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  • Question 1 - Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate...

    Correct

    • Regarding the following induction agents, which one is cleared at the fastest rate from the plasma?

      Your Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Propofol is cleared at the fastest rate at the rate of 60ml/kg/min.

      Clearance rate of other drugs are as follows:
      – Thiopental: 3.5 ml/kg/min
      – Methohexitone: 11 ml/kg/min
      – Ketamine: 17 ml/kg/min
      – Etomidate: 10-20 ml/kg/min

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Given the following hormones, which of these will stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis?

      Your Answer: Glucagon

      Correct Answer: Corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Insulin is the primary anabolic hormone that dominates regulation of metabolism during digestive phase. It promotes glucose uptake in skeletal myocytes and adipocytes, and other insulin-target cells. It promotes glycogenesis and inhibits gluconeogenesis.

      Glucagon is the primary counterregulatory hormone that increases blood glucose levels, primarily through its effects on liver glucose output.

      Similar to glucagon, growth hormone, catecholamines and corticosteroids are also counterregulatory factors released in response to decreased glucose concentrations. Growth hormone promotes glycogenolysis and inhibits gluconeogenesis; catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis; while corticosteroids stimulate glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - While on the ward, you notice a patient that is lying down supine...

    Correct

    • While on the ward, you notice a patient that is lying down supine and attached to a monitor is hypotensive with a blood pressure of 90/70mmHg and he is also tachycardic with a pulse of 120 beats/minute. After adjusting the bed with the patient's legs raised by 45 degrees, you reassess the blood pressure after 1 minute and his blood pressure has increased to 100/75mmHg. You then prescribe IV fluids and ask for 500ml of normal saline to be given intravenously over 15 minutes. The increase in the blood pressure can be explained by which physiological association?

      Your Answer: Venous return is proportional to stroke volume

      Explanation:

      Cardiac muscle contraction strength is dependent on the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline, but these hormones contribute to cardiac contractility, not to Starling’s law.

      Stroke volume (via a cardiac monitor) and/or pulse pressure (via an arterial line) should be measured to assess the effects of a passive leg raise. An increase in stroke volume by 9% or in pulse pressure by 10% are considered indicative of fluid responsiveness.

      A passive leg raise can lead to transient increases in blood pressure and stroke volume as it increased the amount of venous return to the heart. Venous return increases in this situation as it transfers a larger volume of blood from the lower limbs to the right heart. It therefore mimics a fluid challenge. However its effects are short lasting and often lead to minimal increases in blood pressure. It therefore should not be used to treat shock in isolation. The passive leg raise is useful in determining the likelihood that a patient with shock will respond to fluid resuscitation.

      Sarcomeres, which can be in cardiac, smooth or skeletal muscle, function optimally when stretched to a specific point.
      Blood that enters the ventricles during diastole causing stretching of sarcomeres within cardiac muscle. The extent to which they stretch is proportional to the strength of ventricular muscle contraction. Therefore, the venous return (amount of blood returned to the heart) is proportional to stroke volume. The end diastolic volume is determined by venous return and is also proportional to stroke volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old female is having her central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female is having her central venous pressure (CVP) measured. A long femoral line was inserted that passes from the common iliac vein into the inferior vena cava. At which level of vertebra does this occur?

      Your Answer: L2

      Correct Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      The inferior vena cava is formed by the union of the right and left common iliac veins. This occurs at the L5 vertebral level. The IVC courses along the right anterolateral side of the vertebral column and ascends through the central tendon of the diaphragm at the T8 vertebral level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for relaying sensory information from the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for relaying sensory information from the laryngeal mucosa?

      Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Correct Answer: Laryngeal branches of the vagus

      Explanation:

      Sensory innervation of the larynx is controlled by branches of the vagus nerve.

      The internal and external bifurcations of the superior laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the aspect of the larynx superior to the vocal cords, while the recurrent laryngeal nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the intrinsic musculature of the larynx except for the cricothyroid muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case...

    Correct

    • One of the non-pharmacologic management of COPD is smoking cessation. Given a case of a 60-year old patient with history of smoking for 30 years and a FEV1 of 70%, what would be the most probable five-year course of his FEV1 if he ceases to smoke?

