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  • Question 1 - A 5 year old girl is brought into the emergency department by worried...

    Correct

    • A 5 year old girl is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. The child mentioned having stomach pain and feeling nauseous yesterday but began vomiting this morning and now appears sleepy. After evaluating her, you examine the results of the venous blood gas and glucose (provided below):

      pH 7.25
      Bicarbonate 13 mmol/l
      Glucose 28 mmol/l

      The girl weighs 20kg. What is the calculated fluid deficit for this patient?

      Your Answer: 1000ml

      Explanation:

      Fluid deficit in children and young people with severe diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is determined by measuring their blood pH and bicarbonate levels. If the blood pH is below 7.1 and/or the bicarbonate level is below 5, it indicates a fluid deficit. This simplified explanation uses a cutoff value of 5 to determine the severity of the fluid deficit in DKA.

      Further Reading:

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that occurs due to a lack of insulin in the body. It is most commonly seen in individuals with type 1 diabetes but can also occur in type 2 diabetes. DKA is characterized by hyperglycemia, acidosis, and ketonaemia.

      The pathophysiology of DKA involves insulin deficiency, which leads to increased glucose production and decreased glucose uptake by cells. This results in hyperglycemia and osmotic diuresis, leading to dehydration. Insulin deficiency also leads to increased lipolysis and the production of ketone bodies, which are acidic. The body attempts to buffer the pH change through metabolic and respiratory compensation, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

      DKA can be precipitated by factors such as infection, physiological stress, non-compliance with insulin therapy, acute medical conditions, and certain medications. The clinical features of DKA include polydipsia, polyuria, signs of dehydration, ketotic breath smell, tachypnea, confusion, headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, and abdominal pain.

      The diagnosis of DKA is based on the presence of ketonaemia or ketonuria, blood glucose levels above 11 mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and a blood pH below 7.3 or bicarbonate levels below 15 mmol/L. Initial investigations include blood gas analysis, urine dipstick for glucose and ketones, blood glucose measurement, and electrolyte levels.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, electrolyte correction, insulin therapy, and treatment of any underlying cause. Fluid replacement is typically done with isotonic saline, and potassium may need to be added depending on the patient’s levels. Insulin therapy is initiated with an intravenous infusion, and the rate is adjusted based on blood glucose levels. Monitoring of blood glucose, ketones, bicarbonate, and electrolytes is essential, and the insulin infusion is discontinued once ketones are below 0.3 mmol/L, pH is above 7.3, and bicarbonate is above 18 mmol/L.

      Complications of DKA and its treatment include gastric stasis, thromboembolism, electrolyte disturbances, cerebral edema, hypoglycemia, acute respiratory distress syndrome, and acute kidney injury. Prompt medical intervention is crucial in managing DKA to prevent potentially fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      31.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with a frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with a frothy, greenish-yellow vaginal discharge and vaginal discomfort. She has engaged in unprotected sexual activity with a new partner within the past few months. During speculum examination, you observe a cervix that appears strawberry-colored.
      What is the MOST suitable treatment option?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Trichomonas vaginalis (TV) is a highly prevalent sexually transmitted disease that affects individuals worldwide. This disease is caused by a parasitic protozoan organism that can survive without the presence of mitochondria or peroxisomes. The risk of contracting TV increases with the number of sexual partners one has. It is important to note that men can also be affected by this disease, experiencing conditions such as prostatitis or urethritis.

      The clinical features of TV can vary. Surprisingly, up to 70% of patients may not exhibit any symptoms at all. However, for those who do experience symptoms, they may notice a frothy or green-yellow discharge with a strong odor. Other symptoms may include vaginitis and inflammation of the cervix, which can give it a distinctive strawberry appearance. In pregnant individuals, TV can lead to complications such as premature labor and low birth weight.

