breast milk contains essential nutrients and enzymes, including lactoferrin.

      What is the function of lactoferrin in breast milk?

      Your Answer: Promotes uptake of iron by gut bacteria

      Correct Answer: Promotes rapid absorption of iron

      Explanation:

      Breast Milk lactoferrin facilitates the quick absorption of iron in the gut, while simultaneously limiting the amount of iron accessible to gut bacteria due to its antibacterial properties. Additionally, lactoferrin has been found to promote bone health by increasing bone formation and reducing bone resorption.

      Advantages and Disadvantages of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has numerous advantages for both the mother and the baby. For the mother, it promotes bonding with the baby and helps with the involution of the uterus. It also provides protection against breast and ovarian cancer and is a cheap alternative to formula feeding as there is no need to sterilize bottles. However, it should not be relied upon as a contraceptive method as it is unreliable.

      Breast milk contains immunological components such as IgA, lysozyme, and lactoferrin that protect mucosal surfaces, have bacteriolytic properties, and ensure rapid absorption of iron so it is not available to bacteria. This reduces the incidence of ear, chest, and gastrointestinal infections, as well as eczema, asthma, and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Breastfeeding also reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.

      One of the advantages of breastfeeding is that the baby is in control of how much milk it takes. However, there are also disadvantages such as the transmission of drugs and infections such as HIV. Prolonged breastfeeding may also lead to nutrient inadequacies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiencies, as well as breast milk jaundice.

      In conclusion, while breastfeeding has numerous advantages, it is important to be aware of the potential disadvantages and to consult with a healthcare professional to ensure that both the mother and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      20.8
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  • Question 2 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the physician by her mother due to fatigue and lethargy for the past 9 months. Previously, she was very active and was at the 80th percentile for height and weight. Currently, she is also unable to concentrate and lagging academically in school. The family moved to an old house 3 years back. During physical examination, conjunctival pallor and a blue line on her gingiva are observed.

      Blood tests reveal:
      Hb 100 g/L Male: (119-150)
      Female: (119-150)
      Platelets 340 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 70 fL (80 - 100)

      A skeletal survey shows dense opacity at the junction of metaphysis and epiphysis of the long bones.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency anemia

      Correct Answer: Lead poisoning

      Explanation:

      Lead poisoning can cause the accumulation of lead in the metaphysis of bones, which can be seen as bands of increased density on x-rays. In this case, the child’s recent deterioration in academic and physical performance, along with the history of moving to an old house, suggests the possibility of lead-based paint exposure. The presence of a lead line on the gums further supports this suspicion. While normocytic anemia can have many causes, the addition of radiodense lines in the metaphysis of long bones increases the likelihood of lead poisoning. Cretinism, caused by maternal hypothyroidism, typically presents earlier and has different symptoms. Osteomyelitis, an infection of the bone, has different x-ray findings. Sickle cell anemia and iron deficiency are not associated with the symptoms and x-ray findings in this case.

      Lead poisoning is a condition that should be considered when a patient presents with abdominal pain and neurological symptoms, along with acute intermittent porphyria. This condition is caused by defective ferrochelatase and ALA dehydratase function. Symptoms of lead poisoning include abdominal pain, peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor), neuropsychiatric features, fatigue, constipation, and blue lines on the gum margin (which is rare in children and only present in 20% of adult patients).

      To diagnose lead poisoning, doctors typically measure the patient’s blood lead level, with levels greater than 10 mcg/dl considered significant. A full blood count may also be performed, which can reveal microcytic anemia and red cell abnormalities such as basophilic stippling and clover-leaf morphology. Additionally, raised serum and urine levels of delta aminolaevulinic acid may be seen, which can sometimes make it difficult to differentiate from acute intermittent porphyria. Urinary coproporphyrin is also increased, while urinary porphobilinogen and uroporphyrin levels are normal to slightly increased. In children, lead can accumulate in the metaphysis of the bones, although x-rays are not typically part of the standard work-up.

      Various chelating agents are currently used to manage lead poisoning, including dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA), D-penicillamine, EDTA, and dimercaprol. These agents work to remove the lead from the body and can help alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      87.7
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman has been referred to an endocrinologist due to her symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been referred to an endocrinologist due to her symptoms of muscle aches, weight gain, menorrhagia, and fatigue. After undergoing a series of blood tests, including an evaluation of thyroid function, she was diagnosed with hypothyroidism and found to have anti-thyroid peroxidase (anti-TPO) antibodies. The endocrinologist informed her that she likely has Hashimoto's thyroiditis and will require long-term replacement of thyroxine with a synthetic analogue of this hormone. What is the mechanism of action of the drug she is expected to be prescribed?

