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Question 1
Correct
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Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting protein synthesis?
Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Penicillins and cephalosporins (e.g. cefuroxime, cefotaxime, ceftriaxone) inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis through the inhibition of peptidoglycan cross-linking.
Macrolides (e.g. erythromycin), tetracyclines, aminoglycosides and chloramphenicol act by interfering with bacterial protein synthesis.
Sulphonamides (e.g. trimethoprim, co-trimoxazole) work by inhibiting the synthesis of nucleic acid -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 34 year old man is undergoing an inguinal hernia repair as a day case procedure and is being given sevoflurane. Which of the following is the best option for maintaining his airway during the procedure?
Your Answer: Insertion of endotracheal tube
Correct Answer: Insertion of laryngeal mask
Explanation:The laryngeal airway mask (LAM) is a device for anaesthetic air way management. The primary advantage of the laryngeal airway mask (LAM) over the face mask during general anaesthesia includes the ability to obtain, secure, and maintain a patent airway. The laryngeal mask airway is passed beyond the tongue, forming a seal with the laryngeal inlet and eliminating the most common cause of upper airway obstruction in the non-intubated patient.
Maintenance of a patent airway with fewer episodes of oxygen desaturation has been demonstrated for the LAM as compared with the face mask. Environmental inhalational gas exposure values associated with the use of a LAM have been shown to be less than those achieved with a face mask and comparable to those with the use of an endotracheal tube. Ocular and facial nerve injuries associated with prolonged face mask use are also avoided. The advantages of the laryngeal mask airway include anaesthetic management, induction, maintenance, and emergence.
The placement of the LMA can be accomplished without muscle relaxants and laryngoscopy. The avoidance of succinylcholine may decrease the incidence of post-operative myalgias. Significant and potentially detrimental hemodynamic changes associated with both laryngoscopy and tracheal intubation are also attenuated and are of shorter duration with the use of the laryngeal mask airway. Compared with an endotracheal tube, the anaesthetic requirement for tolerance of the LAM has also been reported to be less. Differences in the response to the LAM are also seen during emergence from anaesthesia. The LAM is well tolerated, with a lower reported incidence of hyperactive respiratory occurrences (e.g., coughing, laryngospasm, breath holding) than with an endotracheal tube. The anatomic placement of the LAM, with its lack of impingement on the trachea and vocal cords, minimizes complications that are potentially associated with intubation. According to Swann et al. incidence of postoperative sore throat as well as hoarseness is less with the LAM compared with the endotracheal tube.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Post-operative Management And Critical Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 3
Correct
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A 39-year-old homosexual is admitted with diarrhoea of three-month duration. He is found to be HIV positive with a CD4 cell count <50/μL. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible?
Your Answer: Cryptosporidium
Explanation:Based on the history and findings, the most likely causative organism is cryptosporidium. It can cause severe, chronic, and possibly fatal diarrhoea in immunocompromised patients.
In patients with HIV/AIDS, clinical manifestations of cryptosporidiosis vary with the degree of immune compromise. Those with CD4 cell counts above 180–200/μL may be asymptomatic or develop self-limiting diarrhoeal illness. However, patients with advanced AIDS (CD4 cell counts <50/μL) can have severe diarrhoea that can persist for several months, resulting in severe dehydration, weight loss and malnutrition, extended hospitalizations, and mortality. In addition, patients with advanced AIDS are at greater risk of developing extraintestinal infection, particularly of the biliary, pancreatic, and respiratory tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following veins is prostate cancer most likely to metastasize through?
Your Answer: Internal vertebral venous plexus
Explanation:The internal vertebral veins are the most likely route of metastasis as they are valveless. They serve an important clinical role as they are the route of free travel for cancerous cells to other body structures. The other veins on the list have valves and would be the least likely routes for metastasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A CT-scan of the lung shows a tumour crossing the minor (horizontal) fissure. This fissure separates:
Your Answer: The lower lobe from the lingula
Correct Answer: The middle lobe from the upper lobe
Explanation:The horizontal fissure separates the upper lobe from the middle lobe. The oblique fissure on the other hand separates the lower lobe from both the middle and upper lobes. The lingula is found only on the left lung.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 6
Correct
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Which of the following organs is most likely to have dendritic cells?
Your Answer: Skin
Explanation:Dendritic cells are part of the immune system and they function mainly as antigen presenting cells. They are present in small quantities in tissues which are in contact in the external environment. Mainly in the skin and to a lesser extent in the lining of the nose, lungs, stomach and intestines. In the skin they are known as Langerhans cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 14 year old boy is suspected of having CSF rhinorrhoea after sustaining a basal skull fracture. Which laboratory test would be able to accurately detect the presence of CSF?
