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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of increasing fatigue that has been developing over the past few months. She is a non-smoker, takes no medication, and has been consuming two bottles of wine daily for the last 12 years. During the examination, the patient is found to have jaundice, finger clubbing, and telangiectasia. What investigation is most likely to confirm the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alanine transaminase (ALT)
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound (US) scan
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnosis of Alcoholic Liver Disease-Related Cirrhosis
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD)-related cirrhosis is a condition that develops over several years, progressing from hepatitis to fibrosis and then on to cirrhosis. It is often asymptomatic until complications develop, such as variceal bleeding, ascites, or spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. A diagnosis of ALD-related cirrhosis can be confirmed with an abdominal ultrasound (US) scan, which shows a shrunken, nodular liver. However, sometimes a liver biopsy may be required if the diagnosis cannot be confirmed on US.
Routine liver blood tests, including alanine transaminase (ALT), should not be used to rule significant liver pathology in or out, as ALT can be normal in cirrhosis. Bilirubin levels may be raised in cirrhosis, but a raised bilirubin can also be caused by other conditions, such as hepatitis, cholangitis, haemolysis, and pancreatic cancer.
Ceruloplasmin levels are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease, but in the case of ALD-related cirrhosis, it is much more likely that the diagnosis is related to alcohol consumption. Gastroscopy is not used to diagnose cirrhosis but should be undertaken once cirrhosis is diagnosed to screen for oesophageal varices, which are a complication occurring in around half of patients with cirrhosis.
Overall, a diagnosis of ALD-related cirrhosis is based on a combination of clinical history, physical examination, and imaging studies. It is important to diagnose cirrhosis early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old obese woman presents with a history of worsening headaches for 3 months. The headaches are worse on waking in the morning and improve when standing. She has papilloedema but no obvious neurological deficit.
Select the most important feature to discover in the history.Your Answer: Recent weight gain
Correct Answer: Worsening visual fields
Explanation:Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the skull, without any apparent cause such as a tumor or blockage. It is most commonly seen in young women who are overweight, and can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. The condition is thought to be caused by a problem with the absorption of cerebrospinal fluid, which can lead to swelling of the optic nerve and other symptoms.
The main symptoms of idiopathic intracranial hypertension are headaches and gradual loss of vision, which is often accompanied by swelling of the optic nerve. Treatment typically involves weight loss, diuretic therapy, and medication to relieve symptoms. In some cases, surgery may be necessary to relieve pressure on the brain and prevent further damage to the optic nerve.
If you are experiencing symptoms of idiopathic intracranial hypertension, it is important to seek medical attention right away. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, it is possible to manage the condition and prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 24-year-old man comes to the clinic with a slow-developing swelling in the anterior triangle of his neck, located in front of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The swelling is movable, fluctuant, painless, has no visible punctum, and doesn't shift with swallowing.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Branchial cyst
Explanation:Distinguishing a Branchial Cyst from Other Neck Swellings
A swelling located in front of the anterior border of the sternomastoid muscle at the junction of its upper and middle thirds is likely a branchial cyst, which is a remnant of the second branchial cleft. It commonly appears in the second or third decade of life and may enlarge during upper respiratory tract infections. The cyst can range in size from 1-10 cm and is typically painless, although it may become tender during an acute stage. Unlike an infected lymph node, there is no overlying punctum, and it is not attached to any underlying structures. Ultrasound can confirm the cystic nature of the lesion. An enlarged thyroid lobe is an incorrect diagnosis as it moves with swallowing. A sebaceous cyst usually has an overlying punctum, and a thyroglossal cyst is typically located midline and rises with swallowing or tongue protrusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with an inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and treated with thrombolysis. He has been prescribed atenolol 50 mg daily, aspirin, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily upon discharge. He has quit smoking after his MI and is now asking which foods he should avoid.
Your Answer: Cheese
Correct Answer: Kippers
Explanation:Diet Recommendations Following a Heart Attack
Following a heart attack, it is important for patients to make dietary changes to reduce the risk of another cardiac event. One of the key recommendations is to avoid foods high in saturated fat, such as cheese, milk, and fried foods. Instead, patients should switch to a diet rich in high-fiber, starch-based foods, and aim to consume five portions of fresh fruits and vegetables daily, as well as oily fish.