      Your Answer: Activates tyrosine kinase receptors

      Correct Answer: Activates nuclear receptors

      Explanation:

      Levothyroxine activates nuclear receptors within the nucleus to stimulate DNA replication and protein synthesis. It does not act via ligand-gated ion channels or tyrosine kinase inhibitors, as those are transmembrane proteins that respond to extracellular signals. Inhibiting nuclear receptors is also not the mechanism of action for levothyroxine.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      47.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A researcher is investigating the function of regulatory proteins in intracellular trafficking. He...

    Incorrect

    • A researcher is investigating the function of regulatory proteins in intracellular trafficking. He has discovered and characterized several intracellular proteins labeled with mannose-6-phosphate. To which organelles are these proteins targeted?

      Your Answer: Mitochondria

      Correct Answer: Lysosome

      Explanation:

      The Golgi apparatus is responsible for adding mannose-6-phosphate to proteins, which facilitates their transport to lysosomes.

      Functions of Cell Organelles

      The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).

      The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      40.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old male has been suffering from chronic pain for many years due...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male has been suffering from chronic pain for many years due to an industrial accident he had in his thirties. The WHO defines chronic pain as pain that persists for how long?

      Your Answer: 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Chronic pain is defined by the WHO as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks. Therefore, the correct answer is 12 weeks, and all other options are incorrect.

      Guidelines for Managing Chronic Pain

      Chronic pain is defined as pain that lasts for more than 12 weeks and can include conditions such as musculoskeletal pain, neuropathic pain, vascular insufficiency, and degenerative disorders. In 2013, the Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (SIGN) produced guidelines for the management of chronic, non-cancer related pain.

      Non-pharmacological interventions are recommended by SIGN, including self-management information, exercise, manual therapy, and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS). Exercise has been shown to be effective in improving chronic pain, and specific support such as referral to an exercise program is recommended. Manual therapy is particularly effective for spinal pain, while TENS can also be helpful.

      Pharmacological interventions may be necessary, but if medications are not effective after 2-4 weeks, they are unlikely to be effective. For neuropathic pain, SIGN recommends gabapentin or amitriptyline as first-line treatments. NICE also recommends pregabalin or duloxetine as first-line treatments. For fibromyalgia, duloxetine or fluoxetine are recommended.

      If patients are using more than 180 mg/day morphine equivalent, experiencing significant distress, or rapidly escalating their dose without pain relief, SIGN recommends referring them to specialist pain management services.

      Overall, the management of chronic pain requires a comprehensive approach that includes both non-pharmacological and pharmacological interventions, as well as referral to specialist services when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      9
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  • Question 6 - A 68-year-old man comes to his GP for a medication review. His medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to his GP for a medication review. His medical record shows that he has vertebral artery stenosis, which greatly elevates his chances of experiencing a stroke in the posterior circulation.

      Can you identify the location where the impacted arteries converge to create the basilar artery?

      Your Answer: Pontomesencephalic junction

      Correct Answer: Base of the pons

      Explanation:

      The basilar artery is formed by the union of the vertebral arteries at the base of the pons, which is the most appropriate answer. If a patient has stenosis in their vertebral artery, it can increase the risk of a posterior circulation stroke by reducing perfusion to the brain or causing an arterial embolus.

      The anterior aspect of the spinal cord is not the most appropriate answer as it is supplied by the anterior spinal arteries, which branch off the vertebral arteries and descend past the anterior aspect of the brainstem to supply the spinal cord’s anterior aspects.

      The region anterior to the cavernous sinus is not the most appropriate answer. The internal carotid arteries pass anterior to the cavernous sinus before branching off to anastomose with the circle of Willis, mainly contributing to the anterior circulation of the brain.

      The pontomesencephalic junction is not the most appropriate answer. The superior cerebellar arteries branch off from the distal basilar artery at the pontomesencephalic junction.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      43.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An elderly man of 74 years old complains of symptoms and displays signs...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man of 74 years old complains of symptoms and displays signs of benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which structure is most likely to be enlarged in his case?

      Your Answer: Posterior lobe of the prostate

      Correct Answer: Median lobe of the prostate

      Explanation:

      Prostate carcinoma commonly develops in the posterior lobe, while BPH often causes enlargement of the median lobe. The anterior lobe, which contains minimal glandular tissue, is rarely affected by enlargement.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      28
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old patient reports to their physician with a complaint of taste loss....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient reports to their physician with a complaint of taste loss. After taking a thorough medical history, the doctor notes no recent infections. However, the patient does mention being able to taste normally when only using the tip of their tongue, such as when licking ice cream.