Your Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay
Explanation:Answer: Beta 2 transferrin assay
Beta-2-transferrin is a protein found only in CSF and perilymph. Since 1979, beta-2-transferrin has been used extensively by otolaryngologists in the diagnosis of CSF rhinorrhoea and skull-base cerebrospinal fluid fistulas. With sensitivity of 94% – 100%, and specificity of 98% – 100%, this assay has become the gold standard in detection of CSF leakage. CSF rhinorrhoea is characterized by clear or xanthochromic watery rhinorrhoea that may not become apparent until nasal packing is removed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 8
Correct
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A 31-year-old woman is diagnosed with adrenal hyperplasia, and laboratory samples are taken to measure serum aldosterone and another substance. Which is most likely to be the other test that was prescribed to this patient?
Your Answer: Plasma renin
Explanation:The evaluation of a patient in whom hyperaldosteronism is first to determine that hyperaldosteronism is present (serum aldosterone) and, if it is present, to differentiate primary from secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism. The aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR) is the most sensitive means of differentiating primary from secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism as it is abnormally increased in primary hyperaldosteronism, and decreased or normal but with high renin levels in secondary hyperaldosteronism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 39-year old female patient was diagnosed with a tumour of the left adrenal gland. The tumour, which is metastasizing to the adjacent tissues, has already extended to the left suprarenal vein. If the tumour is still spreading, which of the following veins will most likely be affected after the involvement of the left suprarenal vein?
Your Answer: Left renal vein
Explanation:The suprarenal veins or also known as the veins of Warshaw, are the veins that receive blood from the suprarenal glands. These veins receive blood from the medullary venous plexus and the cortex of the adrenal glands (suprarenal glands). They are two in number – the left and the right suprarenal veins. The right suprarenal vein drains into the inferior vena cava while the left suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein. This therefore means that in the case of a metastasizing tumour involving the left suprarenal vein, the tumour will most likely extend from the left suprarenal vein to the left renal vein into which it drains.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year old patient with altered bowl movement experienced the worsening of shortness of breath and exertional chest pains over the course of 8 weeks. Examination shows pallor and jugular venous distension. Furthermore, a test of the stool for occult blood is positive. Laboratory studies show: Haemoglobin 7.4 g/dl, Mean corpuscular volume 70 fl, Leukocyte count 5400/mm3, Platelet count 580 000/mm3, Erythrocyte sedimentation 33 mm/h.A blood smear shows hypochromic, microcytic RBCs with moderate poikilocytosis. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anaemia of chronic disease
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency anaemia
Explanation:Iron deficiency anaemia is the most common type of anaemia. It can occur due to deficiency of iron due to decreased intake or due to faulty absorption. An MCV less than 80 will indicated iron deficiency anaemia. On the smear the RBC will be microcytic hypochromic and will also show piokilocytosis. iron profiles tests are important to make a diagnosis. Clinically the patient will be pale and lethargic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 34 year old opera singer undergoes a thyroidectomy. Post-operatively, it is discovered that he is only able to make a gargling noise. On examination, his voice sounds breathy. What is the best explanation for this symptom?
Your Answer: Unilateral inferior laryngeal nerve injury
Explanation:Unilateral vocal fold paralysis (UVFP) occurs from a dysfunction of the recurrent laryngeal (inferior laryngeal nerve) or vagus nerve innervating the larynx. It causes a characteristic breathy voice often accompanied by swallowing disability, a weak cough, and the sensation of shortness of breath. This is a common cause of neurogenic hoarseness. When this paralysis is properly evaluated and treated, normal speaking voice is typically restored. Specifically, thyroidectomy, carotid endarterectomy, anterior cervical spine surgery, thoracic, or mediastinal surgery most often result in a presentation of UVFP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 12
Correct
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Which portion of the renal tubule absorbs amino acids and glucose?
Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:In relation to the morphology of the kidney as a whole, the convoluted segments of the proximal tubules are confined entirely to the renal cortex. Glucose, amino acids, inorganic phosphate and some other solutes are reabsorbed via secondary active transport in the proximal renal tubule through co-transport channels driven by the sodium gradient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A patient who complained of pain on the lower left side of the back had an x-ray done which confirmed a hernia passing posterolaterally, just superior to the iliac crest. Where is this hernia passing through?