However, it is important to note that NICE guidance on Acute Coronary Syndromes (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules and supplements to prevent another heart attack. While oily fish is still recommended as a source of omega-3, patients should not rely on supplements as a substitute for a healthy diet. By making these dietary changes, patients can improve their heart health and reduce the risk of future cardiac events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man has scheduled a meeting to discuss his struggles with poor concentration and feeling sleepy while working. He works as a truck driver and frequently has to operate heavy machinery. His spouse has noticed that he experiences brief pauses in breathing while sleeping at night and occasionally makes choking sounds.
The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia. His Epworth sleepiness scale score is 16.
Considering his condition, what is the best course of action for the patient to take regarding operating heavy machinery?Your Answer: The GP must inform the DVLA
Correct Answer: He is required to inform the DVLA and stop driving
Explanation:If a person has mild, moderate, or severe obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) that causes excessive daytime sleepiness, they must inform the Driver Vehicle and Licensing Agency (DVLA). Excessive sleepiness refers to sleepiness that can negatively impact driving. The severity of OSA is determined by the number of apnoea/hypopnoea episodes per hour (apnoea-hypopnoea index [AHI]). Mild OSA is defined as an AHI of 5-14 per hour, moderate OSA is an AHI of 15-30 per hour, and severe OSA is an AHI of more than 30 per hour. If a person is diagnosed with OSA and experiences enough sleepiness to impair driving, they must inform the DVLA and stop driving. In this case, there is no need to retake a driving assessment, and the GP will not inform the DVLA initially. However, if the patient fails to inform the DVLA after multiple reminders and being informed that the GP may break confidentiality, the GP will inform the DVLA. If a person is being investigated for or has a diagnosis of OSA but doesn’t experience daytime sleepiness severe enough to impair driving, they do not need to inform the DVLA or stop driving. If a person is successfully using continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) or an intra-oral device and their symptoms are controlled to the point where they no longer impair driving, they should inform the DVLA but do not need to stop driving.
Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome
Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.
To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.
Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl collapses and dies during a track meet at school. She had no significant medical history. Upon post-mortem examination, it is discovered that she had asymmetric hypertrophy of the interventricular septum. What is the probability that her sister also has this condition?
Your Answer: 25%
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, nonspecific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A mother of a 12-week-old baby expresses concern that her baby has been acting differently for the past day. The baby is not smiling as much and is having 20% fewer breastfeeds. The baby was born at full term without any complications, has been thriving well, and has received all of his immunizations. During examination, the only notable finding is a temperature of 38.5ºC. What would be the best initial course of action in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Recommend breastfeeding support from the health visitor
Correct Answer: Refer for same-day paediatric assessment
Explanation:If a child under the age of 3 months has a fever exceeding 38ºC, they should be considered at high risk for serious illness according to the NICE traffic light system. This is classified as a red alert. NICE CKS provides additional information, stating that research from six studies indicates that the risk of serious illness is more than 10 times greater in this age group compared to older children.
The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013 to provide a ‘traffic light’ system for assessing the risk of febrile illness in children under 5 years old. The guidelines recommend recording the child’s temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time, as well as looking for signs of dehydration. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla for children under 4 weeks or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infra-red tympanic thermometer. The risk stratification table categorizes children as green (low risk), amber (intermediate risk), or red (high risk) based on their symptoms. Management recommendations vary depending on the risk level, with green children managed at home, amber children provided with a safety net or referred to a specialist, and red children urgently referred to a specialist. The guidelines also advise against prescribing oral antibiotics without an apparent source of fever and note that a chest x-ray is not necessary if a child with suspected pneumonia is not being referred to the hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man with ulcerative colitis and chronic lower back pain presents with a complaint of a red painful eye. What is the most probable feature that will be observed during the examination?
Your Answer: Retinal haemorrhages
Correct Answer: Photophobia on ophthalmoscopy
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of HLA-B27 Associated Uveitis
HLA-B27 associated uveitis is a condition that affects the eyes and is associated with several symptoms. One of the most common symptoms is photophobia, which is a sensitivity to light that can cause discomfort and pain. Other symptoms include ocular injection, miosis (due to ciliary spasm), normal or near-normal visual acuity, and a normal fundus.
While retinal and vitreous haemorrhages have been reported with severe uveitis, retinal haemorrhages are not a common symptom. Additionally, a dilated pupil is not typically associated with uveitis, as a small pupil is more common in acute anterior uveitis. Chronic uveitis may cause irregular-shaped pupils due to the presence of synechiae.