      Your Answer: The FEV1 will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker

      Explanation:

      For this patient, his forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) will decrease at the same rate as a non-smoker.

      There is a notable, but slow, decline in FEV1 when an individual reaches the age of 26. An average reduction of 30 mls every year in non-smokers, while a more significant reduction of 50-70 mls is observed in approximately 20% of smokers.

      Considering the age of the patient, individuals who begin smoking cessation by the age of 60 are far less likely to achieve normal FEV1 levels, even in the next five years. It is expected that their FEV1 will be approximately 14% less than their peers of the same age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year old man has presented to the emergency room with sweating, nausea,...

    Correct

    • A 72-year old man has presented to the emergency room with sweating, nausea, chest pain, and an ECG that shows ST elevation. The ST segment of the ECG corresponds to a period of slow calcium influx in the cardiac action potential. This equates to which phase in the cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer: Phase 2

      Explanation:

      Understanding of the cardiac action potential helps with the understanding of the ECG which measures the electrical activity of the heart. This is reflected in its waveform.
      The rapid depolarisation phase is reflected in the QRS complex. After this phase comes the plateau phase which is represented by the ST segment. Lastly, the T wave shows repolarisation, phase 3.

      The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
      Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
      These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms

      Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.

      Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium. (ST segment)

      Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium. (T wave)

      Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
      There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potential

      Of note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.

      Different sites have different conduction velocities:
      1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec

      2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec

      3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology And Biochemistry
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints...

    Correct

    • A 30-year old female athlete was brought to the Emergency Room for complaints of light-headedness and nausea. Clinical chemistry studies were done and the results were the following: Na: 144 mmol/L (Reference: 137-144 mmol/L), K: 6 mmol/L (Reference: 3.5-4.9 mmol/L), Cl: 115 mmol/L (Reference: 95-107 mmol/L), HCO3: 24 mmol/L (Reference: 20-28 mmol/L), BUN: 9.5 mmol/L (Reference: 2.5-7.5 mmol/L), Crea: 301 µmol/l (Reference: 60 - 110 µmol/L), Glucose: 3.5 mmol/L (Reference: 3.0-6.0 mmol/L). Taking into consideration the values above, in which of the following ranges will his osmolarity fall into?

      Your Answer: 300-313

      Explanation:

      Osmolarity refers to the osmotic pressure generated by the dissolved solute molecules in 1 L of solvent. Measurements of osmolarity are temperature dependent because the volume of the solvent varies with temperature. The higher the osmolarity of a solution, the more it attracts water from an opposite compartment.

      Osmolarity can be computed using the following formulas:

      Osmolarity = Concentration x number of dissociable particles; OR
      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 301 mOsm/L

      Suppose there is electrical neutrality, the formula will double the cation activity to account for the anions.

      Plasma osmolarity (Posm) = 2([Na+] + [K+]) + (glucose in mmol/L) + (BUN in mmol/L)

      Posm = 2 (144 + 6) + 3.5 + 9.5 = 313 mOsm/L

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following drug is enzyme inducer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drug is enzyme inducer?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin is a potent inducer of liver cytochrome enzymes. Other enzyme inducers are:
      Carbamazepine
      Sodium valproate
      Phenytoin
      Phenobarbitone

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      7.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy....

    Correct

    • Cells use adenosine-5-triphosphate (ATP) as a coenzyme and is a source of energy. Glucose metabolism produces the most ATP from which of the following biochemical processes?

      Your Answer: Electron transport phosphorylation in the mitochondria

      Explanation:

      Glycolysis occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell. It converts 1 glucose molecule (6-carbon) to pyruvate (two 3-carbon molecules) and produces 4 ATP molecules and 2NADH but uses 2 ATP in the process with an overall net energy production of 2 ATP.

      Pyruvate is then oxidised to acetyl coenzyme A (generating 2 NADH per pyruvate molecule). This takes place in the mitochondria and then enters the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle). It produces 2 ATP, 8 NADH and 2 FADH2 per glucose molecule.

      Electron transport phosphorylation takes place in the mitochondria. The aim of this process is to break down NADH and FADH2 and also to pump H+ into the outer compartment of the mitochondria. It produces 32 ATP with an overall net production of 36ATP.

      In anaerobic respiration which occurs in the cytoplasm, pyruvate is reduced to NAD producing 2 ATP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      14.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For...