Your Answer: Triangle of Calot
Correct Answer: Lumbar triangle
Explanation:The lumber triangle is bound medially by the border of the latissimus dorsi, laterally by the external abdominal oblique and by the iliac crest inferiorly. This is exactly where the hernia that is described is located.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 14
Incorrect
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The thyroid gland is a large ductless gland located in which part of the neck?
Your Answer: Digastric triangle
Correct Answer: Visceral space
Explanation:The thyroid gland is an endocrine gland in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is situated at the front and sides of the neck in the visceral space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 15
Incorrect
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The circle of Willis is one of the cerebrovascular safeguards comprised of the left and the right posterior communicating artery. Which of the following arteries in the brain is connected to the posterior cerebral artery by these posterior communicating arteries?
Your Answer: Ophthalmic artery
Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery
Explanation:The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis of cerebral arteries that are located at the base of the brain. The Circle of Willis is one of the important safeguards that ensure back up of blood supply to parts of the brain in case of any cerebrovascular accident. The Circle of Willis is made up of an anterior portion of arteries including; the anterior cerebral arteries. The anterior cerebral arteries are connected to the posterior portion of the circle of Willis by the anterior communicating artery. The posterior portion is made up of the posterior cerebral artery which branch off from the basilar artery. The posterior cerebral artery are connected to the anterior portion of the circle of Willis by the posterior communicating artery. The posterior communicating artery connects the posterior cerebral artery to the internal carotid artery. The circle of Willis receives blood supply from the left and right internal carotid arteries that continues as the middle cerebral artery and posteriorly from the two vertebral arteries that join to form the basilar artery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male chronic smoker is diagnosed with non-small-cell cancer. His right lung underwent complete atelectasis and he has a 7cm tumour involving the chest wall. What is the stage of the lung cancer of this patient?
Your Answer: TX
Correct Answer: T3
Explanation:Non-small-cell lung cancer is staged through TNM classification. The stage of this patient is T3 because based on the TNM classification the tumour is staged T3 if > 7 cm or one that directly invades any of the following: Chest wall (including superior sulcus tumours), diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, or parietal pericardium; or the tumour is in the main bronchus < 2 cm distal to the carina but without involvement of the carina, Or it is associated with atelectasis/obstructive pneumonitis of the entire lung or separate tumour nodule(s) in the same lobe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following is true regarding factor XI?
Your Answer: Deficiency causes haemophilia C
Explanation:Factor XI is also known as plasma thromboplastin and is one of the enzymes of the coagulation cascade. It is produced in the liver and is a serine protease. It is activated by factor XIIa, thrombin and by itself. Deficiency of factor XI causes the rare type of haemophilia C. Low levels of factor XI also occur in other disease states, including Noonan syndrome. High levels of factor XI have been seen in thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 18
Correct
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What is the likely diagnosis in a 55-year old man presenting with jaundice, weight loss, pale coloured stools and elevated alkaline phosphatase?
Your Answer: Pancreatic carcinoma
Explanation:Increased alkaline phosphatase is indicative of cholestasis, with a 4x or greater increase seen 1-2 days after biliary obstruction. Its level can remain elevated several days after the obstruction is resolved due to the long half life (7 days). Increase up to three times the normal level can be seen in hepatitis, cirrhosis, space-occupying lesions and infiltrative disorders. Raised alkaline phosphatase with other liver function tests being normal can occur in focal hepatic lesions like abscesses or tumours, or in partial/intermittent biliary obstruction. However, alkaline phosphatase has several isoenzymes, which originate in different organs, particularly bone. An isolated rise can also be seen in malignancies (bronchogenic carcinoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma), post-fatty meals (from the small intestine), in pregnancy (from the placenta), in growing children (from bone growth) and in chronic renal failure (from intestine and bone). One can differentiate between hepatic and non-hepatic cause by measurement of enzymes specific to the liver e.g. gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT).