Profound visual loss is not a common symptom of uveitis, although some blurring of vision may occur with anterior uveitis. More severe loss of vision can occur with posterior uveitis and panuveitis. Finally, purulent discharge is not a symptom of uveitis, as it is typically associated with conjunctivitis.
Overall, understanding the symptoms of HLA-B27 associated uveitis can help individuals recognize the condition and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 68 year old woman with chronic asthma has been using a lot of salbutamol including via a nebuliser. She has a tremor, headache and tachycardia.
Select from the list the single most likely biochemical finding.Your Answer: Raised T4 and low TSH
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Cautionary Measures for β2-Adrenergic Agonist Treatment
β2-adrenergic agonist treatment may lead to potentially serious hypokalaemia, especially in severe asthma cases. This effect can be intensified by theophylline, corticosteroids, diuretics, and hypoxia. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor plasma-potassium concentration in severe asthma patients. People with diabetes should also exercise caution when using β2 agonists, particularly when given intravenously, as it may increase the risk of ketoacidosis. These cautionary measures are necessary to ensure the safe and effective use of β2-adrenergic agonist treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 10
Correct
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You are reviewing the health of a 60-year-old man who has hypertension, a history of myocardial infarction 10 months ago, and depression. He is currently taking amlodipine, ramipril, sertraline, atorvastatin, and aspirin. He reports feeling generally well but mentions experiencing erectile dysfunction since starting his medications after his heart attack.
Which medication is most likely responsible for this man's erectile dysfunction?Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Erectile dysfunction is a side-effect that is considered uncommon for amlodipine and ramipril, according to the BNF. However, SSRIs are a frequent cause of sexual dysfunction, making them the most probable medication to result in ED.
Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.
To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with a sodium level of 127 mmol/l. She doesn't smoke. Which medication is the most probable cause of this abnormality?
Your Answer: Pioglitazone
Correct Answer: Glimepiride
Explanation:SIADH is a well-known side effect of sulfonylureas like glimepiride.
SIADH is a condition where the body retains too much water, leading to low sodium levels in the blood. This can be caused by various factors such as malignancy (particularly small cell lung cancer), neurological conditions like stroke or meningitis, infections like tuberculosis or pneumonia, certain drugs like sulfonylureas and SSRIs, and other factors like positive end-expiratory pressure and porphyrias. Treatment involves slowly correcting the sodium levels, restricting fluid intake, and using medications like demeclocycline or ADH receptor antagonists. It is important to correct the sodium levels slowly to avoid complications like central pontine myelinolysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents with complaints of dizziness and syncope. Upon examination, he has a slow-rising pulse and normal blood pressure, with a narrow pulse pressure. An ejection systolic murmur is heard in the aortic area, and an echocardiogram confirms a valvular abnormality. What is the most probable cause of this abnormality in a man of this age?
Your Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Aortic Stenosis: A Comparison of Possible Factors
Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms and complications. One of the most common causes of aortic stenosis is a bicuspid aortic valve, which affects 1-2% of the population and is more prevalent in males. However, other factors can also contribute to the development of aortic stenosis, including hypertension and hypercholesterolemia. While hypertension is a risk factor for calcific aortic stenosis in both bicuspid and tricuspid valves, it is not the most common cause. On the other hand, hypercholesterolemia doesn’t directly cause aortic stenosis. Another condition that can present similarly to aortic stenosis is obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which results from mid-systolic obstruction of flow through the left-ventricular outflow tract. Finally, valvular heart disease due to rheumatic fever is currently uncommon in the UK and is unlikely to be the cause of aortic stenosis in most cases. By understanding the different factors that can contribute to aortic stenosis, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Correct
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Samantha is a 9-year-old girl who complains of throat itching and mild swelling of her lips after consuming a mango. She has no other symptoms and no breathing difficulties. She has noticed similar symptoms after eating various fruits during the summer. Samantha has a history of hay fever and takes regular antihistamines. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral allergy syndrome
Explanation:Oral allergy syndrome is closely associated with pollen allergies and exhibits seasonal fluctuations. It occurs when allergens in certain foods cross-react with pollens, causing the body to react to the food proteins as if they were pollen. This results in a localized reaction around the mouth, such as an itchy mouth or throat, and sometimes hives. As the patient experiences symptoms with various fruits, it is not a pure kiwi allergy. Urticaria is characterized by an itchy rash triggered by an allergen, but there is no mention of a rash in this case. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that causes swelling of the throat and tongue, as well as breathing difficulties. However, since there is only mild lip swelling and no breathing difficulties, anaphylaxis is unlikely.