      Which cranial nerve is impacted in this situation?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The loss of taste in the posterior third of the tongue is due to a problem with the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). This is because the patient can taste when licking the ice cream, indicating that the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are functioning normally. The facial nerve also provides taste sensation, but only to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, so it is not responsible for the loss of taste in the posterior third. The hypoglossal nerve is not involved in taste sensation, but rather in motor innervation of the tongue. The olfactory nerve innervates the nose, not the tongue, and there is no indication of a problem with the patient’s sense of smell.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old male gives a blood unit that is stored at 4 oC....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male gives a blood unit that is stored at 4 oC. Which clotting factor will be most impacted after 72 hours?

      Your Answer: Factor IX

      Correct Answer: Factor V

      Explanation:

      FFP is frozen shortly after collection due to the temperature sensitivity of factors V and VIII.

      Blood Products and Cell Saver Devices

      Blood products are essential in various medical procedures, especially in cases where patients require transfusions due to anaemia or bleeding. Packed red cells, platelet-rich plasma, platelet concentrate, fresh frozen plasma, and cryoprecipitate are some of the commonly used whole blood fractions. Fresh frozen plasma is usually administered to patients with clotting deficiencies, while cryoprecipitate is a rich source of Factor VIII and fibrinogen. Cross-matching is necessary for all blood products, and cell saver devices are used to collect and re-infuse a patient’s own blood lost during surgery.

      Cell saver devices come in two types, those that wash the blood cells before re-infusion and those that do not. The former is more expensive and complicated to operate but reduces the risk of re-infusing contaminated blood. The latter avoids the use of donor blood and may be acceptable to Jehovah’s witnesses. However, it is contraindicated in malignant diseases due to the risk of facilitating disease dissemination.

      In some surgical patients, the use of warfarin can pose specific problems and may require the use of specialised blood products. Warfarin reversal can be achieved through the administration of vitamin K, fresh frozen plasma, or human prothrombin complex. Fresh frozen plasma is used less commonly now as a first-line warfarin reversal, and human prothrombin complex is preferred due to its rapid action. However, it should be given with vitamin K as factor 6 has a short half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old single mum has been recommended for genetic testing after her 10-months-old...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old single mum has been recommended for genetic testing after her 10-months-old daughter was diagnosed with congenital nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. She has no symptoms and does not know of any family history of this disorder.

      Which part of the kidney is frequently impacted in this condition?

      Your Answer: Epithelial sodium channel (ENaC)

      Correct Answer: Vasopressin receptor

      Explanation:

      Diabetes insipidus is a medical condition that can be caused by either a decreased secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the pituitary gland (cranial DI) or an insensitivity to ADH (nephrogenic DI). Cranial DI can be caused by various factors such as head injury, pituitary surgery, and infiltrative diseases like sarcoidosis. On the other hand, nephrogenic DI can be caused by genetic factors, electrolyte imbalances, and certain medications like lithium and demeclocycline. The common symptoms of DI are excessive urination and thirst. Diagnosis is made through a water deprivation test and checking the osmolality of the urine. Treatment options include thiazides and a low salt/protein diet for nephrogenic DI, while central DI can be treated with desmopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old male is admitted to the renal ward after presenting with lethargy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is admitted to the renal ward after presenting with lethargy, swelling and two episodes of haematuria. Bloods revealed the following:

      Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 11.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Neuts 4.5 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Lymphs 3.0 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
      Mono 0.8 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
      Eosin 4.0 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)

      ESR 130 mm/hr Men: < (age / 2)
      Women: < ((age + 10) / 2)

      He was found to have high circulating levels for perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA).

      What is the main target of this antibody within the cell?

      Your Answer: Elastase

      Correct Answer: Myeloperoxidase (MPO)

      Explanation:

      The primary focus of pANCA is on myeloperoxidase (MPO), although it also targets lysosome, cathepsin G, and elastase to a lesser extent. Meanwhile, cANCA primarily targets PR3. All of these targets are located within the azurophilic granules of neutrophils.

      ANCA testing can be done through ELISA or immunofluorescence, which can detect anti-MPO or anti-PR3 antibodies in the blood. The pattern of immunostaining would vary depending on the specific condition.

      ANCA testing is useful in diagnosing and monitoring the disease activity of certain conditions, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegner’s granulomatosis), eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), and microscopic polyangiitis. MPO antibodies are more sensitive in detecting microscopic polyangiitis compared to EGPA.

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Types, Symptoms, and Management

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA). These include granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome), and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with symptoms such as renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, vasculitic rash, and ear, nose, and throat symptoms.

      To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria, blood tests for renal impairment, full blood count, CRP, and ANCA testing. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with cANCA being associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis and pANCA being associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis and other conditions.