In an elderly, asymptomatic patient, isolated rise of alkaline phosphatase usually points to bone disease (like Paget’s disease). Presence of other symptoms such as jaundice, pale stools, weight loss suggests obstructive jaundice, most probably due to pancreatic carcinoma. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 36-year old gentleman with a history of cough for 4 weeks came to the hospital. Examination revealed multiple lymphadenopathy with splenomegaly. Investigations revealed haemoglobin 11 g/dl, haematocrit 32.4%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 93 fl, white blood cell count 63 × 109/l, and platelet count 39 × 109/l; along with characteristic Auer rods on peripheral blood smear. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma
Correct Answer: Acute myelogenous leukaemia (AML)
Explanation:AML, or acute myeloid leukaemia is the commonest acute leukaemia affecting adults. increasing in incidence with age. It is a malignancy of the myeloid line of white blood cells. It results in rapid proliferation of abnormal cells, which accumulate in the marrow. Interference with normal cell production leads to a drop in red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. This causes symptoms such as tiredness, shortness of breath, tendency to bleed or bruise easily and recurrent infections. AML is known to progress quickly and can lead to death in weeks and months if not treated. Leukemic blasts of AML show presence of Auer rods. These are clumps of azurophilic granular material that form needles in the cytoplasm. Composed of fused lysosomes, these contain peroxidase, lysosomal enzymes and crystalline inclusions. Auer rods are classically present in myeloid blasts of M1, M2, M3 and M4 acute leukaemia. They also help to distinguish the preleukemia myelodysplastic syndromes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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The primary area involved in the pathology of Parkinson's disease is:
Your Answer: Basal ganglia
Correct Answer: Substantia nigra
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative, movement disorder of the central nervous system, and is typically characterized by muscle rigidity, tremor and bradykinesia (in extreme cases, akinesia). Secondary symptoms include high-level cognitive dysfunction and subtle language problems.
Parkinson’s disease is also called ‘primary Parkinsonism’ or ‘idiopathic Parkinson’s disease and is the most common cause of Parkinsonism, a group of similar symptoms. The disorder is caused due to loss of pigmented dopaminergic cells in the pars compacta region of the substantia nigra. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female undergoes a renal transplant for focal segmental glomerulosclerosis. Within hours of the operation, the patient becomes unwell with features consistent with severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome. The patient is immediately taken back to the theatre and the transplanted kidney is removed. What type of immunoglobulins is responsible for graft rejection?
Your Answer: IgM
Correct Answer: IgG
Explanation:Rejection is related primarily to activation of T cells, which, in turn, stimulate specific antibodies against the graft. Various clinical syndromes of rejection can be correlated with the length of time after transplantation.
Hyperacute rejection
Hyperacute rejection of the renal allograft happens in the operating room within hours of the transplant, when the graft becomes mottled and cyanotic. This type of rejection is due to unrecognized compatibility of blood groups A, AB, B, and O (ABO) or to a positive T-cell crossmatch (class I human leukocyte antigen [HLA] incompatibility).
It is thought that IgG antibodies from the host bind to HLA-1 antigen of the donated organ.
No treatment exists, and nephrectomy is indicated.Acute rejection
Acute rejection appears within the first 6 months after transplantation and affects approximately 15% of transplanted kidneys. Rejection is secondary to prior sensitization to donor alloantigens (occult T-cell crossmatch) or a positive B-cell crossmatch.
Acute tubular interstitial cellular rejection is the most common type of rejection reaction, with an incidence of approximately 20-25%. Typically, it occurs between 1 and 3 months after transplantation. It is T-cell mediated, and injury is directed to the renal tubules. The standard for diagnosis is renal allograft biopsy. Mild rejections may be successfully reversed with corticosteroids alone, whereas moderate or severe rejections may require the use of anti–T-cell antibodies, either polyclonal or monoclonal.
Late acute rejection is strongly correlated with the scheduled withdrawal of immunosuppressive therapy 6 months after transplantation.Chronic rejection
Chronic rejection occurs more than 1 year after transplantation and is a major cause of allograft loss. It is a slow and progressive deterioration in renal function characterized by histologic changes involving the renal tubules, capillaries, and interstitium. Its precise mechanism is poorly defined and is an area of intense study. Diagnosis is by renal biopsy, and treatment depends on the identified cause if any. Application of conventional antirejection agents (e.g., corticosteroids or anti–T-cell antibodies) does not appear to alter the progressive course. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
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Question 22
Correct
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 38 year old man is to undergo excision of the base of the prostate for malignant growth, which of the following structures is directly related to the base of the prostate?
Your Answer: Superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm
Correct Answer: Urinary bladder
Explanation:The prostate is situated in the pelvic cavity and is also located immediately below the internal urethral orifice at the commencement of the urethra. It is held in position by the puboprostatic ligaments, the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm and the anterior portions of the levatores ani. The base of the prostate is directed upward and is attached to the inferior surface of the urinary bladder while the apex is directed downward and is in contact with the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following morphological characteristic is a salient feature of a pure apoptotic cell?