Understanding Oral Allergy Syndrome
Oral allergy syndrome, also known as pollen-food allergy, is a type of hypersensitivity reaction that occurs when a person with a pollen allergy eats certain raw, plant-based foods. This reaction is caused by cross-reaction with a non-food allergen, most commonly birch pollen, where the protein in the food is similar but not identical in structure to the original allergen. As a result, OAS is strongly linked with pollen allergies and presents with seasonal variation. Symptoms of OAS typically include mild tingling or itching of the lips, tongue, and mouth.
It is important to note that OAS is different from food allergies, which are caused by direct sensitivity to a protein present in food. Non-plant foods do not cause OAS because there are no cross-reactive allergens in pollen that would be structurally similar to meat. Food allergies may be caused by plant or non-plant foods and can lead to systemic symptoms such as vomiting and diarrhea, and even anaphylaxis.
OAS is a clinical diagnosis, but further tests can be used to rule out other diagnoses and confirm the diagnosis when the history is unclear. Treatment for OAS involves avoiding the culprit foods and taking oral antihistamines if symptoms develop. In severe cases, an ambulance should be called, and intramuscular adrenaline may be required.
In conclusion, understanding oral allergy syndrome is important for individuals with pollen allergies who may experience symptoms after eating certain raw, plant-based foods. By avoiding the culprit foods and seeking appropriate medical care when necessary, individuals with OAS can manage their symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy And Immunology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The following patients all attend for a medication review in your afternoon clinic. They all have atrial fibrillation (AF) and are taking multiple medications.
Which patient should discontinue anticoagulation?Your Answer: A 75-year-old man who is otherwise fit and well
Correct Answer: An 80-year-old man who has undergone left atrial appendage closure, surgically preventing clots from entering the bloodstream
Explanation:Even after undergoing catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation, patients must continue taking anticoagulants for an extended period based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A study is being planned to investigate the association between environmental exposure to pesticides and the incidence of cancer in elderly individuals. The researchers have limited funding for the study and need to keep the length and cost of the trial to a minimum.
What is the most appropriate study design?Your Answer: Cross-sectional survey
Correct Answer: Case-control study
Explanation:Different Study Designs and Their Suitability for Investigating Pesticide Exposure and Cancer Risk
When investigating the potential link between pesticide exposure and cancer risk, various study designs can be used. A case-control study involves comparing the history of pesticide exposure in a group of cancer patients (cases) with that in a group of individuals without cancer (controls). This design is useful for answering the study question without the need for a long and expensive follow-up.
A cohort study, on the other hand, involves following up on an entire population over time, measuring exposure to pesticides and observing the incidence of cancer. While this design can provide valuable information, it is likely to be time-consuming and costly.
A case series involves studying a group of cancer patients with a history of pesticide exposure, but this design provides a low level of evidence.
A cross-sectional survey involves looking at data from a population at a specific point in time, providing information on the prevalence of a condition but not the incidence.
Finally, a randomized controlled trial, which is considered the gold standard study design, is not suitable for investigating the link between pesticide exposure and cancer risk as it would be neither practical nor ethical to expose subjects to pesticides.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A general practitioner wants to audit dermatology care at her practice. She decides to look at viral wart treatment in adults at the practice. At present, viral warts on hands or toes are initially treated in the practice using topical agents of various types. Patients are followed up at three months by some doctors. Others advise patients to return only if their warts have not resolved after three months of treatment.
When carrying out her audit, which of the following is the most appropriate step to follow?
Your Answer: Find out which is the cheapest topical treatment for viral warts and recommend that this is always used as first-line treatment
Correct Answer: Define ideal practice and compare this with current performance at her surgery
Explanation:The Process of Conducting a Healthcare Audit
To conduct a healthcare audit, the auditor must first choose a specific topic within the healthcare industry and establish criteria for ideal practice in that area. These criteria serve as standards that represent the best possible outcomes that can be achieved.
Next, the actual performance of healthcare providers in the chosen topic area is measured and compared to the established standards. Any discrepancies between the measured performance and the set standards are reported.
The goal is to identify areas where actual performance falls short of ideal practice and take steps to reduce or eliminate poor practice. This may involve implementing new policies or procedures, providing additional training to healthcare providers, or making changes to existing systems.