      Diagnosing TV can sometimes occur incidentally during routine smear tests. However, if a patient is symptomatic, the diagnosis is typically made through vaginal swabs for women or penile swabs for men. Treatment for TV usually involves taking metronidazole, either as a 400 mg dose twice a day for 5-7 days or as a single 2 g dose. It is worth noting that the single dose may have more gastrointestinal side effects. Another antibiotic option is tinidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      42.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 12-day-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by the community...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-day-old baby girl is brought to the Emergency Department by the community midwife. She has been having difficulty with feeding, and her mother reports that she has been vomiting after most meals. Her diaper is stained with dark urine, and her mother mentions that her stools have been pale and chalky. She has some bruises on her arms and legs. The midwife has arranged for a heel prick test, which has revealed a total serum bilirubin of 208 mmol/l, with 80% being conjugated.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rhesus haemolytic disease

      Correct Answer: Biliary atresia

      Explanation:

      This infant is displaying prolonged jaundice and failure to thrive. Prolonged jaundice is defined as jaundice that persists beyond the first 14 days of life. Neonatal jaundice can be divided into two categories: unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which can be either physiological or pathological, and conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, which is always pathological.

      Causes of prolonged unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia include breast milk jaundice, infections (particularly urinary tract infections), haemolysis (most commonly rhesus haemolytic disease), hypothyroidism, hereditary disorders (such as Crigler-Najjar syndrome), and galactosemia.

      Causes of prolonged conjugated hyperbilirubinemia include biliary atresia, choledochal cysts, and neonatal hepatitis. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia often presents with symptoms such as failure to thrive, easy bruising or bleeding tendency, dark urine, and pale, chalky stools.

      In this case, the jaundice is clearly conjugated, and the only cause of prolonged conjugated hyperbilirubinemia listed is biliary atresia. To evaluate conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, an ultrasound of the bile ducts and gallbladder should be performed. If dilatation is observed, it may indicate the presence of choledochal cysts, which should be further investigated with a cholangiogram. If the bile ducts and gallbladder appear normal or are not visualized, a radionuclide scan is often conducted. The absence of excretion on the scan is consistent with biliary atresia.

      Biliary atresia is a condition characterized by progressive destruction or absence of the extrahepatic biliary tree and intrahepatic biliary ducts. It is a rare condition, occurring in approximately 1 in 10-15,000 live births in the western world. Infants with biliary atresia typically exhibit jaundice early on, and their stools are pale while their urine is dark starting from the second day of life. If left untreated, the condition will progress to chronic liver failure, leading to portal hypertension and hepatosplenomegaly. Without treatment, death is inevitable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You evaluate a 48-year-old teacher with a persistent dry cough that has been...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 48-year-old teacher with a persistent dry cough that has been ongoing for several months. The patient also reports mild shortness of breath while walking around the school. They used to smoke but quit ten years ago. The patient has a normal body temperature and all other vital signs are within normal limits. During the examination, finger clubbing is noted on their hands. Chest examination reveals bilateral fine inspiratory crackles at the bases of both lungs, but no wheezing is detected. Spirometry results came back normal.

      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Based on the clinical features of this individual, it is highly likely that they have pulmonary fibrosis. The key to determining the correct diagnosis is to differentiate between extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA) and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF), also known as cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis (CFA).

      In this case, the gentleman does not have any occupational risk factors for EAA and exhibits digital clubbing. While clubbing is not commonly seen in EAA, it is a frequent occurrence in IPF. Therefore, based on these factors, IPF is the more probable diagnosis.

      Spirometry results in IPF can either be normal or show a restrictive pattern, whereas an obstructive pattern would be expected in COPD. The history and clinical features presented do not align with the other diagnoses mentioned in this question.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old diabetic man presents with a gradual decrease in consciousness and confusion over the past week. He normally controls his diabetes with metformin 500 mg twice a day. He recently received treatment for a urinary tract infection from his doctor, and his family reports that he has been excessively thirsty. He has vomited multiple times today. A urine dipstick test shows a small amount of white blood cells and moderate ketones. The results of his arterial blood gas test are as follows:

      pH: 7.29
      pO2: 11.1 kPa
      pCO2: 4.6 kPa
      HCO3-: 22 mmol/l
      Na+: 154 mmol/l
      K+: 3.2 mmol/l
      Cl-: 100 mmol/l
      Urea: 17.6 mmol/l
      Glucose: 32 mmol/l

      What is his serum osmolality?