Your Answer: Plasma membrane breakdown
Correct Answer: Chromatin condensation
Explanation:Apoptosis is the programmed death of cells which occurs as a normal and controlled part of an organism’s growth or development. The changes which occur in this process include blebbing, cell shrinkage, nuclear fragmentation, chromatin condensation, chromosomal DNA fragmentation, and global mRNA decay. The cell membrane however remains intact and the dead cells are phagocytosed prior to any content leakage and thus inflammatory response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old female teacher is admitted with severe epigastric pain. Her blood reports show normal levels of serum amylase. In order to exclude a perforated viscus and determine whether pancreatitis is present, what should be the best course of action?
Your Answer: Request a CT scan without contrast of the abdomen and pelvis
Correct Answer: Request a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
Explanation:A CT scan with IV contrast is needed because a scan without contrast will exclude a perforated viscus but will not be able to determine the presence of pancreatitis.
Acute pancreatitis may be mild or life-threatening but it usually subsides. Gallstones and alcohol abuse are the main causes of acute pancreatitis. Severe abdominal pain is the predominant symptom.
For diagnosis of acute pancreatitis, serum lipase is both more sensitive and specific than serum amylase.
Serum amylase levels do not correlate with disease severity and may give both false positive and negative results. Three scoring systems are used to assess the severity of the disease, which are Glasgow pancreatitis score, Ranson criteria, and APACHE II scoring system.Management options are as follows:
1. There is very little evidence to support the administration of antibiotics to patients with acute pancreatitis. These may contribute to antibiotic resistance and increase the risks of antibiotic-associated diarrhoea.
2. Patients with acute pancreatitis due to gallstones should undergo early cholecystectomy.
3. Patients with obstructed biliary system due to stones should undergo early ERCP.
4. Patients with infected necrosis should undergo either radiological drainage or surgical necrosectomy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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The gastrosplenic ligament also known as the gastrolienal ligament is the structure that connects the greater curvature of the stomach to the hilum of the spleen. Which of the following arteries would most likely be injured if a surgeon accidentally tore this ligament?
Your Answer: Left gastric
Correct Answer: Short gastric
Explanation:The short gastric arteries arise from the end of the splenic arteries and form five to seven branches. The short gastric arteries inside the gastrosplenic ligament from the left to the right, supply the greater curvature of the stomach. The hepatic artery proper runs inside the hepatoduodenal ligament. The right gastric artery and the left gastric artery are contained in the hepatogastric ligament. The caudal pancreatic artery branches off from the splenic artery and supplies the tail of the pancreas. The middle colic artery supplies the transverse colon. The splenic artery does not travel in the gastrosplenic ligament and so it would not be damaged by a tear to this ligament.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An old man presented with atrophy of the thenar eminence despite the sensation over it still being intact. What is the injured nerve in this case?
Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:Atrophy of the thenar muscles means injury to the motor supply of these muscles. The nerve that sends innervation to it is the median nerve. But the median nerve does not provide sensory innervation to the overlying skin so sensation is spared.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman has had a headache, fever, lethargy and nausea for the last 10 days. He undergoes a CT scan which reveals a lesion in his frontal lobe, which, after a biopsy, is found to be formed by granulation tissue with collagenisation, gliosis and oedema. What's the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Glioblastoma
Correct Answer: Chronic brain abscess
Explanation:A cerebral abscess can result from direct extension of cranial infections, penetrating head trauma, haematogenous spread, or for unknown causes. An abscess forms when an area of cerebral inflammation becomes necrotic and encapsulated by glial cells and fibroblasts. Oedema around the abscess can increase the intracranial pressure. Symptoms result from increased intracranial pressure and mass effects. In a CT scan, an abscess appears as an oedematous mass with ring enhancement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that affected her middle cerebral artery as revealed by a CT scan is likely to exhibit which of the following neurologic conditions?
Your Answer: Binasal hemianopia
Correct Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia
Explanation:The middle cerebral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the cerebrum. It continues from the internal carotid artery up into the lateral sulcus. The middle cerebral artery mainly supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral cortex, anterior aspect of the temporal lobes and the insular cortices.
Functional areas supplied by this vein are as follows:
The motor and pre-motor areas
The somato-sensory
Auditory areas
Motor speech
Sensory speech
Pre-frontal area
Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery results in:
i) A severe contralateral hemiplegia, most marked in the upper extremity and face
ii) A contralateral sensory impairment worse in the upper part of the body -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A young man came to the emergency room after an accident. The anterior surface of his wrist was lacerated with loss of sensation over the thumb side of his palm. Which nerves have been damaged?
Your Answer: Radial
Correct Answer: Median
Explanation:The median nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the palmar radial three and a half fingers. Also the site of injury indicates that the medial nerve may have been injured as it passes into the hand by crossing over the anterior wrist.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