    Correct

    • An emergency appendicectomy is being performed on a 20 year old man. For maintenance of anaesthesia, he is being ventilated using a circle system with a fresh gas flow (FGF) of 1 L/min (air/oxygen and sevoflurane). The trace on the capnograph shows a normal shape. The table below demonstrates the changes in the end-tidal and baseline carbon dioxide measurements of the capnograph at 10 and 20 minutes of anaesthesia maintenance. End-tidal CO2: 4.9 kPa vs 8.4kPa (10 minutes vs 20 minutes). Baseline end-tidal CO2: 0.2 kPa vs 2.4kPa. Pulse 100-107 beats per minute, systolic blood pressure 125-133 mmHg and oxygen saturation 98-99%. Which of the following is the single most important immediate course of action?

      Your Answer: Increase the FGF

      Explanation:

      End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring has been an important factor in reducing anaesthesia-related mortality and morbidity. Hypercarbia, or hypercapnia, occurs when levels of CO2 in the blood become abnormally high (Paco2 >45 mm Hg). Hypercarbia is confirmed by arterial blood gas analysis. When using capnography to approximate Paco2, remember that the normal arterial€“end-tidal carbon dioxide gradient is roughly 5 mm Hg. Hypercarbia, therefore, occurs when PETco2 is greater than 40 mm Hg.

      The most likely explanation for the changes in capnograph is either exhaustion of the soda lime and a progressive rise in circuit dead space.

      Inspect the soda lime canister for a change in colour of the granules. To overcome soda lime exhaustion, the first step is to increase the fresh gas flow (FGF) (Option A). Then, if need arises, replace the soda lime granules. Other strategies that can work are changing to another circuit or bypassing the soda lime canister, but remember that both these strategies are employed only after increasing FGF first. Exclude other causes of equipment deadspace too.

      There are also other causes for hypercarbia to develop intraoperatively:
      1. Hypoventilation is the most common cause of hypercapnia. A. Inadequate ventilation can occur with spontaneous breathing due to drugs like anaesthetic agents, opioids, residual NMDs, chronic respiratory or neuromuscular disease, cerebrovascular accident.
      B. In controlled ventilation, hypercapnia due to circuit leaks, disconnection or miscalculation of patient’s minute volume.
      2. Rebreathing – Soda lime exhaustion with circle, inadequate fresh gas flow into Mapleson circuits and increased breathing system deadspace.
      3. Endogenous source – Tourniquet release, hypermetabolic states (MH or thyroid storm) and release of vascular clamps.
      4. Exogenous source – Absorption of CO2 from pneumoperitoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Which measure of central tendency is most useful for a continuous, non-skewed data?...

    Correct

    • Which measure of central tendency is most useful for a continuous, non-skewed data?

      Your Answer: Mean

      Explanation:

      Mean, also known as the average, is the most common measure of central tendency. It is the sum of all observed values divided by the number of observation. It is not useful for skewed data, which has an abnormal distribution. It is useful, instead, for numerical data that have symmetric distribution. It reflects the contributions of each data in the group, and are sensitive to outliers.

      The median is the value that falls in the middle position when the observations are ranked in order from the smallest to the largest. If the number of observations is odd, the median is the middle number. If it is even, the median is the average of the two middle numbers. Unlike the mean, the median is useful on skewed data, and can be used for ordinal or numerical data if skewed.

      The mode is the value that occurs with the greatest frequency in a set of observations, and is utilized for bimodal distribution.

      The variance and the standard deviation are not measures of central tendency, but of dispersion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of: ...

    Correct

    • The spinal cord in a neonate terminates at the lower border of:

      Your Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      The spinal cord and the vertebral canal are as long as each other in early fetal life. The length of the cord increases faster than the growth of the vertebrae during development. By the time of birth, the spinal cord is at the level of the lower border of the 3rd lumbar vertebra, compared to its original position at the level of the 2nd coccygeal vertebra.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      6.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to devices for temperature management, all of these are used EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: Dial thermometers use coils of different metals with different co-efficients of expansion which either tighten or relax with changes in temperature

      Correct Answer: Thermistors use the resistance of a semiconductor bead which increases exponentially as the temperature increases

      Explanation:

      There are different types of temperature measurement. These include:

      Thermistor – this is a type of semiconductor, meaning they have greater resistance than conducting materials, but lower resistance than insulating materials. There are small beads of semiconductor material (e.g. metal oxide) which are incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge circuit. As the temperature increases, the resistance of the bead decreases exponentially

      Thermocouple – Two different metals make up a thermocouple. Generally, in the form of two wires twisted, welded, or crimped together. Temperature is sensed by measuring the voltage. A potential difference is created that is proportional to the temperature at the junction (Seebeck effect)

      Platinum resistance thermometers (PTR) – uses platinum for determining the temperature. The principle used is that the resistance of platinum changes with the change of temperature. The thermometer measures the temperature over the range of 200°C to1200°C. Resistance in metals show a linear increase with temperature

      Tympanic thermometers – uses infrared radiation which is emitted by all living beings. It analyses the intensity and wavelength and then transduces the heat energy into a measurable electrical output

      Gauge/dial thermometers – Uses coils of different metals with different co-efficient of expansion. These either tighten or relax with changes in temperature, moving a lever on a calibrated dial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of...

    Correct

    • The statement that best describes the classification of theatre equipment in terms of electrical safety is:

      Your Answer: A floating circuit is equipment applied to patient that is isolated from all its other parts

      Explanation:

      There are different classes of electrical equipment that can be classified in the table below:

      Class 1 – provides basic protection only. It must be connected to earth and insulated from the mains supply

      Class II – provides double insulation for all equipment. It does not require an earth.

      Class III – uses safety extra low voltage (SELV) which does not exceed 24 V AC. There is no risk of gross electrocution but risk of microshock exists.

      Type B – All of above with low leakage currents (0.5mA for Class IB, 0.1 mA for Class IIB)

      Type BF – Same as with other equipment but has ‘floating circuit’ which means that the equipment applied to patient is isolated from all its other parts.

      Type CF – Class I or II equipment with ‘floating circuits’ that is considered to be safe for direct connection with the heart. There are extremely low leakage currents (0.05mA for Class I CF and 0.01mA for Class II CF).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Measurement
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man, with symptomatic tracheal compression is scheduled for a thyroidectomy. He has previous personal history of hyperthyroidism, controlled by a carbimazole prescription. He has previously presented to the emergency department with dyspnoea and stridor, for which the surgery is indicated. Prior to his thyroidectomy, excessive bleeding is controlled for by ligation of the superior thyroid artery. The superior thyroid artery branches into the superior laryngeal artery which is closely related to a structure which upon injury will cause loss of sensation in the laryngeal mucosa. What is the name of this structure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The internal laryngeal nerve provides sensory innervation to the laryngeal mucosa, and injury to it will cause loss of sensation.

      The internal laryngeal nerve lies inferior to the piriform recess mucous membrane, placing it at high risk of irritation or damage by objects which become lodged in the recess.

      The internal laryngeal artery branches off the superior laryngeal artery accompanied by the superior laryngeal nerve, inferior to the thyroid artery which branches off the superior thyroid artery close to its bifurcation from the external carotid artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - One of two divisions of the autonomic nervous system is the sympathetic nervous...

    Incorrect

    • One of two divisions of the autonomic nervous system is the sympathetic nervous system. It is both anatomically and physiologically different from the parasympathetic nervous system. Which best describes the anatomical layout of the sympathetic nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Short myelinated preganglionic neurones from T1-L5 in lateral horns of grey matter of spinal cord, synapse in sympathetic ganglia (neurotransmitter - acetyl choline), long unmyelinated postganglionic neurones, synapse with effector organ (neurotransmitter - adrenaline or noradrenaline)

      Explanation:

      The autonomic nervous system is divided into the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system. They are anatomically and physiologically different.

      The sympathetic nervous system arises from the thoracolumbar outflow (T1-L5 ) at the lateral horns of grey matter of the spinal cord. Their preganglionic neurones are usually short myelinated and synapse in ganglia lateral to the vertebral column and have acetyl choline (Ach) as the neurotransmitter. Their postganglionic neurones are longer and unmyelinated and synapse with effector organ where the neurotransmitter is either adrenaline or noradrenaline.