      Once suspected, ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams to allow an exact diagnosis to be made. The mainstay of management is immunosuppressive therapy. Kidney or lung biopsies may be taken to aid the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      70.7
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  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old woman with breast cancer is prescribed a chemotherapy treatment that involves...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman with breast cancer is prescribed a chemotherapy treatment that involves methotrexate.

      What specific enzyme does methotrexate inhibit?

      Your Answer: Methionine synthase

      Correct Answer: Dihydrofolate reductase

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, which is a crucial enzyme in folate metabolism. This drug is effective in treating various conditions, such as Crohn’s disease, psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis, and certain types of cancer, by disrupting DNA synthesis and repair. Although other enzymes are also involved in folate metabolism and homeostasis, methotrexate does not inhibit them. Notably, 5-Fluorouracil inhibits thymidylate synthase, while methionine synthase, methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase, and folylpolyglutamate synthase play different roles in folate metabolism.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      13.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 56-year-old man is invited by his family physician to participate in a...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is invited by his family physician to participate in a research study on colorectal cancer. The study involves a procedure called flexible sigmoidoscopy, where a small camera is inserted into the anus to examine the last part of the intestine for any abnormalities known as polyps. The purpose of the study is to prevent the progression of polyps to colorectal cancer. Participants who accept the invitation will be followed up by the researchers, along with a group of individuals who were not selected to receive the procedure. The researchers will compare the proportion of cancer cases in both groups. What type of research study is being described here?

      Your Answer: Case-control study

      Correct Answer: Randomised controlled study

      Explanation:

      1. A prospective cohort study involves two groups of individuals, one exposed to a risk factor and the other not exposed, to measure the incidence of an outcome and understand the effect of the risk factor. Researchers must control for confounding factors that may also have a relationship with both the risk factor and the outcome.

      2. A randomized controlled study is advantageous because the two randomized groups are similar in all aspects except for the intervention being given, minimizing confounding factors. This makes it a better option than a prospective cohort study.

      3. A cross-sectional study measures the prevalence of a disease or condition in a population at a specific point in time.

      4. In a case-control study, researchers compare two groups of individuals with a disease to identify past risk factors. However, this study is subject to recall bias as participants rely on their memory of past exposures, reducing data accuracy.

      5. A case study describes a single case, such as a clinical case or a specific group or situation of interest to researchers, that has not been extensively studied before. For example, a doctor may write a case study about an atypical presentation of myocardial infarction, including how the case evolved and how the diagnosis was made.

      There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.

      On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 52-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of the...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of the most intense headache she has ever experienced. The pain came on suddenly, and there is no history of trauma. She is feeling nauseated, sensitive to light, and extremely anxious. Based on her symptoms, you suspect a subarachnoid hemorrhage. You order an urgent CT scan, but it shows no abnormalities. To obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), you perform a lumbar puncture. What is the primary structure responsible for producing CSF?

      Your Answer: Choroid plexus

      Explanation:

      The choroid plexus is a branching structure resembling sea coral that contains specialized ependymal cells responsible for producing and releasing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). It is present in all four ventricles of the brain, with the largest portion located in the lateral ventricles. The choroid plexus plays a role in removing waste products from the CSF.

      The inferior colliculus is a nucleus in the midbrain involved in the auditory pathway. There are two inferior colliculi, one on each side of the midbrain, and they are part of the corpora quadrigemina along with the two superior colliculi (involved in the visual pathway).

      Arachnoid villi are microscopic projections of the arachnoid membrane that allow for the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid into the venous system. This is important as the amount of CSF produced each day is four times the total volume of the ventricular system.

      The corpus callosum is a bundle of nerve fibers that connects the left and right hemispheres of the brain, allowing for communication between them.

      The pineal gland is a small protrusion on the brain that produces melatonin and regulates the sleep cycle.

      A sudden-onset severe headache, described as the worst ever experienced, may indicate a subarachnoid hemorrhage. This can occur with or without trauma and is characterized by a thunderclap headache. If a CT scan is normal, CSF should be examined for xanthochromia, which is a yellow coloration that occurs several hours after a subarachnoid hemorrhage due to the breakdown of red blood cells and the release of bilirubin into the CSF.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      23.8
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  • Question 15 - A 27-year-old male is brought in after collapsing. According to the paramedics, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male is brought in after collapsing. According to the paramedics, he was found unconscious at a bar and no one knows what happened. Upon examination, his eyes remain closed and do not respond to commands, but he mumbles incomprehensibly when pressure is applied to his nailbed. He also opens his eyes and uses his other hand to push away the painful stimulus. His temperature is 37°C, his oxygen saturation is 95% on air, and his pulse is 100 bpm with a blood pressure of 106/76 mmHg. What is his Glasgow coma scale score?