Finally, the performance in the chosen topic area is re-audited at a later date to assess whether the changes made have resulted in improvements. This ongoing process of auditing and improving healthcare practices helps to ensure that patients receive the best possible care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to her GP for a check-up. She has a history of hypothyroidism and is currently taking levothyroxine 100 mcg. She reports feeling well and has no significant symptoms. Her TFTs were last checked 6 months ago and were normal.
Free T4 18.5 pmol/l
TSH 0.1 mu/l
What should be the next step in management?Your Answer: Increase dose to levothyroxine 150 mcg od
Correct Answer: Decrease dose to levothyroxine 75mcg od
Explanation:The latest TFTs reveal that the patient is experiencing over replacement, as evidenced by a suppressed TSH. Despite being asymptomatic, it is advisable to decrease the dosage to minimize the risk of osteoporosis and atrial fibrillation. According to the BNF, a 25mcg dose adjustment is recommended for individuals in this age bracket.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Goals, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland doesn’t produce enough thyroid hormone. The management of hypothyroidism involves the use of levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. The initial starting dose of levothyroxine should be lower in elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease. For patients with cardiac disease, severe hypothyroidism, or patients over 50 years, the initial starting dose should be 25mcg od with dose slowly titrated. Other patients should be started on a dose of 50-100 mcg od. After a change in thyroxine dose, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks. The therapeutic goal is to achieve a ‘normalisation’ of the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level, with a TSH value of 0.5-2.5 mU/l being the preferred range.
Women with established hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased ‘by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine’* due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. There is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
Levothyroxine therapy may cause side-effects such as hyperthyroidism due to over-treatment, reduced bone mineral density, worsening of angina, and atrial fibrillation. Interactions with iron and calcium carbonate may reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, so they should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, the management of hypothyroidism involves careful dosage adjustment, regular monitoring of thyroid function tests, and aiming for a TSH value in the normal range. Women who become pregnant should have their dose increased, and combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine is not recommended. Patients should also be aware of potential side-effects and interactions with other medications.
*source: NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The practice nurse seeks your guidance on how to manage 23-year-old Sarah, who is 29 weeks pregnant and has come for routine vaccinations. She reports experiencing ankle swelling and her blood pressure has increased from 117/74 mmHg at booking to 143/91 mmHg today. A urine dipstick test has revealed 1+ protein, - leukocytes, and - nitrites. What would be the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Review the patient tomorrow and repeat blood pressure and urine dip
Correct Answer: Urgent admission to obstetric unit
Explanation:Meera’s condition has progressed to pre-eclampsia, indicated by her blood pressure exceeding 140/90 mmHg and the presence of proteinuria at a level of 1+ or higher. As per NICE guidelines, it is imperative that she is promptly admitted to an obstetric unit for close observation and potential intervention.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common condition that can be managed effectively with proper care. In normal pregnancy, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, if a pregnant woman develops hypertension, it is usually defined as a systolic blood pressure of over 140 mmHg or a diastolic blood pressure of over 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from booking readings can also indicate hypertension.
After confirming hypertension, the patient should be categorized into one of three groups: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), or pre-eclampsia. PIH, also known as gestational hypertension, occurs in 3-5% of pregnancies and is more common in older women. If a pregnant woman takes an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker for pre-existing hypertension, it should be stopped immediately, and alternative antihypertensives should be started while awaiting specialist review.
Pregnancy-induced hypertension in association with proteinuria, which occurs in around 5% of pregnancies, may also cause oedema. The 2010 NICE guidelines recommend oral labetalol as the first-line treatment for hypertension during pregnancy. Oral nifedipine and hydralazine may also be used, depending on the patient’s medical history. It is important to manage hypertension during pregnancy effectively to reduce the risk of complications and ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 19
Correct
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Which of the following is not a recognized approach used in qualitative research?
Your Answer: Census survey
Explanation:Quantitative research involves the use of surveys as a method.
Analytical Approaches in Qualitative Research
Analytical approaches are an essential part of qualitative research, which aims to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. Content analysis is a common method used in healthcare research, where interviews are transcribed to produce texts that can be used to generate coding categories and test theories. This involves counting word frequencies, sometimes aided by computer software. Another approach is constant comparison, which is based on grounded theory. It allows researchers to identify important themes in a systematic way, providing an audit trail as they proceed. The method involves developing concepts from the data by coding and analyzing at the same time.