      The outflow of the parasympathetic nervous system is craniosacral. The cranial part originates from the midbrain and medulla (cranial nerves III, VII, IX and X) and the sacral outflow is from S2, S3 and S4. Their preganglionic neurones are usually long myelinated and synapse in ganglia close to the target organ and has Ach as its neurotransmitter. The unmyelinated postganglionic neurones is shorter and they synapse with effector organ. The neurotransmitter here is also Ach.

      Both sympathetic and parasympathetic preganglionic neurons are cholinergic. Only the postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are cholinergic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from...

    Incorrect

    • With regards to arterial oxygen content, which of the following contributes most from a quantitative perspective?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin concentration

      Explanation:

      The amount of oxygen carried by 100 ml of blood is called the arterial oxygen content (CaO2)and is normally 17-24 ml/dL and can be determined by this equation:

      CaO2 = oxygen bound to haemoglobin + oxygen dissolved in plasma

      CaO2 = (1.34 × Hgb × SaO2 × 0.01) + (0.003 × PaO2)

      where:

      1.34 = Huffner’s constant (D) – Huffner’s constant does not change and its magnitude relatively small.
      Hgb is the haemoglobin level in g/dL and SaO2 is the percent oxyhaemoglobin saturation of arterial blood
      PaO2 is (0.0225 = ml of O2 dissolved per 100 ml plasma per kPa, or 0.003 ml per mmHg).

      Quantitatively, the amount of oxygen dissolved in plasma is 0.3 mL/dL.

      Henry’s law states that at constant temperature, the amount of gas dissolved at equilibrium in a given quantity of a liquid is proportional to the pressure of the gas in contact with the liquid.

      Given a haemoglobin concentration of 15 g/dL and a SaO2 of 100% and a PaO2 of 13.3 kPa, the amount of oxygen bound to haemoglobin is 20.4 mL/100mL.

      Cardiac output is an important determinant of oxygen delivery but does not influence the oxygen content of blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these...

    Incorrect

    • Using a negative feedback loop, Haem production is controlled by which of these enzymes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ALA synthetase

      Explanation:

      Heme a exists in cytochrome a and heme c in cytochrome c; they are both involved in the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 5′-Aminolevulinic acid synthase (ALA-S) is the regulated enzyme for heme synthesis in the liver and erythroid cells.

      There are two forms of ALA Synthase, ALAS1, and ALAS2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 20 - Regarding thermocouple, which of the following best describes its properties? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding thermocouple, which of the following best describes its properties?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The electromotive force at the measuring junction is proportional to temperature

      Explanation:

      Thermocouples are based on the Seebeck effect, i.e. a small thermoelectric current is generated when two different metal wires are put into contact at both ends with their junctions having a different temperature. If one junction is open, a contact electromotive force is generated. The current, or the electromotive force, is to a first approximation proportional to the temperature difference ΔT between the two junctions. A better approximation is obtained with a MacLaurin expansion with the second power of ΔT.

      Two wires bonded together with different coefficients of expansion can be used as a switch for thermostatic control.

      The resistance at the measuring junction is irrelevant.

      The resistance of a thermistor varies exponentially with temperature, while the resistance of a measuring junction varies linearly with temperature. Incorporated into a Wheatstone bridge is this unknown resistance, which is used to indirectly measure temperature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Physics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following is true regarding the dose of propofol? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding the dose of propofol?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1-2mg/kg

      Explanation:

      Propofol is a short-acting medication used for starting and maintenance of general anaesthesia, sedation for mechanically ventilated adults, and procedural sedation.
      The dose of propofol is 1-2 mg/kg.

      Dose of some other important drugs are listed below:
      Thiopental dose: 3-7 mg/kg
      Ketamine dose: 1-2 mg/kg
      Etomidate dose: 0.3 mg/kg
      Methohexitone dose: 1.0-1.5 mg/kg

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is...

    Incorrect

    • A double blind placebo control clinical trial is done. Which of these is correct about it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment does not know which treatment the patient has been given

      Explanation:

      A ‘double blind crossover study’ happens when every patient receive both treatments.

      It is incorrect to say that only half of the patients do not know which treatment they receive because in a double blind placebo control clinical trial ALL of the patients are blind to their treatment choice .

      If some of the patients are not treated, they would be aware that they were not being treated and it could not be considered a blind trial.