      Your Answer: 8

      Correct Answer: 9

      Explanation:

      The Glasgow Coma Scale is used because it is simple, has high interobserver reliability, and correlates well with outcome following severe brain injury. It consists of three components: Eye Opening, Verbal Response, and Motor Response. The score is the sum of the scores as well as the individual elements. For example, a score of 10 might be expressed as GCS10 = E3V4M3.

      Best eye response:
      1- No eye opening
      2- Eye opening to pain
      3- Eye opening to sound
      4- Eyes open spontaneously

      Best verbal response:
      1- No verbal response
      2- Incomprehensible sounds
      3- Inappropriate words
      4- Confused
      5- Orientated

      Best motor response:
      1- No motor response.
      2- Abnormal extension to pain
      3- Abnormal flexion to pain
      4- Withdrawal from pain
      5- Localizing pain
      6- Obeys commands

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      26.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 57-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and type II diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and type II diabetes presents to the emergency department with dull chest pain accompanied by sweating and nausea. He is promptly administered oxygen, aspirin, morphine, metoclopramide, atenolol, and nitrates.

      Upon examination, angiography reveals significant blockage in all four coronary vessels. As a result, he is scheduled for an urgent coronary artery bypass graft, which will necessitate the removal of a vein from his lower limb.

      Which nerve is most frequently affected during a vein harvest for CABG?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve

      Correct Answer: Saphenous nerve

      Explanation:

      During a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), the great saphenous vein is often harvested. However, this procedure can lead to damage of the saphenous nerve, which runs closely alongside the vein in the medial aspect of the leg. Saphenous neuralgia, characterized by numbness, heightened sensitivity, and pain in the saphenous nerve distribution area, can result from such injury. Other nerves are not typically affected during a vein harvest for CABG.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      27.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - As a physician at the headache clinic, you assess a middle-aged, obese woman...

    Incorrect

    • As a physician at the headache clinic, you assess a middle-aged, obese woman who has been experiencing headaches and rhinorrhea for the past eight weeks. Upon conducting basic observations, you note that her temperature is 37ºC, heart rate is 74/min, saturation's are at 100%, respiratory rate is 12/min, and blood pressure is 168/90mmHg. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral infection

      Correct Answer: Empty sella syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Empty Sella Syndrome

      Empty sella syndrome is a condition where the pituitary gland is flattened and located at the back of the sella turcica. The cause of this condition is unknown, but it is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are obese. The syndrome is characterized by headaches, hypertension, and rhinorrhea.

      Individuals with empty sella syndrome may experience headaches, which can be severe and persistent. Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is also a common symptom. Rhinorrhea, or a runny nose, may also occur. It is important to note that not all individuals with empty sella syndrome experience symptoms, and the severity of symptoms can vary.

      Overall, understanding empty sella syndrome is important for individuals who may be experiencing symptoms or have been diagnosed with the condition. Seeking medical attention and treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During a cranial nerve examination of a 75-year-old female, it is observed that...

    Incorrect

    • During a cranial nerve examination of a 75-year-old female, it is observed that her tongue deviates to the right when she is asked to stick it out. Which cranial nerve could be affected in this case?

      Your Answer: Right hypoglossal

      Correct Answer: Left hypoglossal

      Explanation:

      When the hypoglossal nerve is affected, it can cause the tongue to deviate towards the side of the lesion. This is due to the unopposed action of the genioglossus muscle, which makes up most of the tongue, on the unaffected side. If the patient’s history indicates that their tongue is deviating towards the left, it can be ruled out that the issue is affecting the right cranial nerves. The hypoglossal nerve is responsible for innervating the majority of the tongue’s muscles, including both the extrinsic and intrinsic muscles.

      Cranial nerve palsies can present with diplopia, or double vision, which is most noticeable in the direction of the weakened muscle. Additionally, covering the affected eye will cause the outer image to disappear. False localising signs can indicate a pathology that is not in the expected anatomical location. One common example is sixth nerve palsy, which is often caused by increased intracranial pressure due to conditions such as brain tumours, abscesses, meningitis, or haemorrhages. Papilloedema may also be present in these cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which one of the following nerves is not found in the posterior triangle...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following nerves is not found in the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Correct Answer: Ansa cervicalis

      Explanation:

      The anterior triangle of the neck contains the ansa cervicalis.

      The posterior triangle of the neck is an area that is bound by the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, the occipital bone, and the middle third of the clavicle. Within this triangle, there are various nerves, vessels, muscles, and lymph nodes. The nerves present include the accessory nerve, phrenic nerve, and three trunks of the brachial plexus, as well as branches of the cervical plexus such as the supraclavicular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, great auricular nerve, and lesser occipital nerve. The vessels found in this area are the external jugular vein and subclavian artery. Additionally, there are muscles such as the inferior belly of omohyoid and scalene, as well as lymph nodes including the supraclavicular and occipital nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease visits the renal clinic for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease visits the renal clinic for a routine examination. Her blood work reveals hypocalcemia and elevated levels of parathyroid hormone.