Assessing validity is also crucial in qualitative research. Triangulation compares the results from different methods of data collection or data sources. Respondent validation, or member checking, involves comparing the investigator’s account with those of the research subjects to establish the level of correspondence between the two sets. Bracketing is a methodological device of phenomenological inquiry that requires putting aside one’s own beliefs about the phenomenon under investigation or what one already knows about the subject prior to and throughout the phenomenological investigation. Reflexivity means sensitivity to the ways in which the researcher and the research process have shaped the collected data, including the role of prior assumptions and experience, which can influence even the most avowedly inductive inquiries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with peripheral oedema and polyuria. Her pulse is 90/min and regular and her blood pressure is 130/80. A full blood count, liver function tests and urea and electrolytes are normal. Her serum albumin is 23 g/l (35 - 50 g/l).
Select the single most appropriate NEXT investigation that should be performed.Your Answer: Renal biopsy
Correct Answer: Dipstick
Explanation:Diagnosing Nephrotic Syndrome: The Importance of Proteinuria and Renal Biopsy
Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria (>3g/24 hours), hypoalbuminaemia (<30g/l), and oedema. To quantify proteinuria, a urine ACR or PCR or 24-hour urine collection is required. However, heavy proteinuria on urine dipstick is sufficient to confirm the need for a renal biopsy. Before a renal biopsy, a renal ultrasound is necessary to ensure the presence of two kidneys and confirm kidney size and position. Autoantibodies aid in diagnosis, but the initial confirmatory investigation is the dipstick. In children and young adults, minimal change glomerulonephritis is the most likely renal biopsy finding, which may be steroid responsive and has a good prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A mother brings a 7-week-old girl to the practice for a routine 6–8-week physical examination.
Which is the SINGLE option that would normally be carried out at that examination?Your Answer: Heel-prick blood test
Correct Answer: Auscultation of the heart
Explanation:Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns
Newborns undergo several tests to ensure their health and development. These tests include auscultation of the heart, examination for developmental dysplasia of the hip, congenital cataracts, and undescended testicles. However, some heart murmurs may not be detected until the ductus arteriosus closes early in life. A hearing test, specifically the automated otoacoustic emission test, is often performed before discharge from the hospital or during the first 4-5 weeks of life. The cover test for squint is not usually done during the newborn stage as it requires the child to fixate on an object held away from the eyes. Blood-spot screening for conditions such as congenital hypothyroidism, phenylketonuria, cystic fibrosis, and sickle cell disease is ideally carried out at five days. A urine test is a diagnostic test rather than a screening test at this age and is usually done if a urinary infection is suspected.
Screening and Diagnostic Tests for Newborns
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is undergoing treatment for ulcerative colitis and experiences pancytopenia. What is the probable reason for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Prednisolone
Correct Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Drugs and Pancytopenia in Ulcerative Colitis: Understanding the Risks
Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects millions of people worldwide. While there is no cure for the condition, various drugs can help manage symptoms and induce remission. However, some of these drugs can also cause bone marrow suppression, leading to a condition called pancytopenia.
Azathioprine, methotrexate, ciclosporin, infliximab, and mesalazine are some of the drugs commonly used in ulcerative colitis that can cause bone marrow suppression. Patients taking these drugs should be monitored regularly for symptoms of bleeding or infection, and blood counts should be undertaken.
Anti-diarrhoeal drugs like codeine phosphate, co-phenotrope, and loperamide may help control symptoms, but they do not cause pancytopenia. Mebeverine may provide symptomatic relief from colic, but it doesn’t cause pancytopenia either.
While metronidazole may be helpful in people with Crohn’s disease, it is generally not considered useful for those with ulcerative colitis. Pancytopenia has been reported with metronidazole. Prednisolone, on the other hand, can be used to induce remission in ulcerative colitis without causing pancytopenia.
It is essential to note that other drugs, such as chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, septrin, gold, penicillamine, indometacin, diclofenac, naproxen, piroxicam, phenytoin, carbamazepine, carbimazole, thiouracil, dosulepin, phenothiazines, chlorpropamide, and chloroquine, have also been reported to cause pancytopenia. Therefore, patients with ulcerative colitis should be aware of the risks associated with these drugs and report any symptoms immediately to their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents with sudden vision loss in her left eye. She has a history of severe rheumatoid arthritis and is currently on methotrexate, infliximab, and prednisolone. Over the past six weeks, she has been experiencing persistent headaches. Upon examination, bilateral papilloedema is observed, leading to a suspected diagnosis of intracranial hypertension. What is the most probable cause of the intracranial hypertension?
Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:The cause of the patient’s intracranial hypertension is likely due to the use of prednisolone. If the optic nerve becomes compressed, sudden loss of vision may occur.
Understanding Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension, also known as pseudotumour cerebri, is a medical condition that is commonly observed in young, overweight females. The condition is characterized by a range of symptoms, including headache, blurred vision, and papilloedema, which is usually present. Other symptoms may include an enlarged blind spot and sixth nerve palsy.
There are several risk factors associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension, including obesity, female sex, pregnancy, and certain drugs such as the combined oral contraceptive pill, steroids, tetracyclines, vitamin A, and lithium.
Management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension may involve weight loss, diuretics such as acetazolamide, and topiramate, which can also cause weight loss in most patients. Repeated lumbar puncture may also be necessary, and surgery may be required to prevent damage to the optic nerve. This may involve optic nerve sheath decompression and fenestration, or a lumboperitoneal or ventriculoperitoneal shunt to reduce intracranial pressure.
It is important to note that if intracranial hypertension is thought to occur secondary to a known cause, such as medication, it is not considered idiopathic. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms associated with idiopathic intracranial hypertension can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of epilepsy and currently taking sodium valproate is found to have a urinary tract infection. Which antibiotic should be avoided if possible?
Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis
Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.
The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.
While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for some patients.
Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman presents for a medication review. He is currently on sildenafil for erectile dysfunction and has a longstanding history of stable angina. Which of the following medications should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Correct Answer: Carvedilol
Explanation:Sildenafil: A Treatment for Impotence
Sildenafil is a well-established treatment for impotence that works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase type 5, which produces cavernous venodilation and erections in appropriately stimulated patients. It is important to note that sildenafil doesn’t increase sex drive or libido.
While sildenafil is not contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, it is contraindicated in subjects taking nitrates due to the potential for severe hypotension. Additionally, drugs like nicorandil are inadvisable due to the nitrate component.
Common side effects of sildenafil include flushing, which develops in the majority of patients, as well as nasal congestion and blue visual discolouration. It is important to discuss any potential risks and benefits of sildenafil with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 26
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of upper abdominal bloating and discomfort after meals that has been going on for three months. She reports feeling nauseated at times but denies vomiting. She has lost more than 1 stone in weight. She has not experienced any changes in bowel habits and has not passed any blood in her stools. She has no significant medical history.
During the physical examination, there is no evidence of jaundice or anemia, but she has diffuse upper abdominal tenderness, and her gallbladder is palpable on inspiration. A previous abdominal ultrasound scan conducted ten years ago revealed the presence of an incidental gallstone, but she did not undergo surgery as she was asymptomatic at the time. There is a strong family history of gallstones.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Routine referral for consideration of cholecystectomy
Explanation:Understanding Gallbladder Cancer and its Risk Factors
Gallbladder cancer is a rare form of cancer that often goes undiagnosed until it has reached an advanced stage. It is more common in women, especially those with a history of gallstones, and those who have a family history of the disease. Other risk factors include smoking, obesity, and diabetes. Native Americans, black, and Hispanic populations are also at a higher risk of developing Gallbladder cancer.
Symptoms of Gallbladder cancer can be vague and mimic benign disease, making it difficult to diagnose. However, unintentional weight loss is a red flag and should be taken seriously. Most Gallbladder tumors are adenocarcinomas and can spread to the liver and lungs. By the time symptoms appear, the cancer has often metastasized, and more than half of patients present with jaundice.
It is important to have a high index of suspicion for Gallbladder cancer, especially in patients with risk factors. Even if the abdominal examination is normal, significant weight loss should prompt urgent referral for investigation under the two week wait system. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms of Gallbladder cancer, healthcare professionals can help ensure early detection and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 28-year-old man presents with swelling and pain in the proximal interphalangeal joints of both hands. Both hands show ulnar deviation, with pitting of the nails and onycholysis.
What is the single most likely cause of this patient’s condition?Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Understanding Psoriatic Arthritis and its Differential Diagnosis
Psoriatic arthritis is a condition that affects at least 5% of patients with psoriasis. It can occur with or without visible skin lesions and may only involve the nails. The disease can present in various ways, including asymmetrical oligoarticular arthritis, asymmetrical polyarthritis similar to rheumatoid arthritis, distal interphalangeal arthropathy, arthritis mutilans, and spondylitis with or without sacroiliitis. Dactylitis, or sausage-shaped digits, is a characteristic feature of psoriatic arthritis due to tendon and ligament inflammation.