      In a double blind placebo control clinical trial both the clinician and the patient are blind to the treatment choice. The clinician assessing the effects of the treatment, therefore, does not know which treatment the patient has been given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Statistical Methods
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year old man and known alcoholic suffered a fall that resulted to a fracture on his right leg. Radiographic imaging showed a fractured tibial shaft. Following surgery, you were instructed to prescribe intravenous paracetamol as an analgesic. If the patient weighs 49 kg, which of the following would be the best regimen for the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 15 mg/kg with a maximum daily dose of 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)

      Explanation:

      A stock dose of Intravenous paracetamol available in the market is 10mg/ml. There is a recommended dose of IV paracetamol according to the profile of the patient (age, co-morbidities, weight).

      Weight Recommended Dose Maximum per day
      ‰¤10 kg 7.5 mg/kg 30 mg/kg
      >10 kg to ‰¤33 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 2 g)
      >33 kg to ‰¤50 kg 15 mg/kg 60 mg/kg (not exceeding 3 g)
      >50 kg with additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 3 g
      >50 kg with no additional risk factors for hepatotoxicity 1g 4 g

      Special precaution must be observed for patients with hepatocellular insufficiency. The maximum dose per day should not exceed 3g.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which? ...

    Incorrect

    • The right coronary artery supplies blood to all the following, except which?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The right coronary artery supplies the right ventricle, the right atrium, the sinoatrial (SA) node and the atrioventricular (AV) node.

      The circumflex artery originates from the left coronary artery and is supplied by it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment...

    Incorrect

    • Among the different classes of anti-arrhythmics, which one is the first line treatment for narrow complex AV nodal re-entry tachycardia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adenosine

      Explanation:

      Adenosine is the first line for AV nodal re-entry tachycardia. An initial dose of 6 mg is given, and a consequent second dose or third dose of 12 mg is administered if the initial dose fails to terminate the arrhythmia.

      Aside from Adenosine, a vagal manoeuvre (e.g. carotid massage) is done to help terminate the supraventricular arrhythmia.

      Amiodarone is not a first-line drug for supraventricular tachycardias. Digoxin and Propranolol can be considered if the arrhythmia is of a narrow complex irregular type. Verapamil is an alternative to Adenosine if the latter is contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. The paramedics have...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. The paramedics have noted the patient's symptoms as unilateral left-sided weakness of the upper and lower limbs, homonymous hemianopia and dysphasia. She has previous personal and family history of deep vein thromboses. The report of her CT scan suggests a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery. Post recovery, she undergoes further diagnostic investigations to determine the cause of a stroke at her young age. She is eventually diagnosed with a hypercoagulable state disease called Factor V Leiden thrombophilia. An emboli in the middle cerebral artery results in dysfunction of which areas of the brain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frontal, temporal and parietal lobes

      Explanation:

      The middle cerebral artery is a part of the circle of Willis system of anastomosis within the brain, and the most often affected by brain pathology.

      The primary function of the middle cerebral artery is providing oxygenated blood to related regions of the brain. It achieves this by giving off different branches to supply different brain regions, namely:

      The cortical branches: which supplies the primary motor and somatosensory cortical areas of some parts of the face, trunk and upper limbs.

      The small central branches: which supply the basal ganglia and internal capsule via the lenticulostriate vessels.

      The superior division: which supplies the lateral inferior frontal lobe, including the Broca area which is responsible for production of speech, language comprehension, and writing.

      The inferior division: which supplies the superior temporal gyrus, including Wernicke’s area which controls speech comprehension and language development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
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  • Question 27 - A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with: Pulse rate: 32...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male is brought to the Emergency department with: Pulse rate: 32 beats per minute Blood pressure: 82/35 mmHg 12 lead ECG shows a sinus bradycardia of 35 beats per minute with no evidence of myocardial ischemia or infarction. There was no chest pain but the patient feels light-headed. Which of the following would be the best initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atropine

      Explanation:

      Based on the presenting symptoms and clinical examination, it is a case of an adult sinus bradycardia with adverse signs. The first pharmacological treatment for this condition is atropine 500mcg intravenously and if necessary repeat every three to five minutes up to a maximum of 3 mg.