      What could be the probable reason for her abnormal blood test results?

      Your Answer: Multinodular goitre

      Correct Answer: Decreased levels of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol, activated vitamin D)

      Explanation:

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      92.6
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old patient visits a rheumatology clinic to discuss her rheumatoid arthritis treatment....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient visits a rheumatology clinic to discuss her rheumatoid arthritis treatment. She is currently taking paracetamol and NSAIDs for pain relief on a regular basis. The consultant suggests that she may benefit from ciclosporin to improve her symptom control.

      Before starting this medication, what are the important counselling points that the patient should be aware of?

      Your Answer: Risk of hypokalaemia

      Correct Answer: Risk of nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Nephrotoxicity is a potential side effect of Ciclosporin.

      Ciclosporin is an immunosuppressant that works by blocking certain T cell immune responses and suppressing the release of IL-2. However, it is important to note that this drug can be harmful to the kidneys. In the first few weeks of treatment, patients may experience an increase in serum urea and creatinine levels, which are typically dose-dependent. These effects can be reversed by reducing the dosage.

      Patients should be informed about the possible adverse effects of Ciclosporin, including benign gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, tremors, headaches, paraesthesia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, muscle cramps, hypertension, electrolyte imbalances (such as hyperkalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hyperuricemia), and the risk of nephrotoxicity.

      Understanding Ciclosporin: An Immunosuppressant Drug

      Ciclosporin is a medication that is used as an immunosuppressant. It works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. The drug binds to cyclophilin, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells.

      Despite its effectiveness, Ciclosporin has several adverse effects. It can cause nephrotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, fluid retention, hypertension, hyperkalaemia, hypertrichosis, gingival hyperplasia, tremors, impaired glucose tolerance, hyperlipidaemia, and increased susceptibility to severe infection. However, it is interesting to note that Ciclosporin is virtually non-myelotoxic, which means it does not affect the bone marrow.

      Ciclosporin is used to treat various conditions such as following organ transplantation, rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, ulcerative colitis, and pure red cell aplasia. It has a direct effect on keratinocytes and modulates T cell function, making it an effective treatment for psoriasis.

      In conclusion, Ciclosporin is a potent immunosuppressant drug that can effectively treat various conditions. However, it is essential to monitor patients for adverse effects and adjust the dosage accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - Which one of the following statements relating to low molecular weight heparins is...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to low molecular weight heparins is not true?

      Your Answer: They are derivatives of unfractionated heparin

      Correct Answer: Large doses may be used prior to commencing cardiopulmonary bypass

      Explanation:

      They are not suitable for this purpose as they cannot be easily reversed.

      Heparin is a type of anticoagulant medication that comes in two main forms: unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. Adverse effects of heparins include bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. LMWH has a lower risk of causing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin. HIT is an immune-mediated condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. Treatment for HIT includes direct thrombin inhibitors or danaparoid. Heparin overdose can be partially reversed by protamine sulfate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      42
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - You are asked to evaluate a 4-year-old girl who has been brought to...

    Correct

    • You are asked to evaluate a 4-year-old girl who has been brought to the clinic by her parents due to concerns over her development. While her motor development has been normal, her speech has been persistently delayed; she is still unable to put more than 2 words together to form a sentence, and often does not respond when called. Her parents are worried that she may have autism.

      The child is referred for play audiometry, which reveals abnormalities. Upon taking a careful history, it is revealed that a drug given to the child to treat an infection in her first year of life may be responsible for her developmental delay.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Gentamicin

      Explanation:

      Ototoxicity is a significant negative consequence associated with the use of aminoglycosides.

      Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic known as an aminoglycoside. It is not easily dissolved in lipids, so it is typically administered through injection or topical application. It is commonly used to treat infections such as infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, gentamicin can have adverse effects on the body, such as ototoxicity, which can cause damage to the auditory or vestibular nerves. This damage is irreversible. Gentamicin can also cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity increases when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Lower doses and more frequent monitoring are necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. To ensure safe dosing, plasma concentrations of gentamicin are monitored. Peak levels are measured one hour after administration, and trough levels are measured just before the next dose. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      29.6
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her father. She has lost...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to the clinic with her father. She has lost 10kg in the last 2 months. Recently, her father found her vomiting in the bathroom. The girl admits to struggling with her self-esteem and body image, and has been inducing vomiting after meals. She feels anxious in social situations. During the examination, you observe swelling above the angle of the mandible, indicating parotid gland enlargement. Which nerve supplies the parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland?