Dermatophyte fungal infection is limited to the skin, hair, and nails and doesn’t affect joints. Gonococcal arthritis may cause migratory arthralgia or septic arthritis in a small number of joints. Reactive arthritis typically presents with symmetrical oligoarthritis, low back pain, heel pain, and possible urethritis and conjunctivitis. Rheumatoid arthritis usually presents with tender, warm, and swollen joints, along with joint stiffness that is worse in the morning and after inactivity. However, the nail changes described in this case make psoriatic arthritis a more likely diagnosis.
In summary, understanding the various modes of presentation and differential diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are a new partner in an inner city practice, having recently completed GP training. A teenage patient presents in a very poor state of health. She is very thin and has multiple injection site marks. She tells you she has previously been prescribed methadone and is seeking to restart this.
What is your most appropriate response?Your Answer: Initiate methadone at 20 ml
Correct Answer: Do not prescribe and refer to specialist service
Explanation:Safe Prescribing of Methadone
It is crucial that doctors do not feel pressured to prescribe methadone without proper evaluation and consideration of the patient’s history. Methadone is a potent drug that can be dangerous if not prescribed correctly. Therefore, the prescriber must be experienced and competent in handling such cases.
Before prescribing methadone, the patient should undergo a drug screening, and their previous GP or drug team should be contacted. It is also advisable to involve a local drug worker in the patient’s care. Only after these steps should methadone be prescribed, and at a low dose, gradually increasing under the supervision of a pharmacist. The principle of start low, go slow should be followed to ensure the patient’s safety.
By following these guidelines, doctors can ensure that methadone is prescribed safely and effectively, minimizing the risks associated with this potent drug.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old kayaker complains of discomfort in the right distal dorsoradial forearm, approximately 5-10 cm away from the wrist joint. Upon examination, there is slight redness and swelling in the area. The patient experiences crepitus when moving their right hand. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: De Quervain's tenosynovitis
Correct Answer: Intersection syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Intersection Syndrome
Intersection syndrome is a condition that occurs when the tendons of the extensor carpi radialis longus and the extensor carpi radialis brevis intersect with the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis muscles. This results in inflammation and tenosynovitis, which can cause pain in the distal dorsoradial forearm, around 5-10 cm proximal of the wrist joint. Swelling and erythema may also be present.
It is important to note that intersection syndrome is often misdiagnosed as de Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who engage in activities such as skiing, tennis, weightlifting, and canoeing.
Fortunately, intersection syndrome can be managed with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), steroid injections, and physiotherapy. Surgical treatment is rarely required. By understanding the symptoms and causes of intersection syndrome, individuals can seek appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following consultation models recommends discovering the motive for the patient's visit in relation to thoughts, worries, and anticipations?
Your Answer: Stewart
Correct Answer: Pendleton
Explanation:The Calgary-Cambridge model also includes aspects of investigating concepts, worries, and anticipations.
Consultation Models
The following are various consultation models that healthcare professionals can use to guide their interactions with patients. Each model has its own unique approach and set of steps to follow. The Calgary-Cambridge observation guide focuses on initiating the session, gathering information, building the relationship, giving information, explaining and planning, and closing the session. The Stewart patient-centered clinical method emphasizes exploring both the disease and the illness experience, understanding the whole person, finding common ground, incorporating prevention and health promotion, enhancing the doctor-patient relationship, and being realistic with time and resources. The Pendleton model involves defining the reason for the patient’s attendance, considering other problems, choosing an appropriate action for each problem, achieving a shared understanding of the problems with the patient, involving the patient in the management and encouraging them to accept appropriate responsibility, using time and resources appropriately, and establishing or maintaining a relationship with the patient. The Fraser model includes interviewing and history-taking, physical examination, diagnosis and problem-solving, patient management, relating to patients, anticipatory care, and record-keeping. The Neighbour model, called the Inner Consultation, includes connecting, summarizing, handing over, safety netting, and housekeeping. Finally, the Tuckett model emphasizes that the consultation is a meeting between two experts, doctors are experts in medicine, patients are experts in their own illnesses, shared understanding is the aim, doctors should seek to understand the patient’s beliefs, and doctors should address explanations in terms of the patient’s belief system. By using these models, healthcare professionals can provide effective and patient-centered care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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