      Your Answer: 182 mmol/l

      Correct Answer: 364 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      In an elderly patient with a history of gradual decline accompanied by high blood sugar levels, excessive thirst, and recent infection, the most likely diagnosis is hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS). This condition can be life-threatening, with a mortality rate of approximately 50%. Common symptoms include dehydration, elevated blood sugar levels, altered mental status, and electrolyte imbalances. About half of the patients with HHS also experience hypernatremia.

      To calculate the serum osmolality, the formula is 2(K+ + Na+) + urea + glucose. In this case, the serum osmolality is 364 mmol/l, indicating a high level. It is important to discontinue the use of metformin in this patient due to the risk of metformin-associated lactic acidosis (MALA). Additionally, an intravenous infusion of insulin should be initiated.

      The treatment goals for HHS are to address the underlying cause and gradually and safely:
      – Normalize the osmolality
      – Replace fluid and electrolyte losses
      – Normalize blood glucose levels

      If significant ketonaemia is present (3β-hydroxybutyrate is more than 1 mmol/L), it indicates a relative lack of insulin, and insulin should be administered immediately. However, if significant ketonaemia is not present, insulin should not be started.

      Patients with HHS are at a high risk of thromboembolism, and it is recommended to routinely administer low molecular weight heparin. In cases where the serum osmolality exceeds 350 mmol/l, full heparinization should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      29.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You evaluate a 30-year-old female patient with sickle-cell disease. She presents with dyspnea...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 30-year-old female patient with sickle-cell disease. She presents with dyspnea and pain in her lower extremities.
      Which ONE statement about sickle-cell disease is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is caused by a point mutation in the alpha-globin chain of haemoglobin

      Correct Answer: Cholelithiasis is a recognised complication

      Explanation:

      HbAS is known as Sickle cell trait, while HbSS is the genotype for Sickle-cell disease. Sickle-shaped red blood cells have a shorter lifespan of 10-20 days compared to the normal red blood cells that live for 90-120 days. Cholelithiasis, a complication of sickle-cell disease, occurs due to excessive bilirubin production caused by the breakdown of red blood cells. The inheritance pattern of sickle-cell disease is autosomal recessive. The disease is caused by a point mutation in the beta-globin chain of hemoglobin, resulting in the substitution of glutamic acid with valine at the sixth position. Individuals with one normal hemoglobin gene and one sickle gene have the genotype HbAS, which is commonly referred to as Sickle Cell trait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness undergoes a complete...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness undergoes a complete blood count. The results reveal the presence of macrocytic anemia.
      Which of the following is the LEAST probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thalassaemia

      Explanation:

      Anaemia can be categorized based on the size of red blood cells. Microcytic anaemia, characterized by a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 80 fl, can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be normocytic), sideroblastic anaemia (which can also be normocytic), lead poisoning, and aluminium toxicity (although this is now rare and mainly affects haemodialysis patients).

      On the other hand, normocytic anaemia, with an MCV ranging from 80 to 100 fl, can be attributed to conditions like haemolysis, acute haemorrhage, bone marrow failure, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be microcytic), mixed iron and folate deficiency, pregnancy, chronic renal failure, and sickle-cell disease.

      Lastly, macrocytic anaemia, characterized by an MCV greater than 100 fl, can be caused by factors such as B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, liver disease, alcohol abuse, myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic disease, and certain drugs like methotrexate, hydroxyurea, and azathioprine.

      It is important to understand the different causes of anaemia based on red cell size as this knowledge can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62 year old male with a history of alcohol dependence is brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old male with a history of alcohol dependence is brought into the emergency department by a social worker who is concerned that the patient appears to be growing more confused and drowsy in recent days. The social worker informs you that the patient had been behaving normally but had mentioned intending to visit his primary care physician regarding obtaining medication for his constipation. You suspect hepatic encephalopathy. Which of the following medications would be the most suitable to administer?

      Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Correct Answer: Rifaximin

      Explanation:

      Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition caused by the accumulation of nitrogenous waste products in the body due to impaired liver function. These waste products cross the blood brain barrier and contribute to the production of glutamine, leading to changes in astrocyte osmotic pressure, brain edema, and neurotransmitter dysfunction.