      Your Answer: Facial nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the glossopharyngeal nerve, which is the ninth cranial nerve. It provides parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland and carries taste and sensation from the posterior third of the tongue, pharyngeal wall, tonsils, middle ear, external auditory canal, and auricle. It also supplies baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus.

      The facial nerve, the seventh cranial nerve, supplies the muscles of facial expression, taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, and sensation from parts of the external acoustic meatus, auricle, and retro-auricular area. It also provides parasympathetic fibers to the submandibular gland, sublingual gland, nasal glands, and lacrimal glands.

      The hypoglossal nerve, the twelfth cranial nerve, supplies the intrinsic muscles of the tongue and all but one of the extrinsic muscles of the tongue.

      The greater auricular nerve is a superficial cutaneous branch of the cervical plexus that supplies sensation to the capsule of the parotid gland, skin overlying the gland, and skin over the mastoid process and outer ear.

      The mandibular nerve, the third division of the trigeminal nerve, carries sensory and motor fibers. It carries sensation from the lower lip, lower teeth and gingivae, chin, and jaw. It also supplies motor innervation to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, the anterior belly of digastric, tensor veli palatini, and tensor tympani.

      The patient in the question has sialadenosis, a benign, non-inflammatory enlargement of a salivary gland, in the parotid glands, which can be caused by bulimia nervosa.

      The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough, fever,...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a productive cough, fever, and dyspnoea that have been ongoing for the past three days. He has not traveled abroad recently. Upon conducting blood tests, the results showed Hb 140 g/L, WBC 17.0 x109, and CRP 140 mg/dL. A chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in the right lower zone, and a sputum sample was sent for further investigation. What is the most probable finding on the initial Gram staining of the sputum sample?

      Your Answer: Gram positive cocci in clusters

      Correct Answer: Gram positive cocci in chains

      Explanation:

      The patient displays classic symptoms of community-acquired pneumonia, including difficulty breathing, fever, cough with phlegm, elevated inflammatory markers, and abnormal chest x-ray results. The likely cause is Streptococcus pneumoniae, a gram-positive cocci bacteria that often leads to this condition. However, if the patient had recently traveled overseas, there is a higher chance that other microorganisms like Legionella pneumoniae or Mycoplasma pneumoniae may be responsible.

      Identifying Gram-Positive Bacteria: A Guide

      Gram-positive bacteria can be identified through the use of gram staining, which results in a purple/blue coloration. Upon microscopy, the shape of the bacteria can be determined, either cocci or rods.

      Rods, or bacilli, include Actinomyces, Bacillus antracis, Clostridium, Corynebacterium diphtheriae, and Listeria monocytogenes.

      Cocci can be further divided into those that make catalase (Staphylococci) and those that do not (Streptococci). Staphylococci can be differentiated based on their ability to make coagulase, with S. aureus being coagulase-positive and S. epidermidis (novobiocin sensitive) and S. saprophyticus (novobiocin resistant) being coagulase-negative.

      Streptococci can be identified based on their hemolytic properties. Those with partial hemolysis (green coloration on blood agar) are α-haemolytic, while those with complete hemolysis (clear) are β-haemolytic. Those with no hemolysis are γ-haemolytic.

      α-haemolytic streptococci can be further differentiated based on their sensitivity to optochin, with S. pneumoniae being optochin-sensitive and Viridans streptococci being optochin-resistant.

      β-haemolytic streptococci can be differentiated based on their sensitivity to bacitracin, with Group A (S. pyogenes) being bacitracin-sensitive and Group B (S. agalactiae) being bacitracin-resistant.

      In summary, identifying gram-positive bacteria involves gram staining and microscopy to determine shape, followed by differentiation based on coagulase production (Staphylococci), hemolytic properties (Streptococci), and sensitivity to optochin and bacitracin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 29-year-old Jewish woman comes to a doctor complaining of mouth ulcers and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old Jewish woman comes to a doctor complaining of mouth ulcers and skin blistering. During the examination, the doctor observes Nikolsky's sign. The doctor informs her that she has an autoimmune disease where her body's own cells are being attacked by antibodies. What is the specific target for these antibodies in her condition?

      Your Answer: Desmoglein 2

      Correct Answer: Desmoglein 3

      Explanation:

      Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by the presence of antibodies against desmoglein 3, while Grave’s disease is associated with antibodies against TSH receptors. Cardiac myopathy is linked to antibodies against desmoglein 2, while pemphigus foliaceus is associated with antibodies against desmoglein 1. Hashimoto’s hypothyroidism is characterized by the presence of antibodies against thyroid peroxidase.

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.

      The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      24.5
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  • Question 27 - To which major food group does the molecule CH3CH(NH2)COOH belong? ...