      If the bradycardia does not subside even after the administration of atropine, cardiac pacing should be considered. If pacing cannot be achieved promptly, we should consider the use of second-line drugs like adrenaline, dobutamine, or isoprenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy with status epilepticus was brought to ER and has already received two doses of intravenous lorazepam but is still continuing to have seizures. Which of the following drug would be best for his treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV

      Explanation:

      When the convulsion lasts for five or more than five minutes, or if there are recurrent episodes of convulsions in a 5 minute period without returning to the baseline, it is termed as Status Epilepticus.
      The first priority in the patient with seizures is maintaining the airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Guideline for the management of Status Epilepticus in children by Advanced Life Support Group is as follow:

      Step 1 (Five minutes after the start of seizures):

      If intravascular access is available start treatment with lorazepam 0.1 mg/kg IV
      If no intravascular access then give buccal midazolam 0.5 mg/kg or rectal diazepam 0.5 mg/kg.

      Step 2 (Ten minutes after the start of seizure):

      If the convulsions continue then a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. Senior should be called on-site and phenytoin should be prepared.
      No more than two doses or benzodiazepines should be given (including any doses given before arrival at the hospital)
      If still no IV access then obtain intraosseous access (IO).

      Step 3 (Ten minutes after step 2)

      Senior help along with anaesthetic/ICU help should be sought
      Phenytoin 20 mg/kg IV over 20 minutes
      If the seizure stops before the full dose of phenytoin is given then the infusion should be completed as this provides up to 24 hours of anticonvulsant effect
      In children already receiving phenytoin as treatment for epilepsy then an alternative is phenobarbitone 20 mg/kg IV over five minutes
      Once the phenytoin is started, senior staff may wish to give rectal paraldehyde 0.4 mg/kg although this is no longer included in the routine algorithm recommended by APLS.

      Step 4 (20 minutes after step 3)

      If 20 minutes after starting phenytoin the child remains in status epilepticus then rapid sequence induction of anaesthesia with thiopentone and a short acting paralysing agent is needed and the child transferred to paediatric intensive care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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  • Question 29 - Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to...

    Incorrect

    • Typical sigmoid log dose-response curves are seen in agonists and are used to compare efficacy and potency. Which of the following opioids has a log dose-response curve furthest to the right?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tramadol

      Explanation:

      Lesser the potency of the drug, the higher the dose required to produce maximal receptor occupation. So, the least potent drug will have a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Based on the option given, tramadol is the least potent drug and thus higher dose is required to produce maximal opioid receptor occupation.

      Thus, Tramadol is the least potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the right on X-axis.

      Note, Fentanyl is the most potent opioid with a log dose-response curve furthest to the left on the X-axis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - An otherwise fit 7-year-old boy for an elective tonsillectomy is seen holding a...

    Incorrect

    • An otherwise fit 7-year-old boy for an elective tonsillectomy is seen holding a bottle of sugared orange squash at anaesthetic assessment . He appears to have consumed 120 mL of the bottle's contents. What is the minimal safe fasting time prior to proceeding with a general anaesthetic in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 hour

      Explanation:

      The incidence of Pulmonary aspiration in children is about 0.07%€�0.1%.

      The Association of Paediatric Anaesthetists of Great Britain and Ireland, The European Society of Paediatric Anaesthetists and L’Association Des Anesthésistes€�Réanimateurs Pédiatriques d’Expression Française produced a consensus statement in April 2018 with revised starvation times in children prior to elective surgery.

      The preoperative fasting for elective procedures for children aged 0-16 years of age are:

      Solid food/formula milk – 6 hours
      Breast milk – 4 hours
      Clear fluid – 1 hour

      A liberal clear fluid fasting regime does not affect the incidence of pulmonary aspiration in children as long as there are no specific contraindications (e.g. gastro-oesophageal reflux, cerebral palsy). Prolonged periods of fasting in children are associated with increase thirst and irritability and can lead to other adverse physiological and metabolic effects.

      Clear fluids are defined as water, clear (nonopaque) fruit juice or squash/cordial, ready diluted drinks, and non-fizzy sports drinks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pathophysiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Pathophysiology (0/1) 0%
Physiology And Biochemistry (2/2) 100%
Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Anaesthesia Related Apparatus (1/1) 100%
Statistical Methods (1/1) 100%
Clinical Measurement (1/2) 50%
Passmed