    Correct

    • To which major food group does the molecule CH3CH(NH2)COOH belong?

      Your Answer: Protein

      Explanation:

      The Basics of Amino Acids and Alanine

      Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which are essential for the functioning of living organisms. One such amino acid is alanine, also known as CH3CH(NH2)COOH. The basic structure of an amino acid consists of an amine group (NH2) and a carboxylic acid group (COOH), which are both acidic and basic, respectively. These groups combine to give proteins a unique set of characteristics.

      Alanine is a simple amino acid with a methyl group in its R region. The formula for proteins is R-CH-NH2COOH, where R is a variable region. Amino acids combine to form dipeptides and polypeptides, which make up proteins. the basics of amino acids and their structures is crucial in the complex nature of proteins and their functions in living organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      11.5
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic. She is in her 12th week...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic. She is in her 12th week of pregnancy and is worried about her baby's health. Her friend had a premature baby who had to stay in the neonatal intensive care unit for several weeks. The patient wants to know what she can do to decrease the chances of having a premature baby.

      Some advice you can give her to reduce the risk of having a premature baby includes:
      - Avoiding smoking, alcohol, and drugs during pregnancy
      - Eating a healthy and balanced diet
      - Getting regular prenatal care
      - Managing chronic conditions such as diabetes or high blood pressure
      - Avoiding infections by washing hands frequently and avoiding sick people
      - Reducing stress through relaxation techniques or counseling
      - Avoiding certain activities such as hot tubs or saunas
      - Getting enough rest and sleep.

      It is important to reassure the patient that not all premature births can be prevented, but taking these steps can help reduce the risk.

      Your Answer: Folate supplementation

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Low Birth Weight and Intrauterine Growth Retardation

      Low birth weight (LBW) is defined as a birth weight of less than 2500 g, regardless of gestational age. Intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR), also known as small-for-gestational-age (SGA) or small-for-dates, has no universally accepted definition. However, it is commonly defined as a birth weight less than the 10th or 5th percentile for gestational age, a birth weight less than 2500 g with a gestational age of 37 weeks or more, or a birth weight less than two standard deviations below the mean value for gestational age.

      Smoking is a significant modifiable risk factor for IUGR. Babies born to women who smoke weigh an average of 200 g less than those born to non-smokers. The incidence of low birth weight is twice as high among smokers as non-smokers. However, evidence shows that women who quit smoking during pregnancy can reduce the risk of having a low birth weight infant by around 20%.

      There are various support systems available to help smoking cessation during pregnancy, including routine antenatal care, community smoking cessation clinics, psychological therapies, and nicotine replacement therapies. Folate supplementation is recommended for reducing neural tube defects in pregnancy, but it has no proven role in preventing LBW. Iron supplementation is recommended for pregnant women who are anaemic but has no role in preventing LBW in non-anaemic women. Gentle exercise is recommended throughout pregnancy but has no proven role in reducing LBW births. A high protein diet is not thought to be beneficial in pregnancy and may even cause harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.2
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  • Question 29 - A 63-year-old woman comes to her doctor for a review of her angina...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman comes to her doctor for a review of her angina medication. She expresses worry about her condition and inquires about the cause of the narrowing of her coronary arteries.

      What alteration takes place during the progression of atherosclerosis?

      Your Answer: Hypertrophy of the arterial layers

      Correct Answer: Fatty infiltration of the subendothelial space

      Explanation:

      The subendothelial space is where fatty infiltration takes place.

      Foam cells are created by the ingestion of LDLs, not HDLs.

      Infiltration does not occur in the tunica externa, but rather in the subendothelial space.

      Smooth muscle proliferation occurs, not hypertrophy.

      Endothelial dysfunction leads to a decrease in nitric oxide bioavailability.

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      27.7
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  • Question 30 - What grade of evidence does a randomized controlled trial provide, as per the...

    Incorrect

    • What grade of evidence does a randomized controlled trial provide, as per the guidance of the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine (CEBM)?

      Your Answer: 4

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine

      In order to evaluate the quality of evidence in evidence-based medicine, levels or grades are often used to organize the evidence. Traditional hierarchies placed systematic reviews or randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each. On the other hand, the GRADE system is a grading approach that classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, or very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical or important, and the evidence is gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence. Evidence can be promoted or downgraded based on certain circumstances. The use of levels and grades of evidence helps to evaluate the quality of evidence and make informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      8.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Reproductive System (0/1) 0%
Haematology And Oncology (0/2) 0%
General Principles (1/8) 13%
Neurological System (3/7) 43%
Cardiovascular System (0/3) 0%
Renal System (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal System And Skin (0/3) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (0/2) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Passmed