      To address hepatic encephalopathy, the first-line drugs used are Rifaximin and lactulose. Rifaximin is an oral antibiotic that helps reduce the presence of ammonia-producing bacteria in the intestines. Lactulose, on the other hand, converts soluble ammonia into insoluble ammonium and aids in relieving constipation.

      It is important to note that Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, may be used to treat alcohol withdrawal but should be avoided in cases of hepatic encephalopathy as it can worsen the condition.

      Further Reading:

      Cirrhosis is a condition where the liver undergoes structural changes, resulting in dysfunction of its normal functions. It can be classified as either compensated or decompensated. Compensated cirrhosis refers to a stage where the liver can still function effectively with minimal symptoms, while decompensated cirrhosis is when the liver damage is severe and clinical complications are present.

      Cirrhosis develops over a period of several years due to repeated insults to the liver. Risk factors for cirrhosis include alcohol misuse, hepatitis B and C infection, obesity, type 2 diabetes, autoimmune liver disease, genetic conditions, certain medications, and other rare conditions.

      The prognosis of cirrhosis can be assessed using the Child-Pugh score, which predicts mortality based on parameters such as bilirubin levels, albumin levels, INR, ascites, and encephalopathy. The score ranges from A to C, with higher scores indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Complications of cirrhosis include portal hypertension, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, variceal hemorrhage, increased infection risk, hepatocellular carcinoma, and cardiovascular complications.

      Diagnosis of cirrhosis is typically done through liver function tests, blood tests, viral hepatitis screening, and imaging techniques such as transient elastography or acoustic radiation force impulse imaging. Liver biopsy may also be performed in some cases.

      Management of cirrhosis involves treating the underlying cause, controlling risk factors, and monitoring for complications. Complications such as ascites, spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, oesophageal varices, and hepatic encephalopathy require specific management strategies.

      Overall, cirrhosis is a progressive condition that requires ongoing monitoring and management to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 32 year old has undergone reduction of fracture-dislocation to the right shoulder...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old has undergone reduction of fracture-dislocation to the right shoulder under procedural sedation. Following the reduction, the patient reports feeling nauseated and subsequently vomits. What is the most significant risk factor for postoperative nausea and vomiting?

      Your Answer: Female gender

      Explanation:

      The most significant factor in predicting postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) is being female. Females are three times more likely than males to experience PONV. Additionally, not smoking increases the risk of PONV by about two times. Having a history of motion sickness, PONV, or both also approximately doubles the risk of PONV. Age is another factor, with older adults being less likely to suffer from PONV. In children, those below 3 years of age have a lower risk of PONV compared to those older than 3.

      Further Reading:

      postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV) is a common occurrence following procedures performed under sedation or anesthesia. It can be highly distressing for patients. Several risk factors have been identified for PONV, including female gender, a history of PONV or motion sickness, non-smoking status, patient age, use of volatile anesthetics, longer duration of anesthesia, perioperative opioid use, use of nitrous oxide, and certain types of surgery such as abdominal and gynecological procedures.

      To manage PONV, antiemetics are commonly used. These medications work by targeting different receptors in the body. Cyclizine and promethazine are histamine H1-receptor antagonists, which block the action of histamine and help reduce nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of serotonin and is effective in preventing and treating PONV. Prochlorperazine is a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist, which blocks the action of dopamine and helps alleviate symptoms of nausea and vomiting. Metoclopramide is also a dopamine D2 receptor antagonist and a 5-HT3 receptor antagonist, providing dual action against PONV. It is also a 5-HT4 receptor agonist, which helps improve gastric emptying and reduces the risk of PONV.

      Assessment and management of PONV involves a comprehensive approach. Healthcare professionals need to assess the patient’s risk factors for PONV and take appropriate measures to prevent its occurrence. This may include selecting the appropriate anesthesia technique, using antiemetics prophylactically, and providing adequate pain control. In cases where PONV does occur, prompt treatment with antiemetics should be initiated to alleviate symptoms and provide relief to the patient. Close monitoring of the patient’s condition and response to treatment is essential to ensure effective management of PONV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are present at a trauma call for an elderly pedestrian who has...

    Incorrect

    • You are present at a trauma call for an elderly pedestrian who has been hit by a vehicle. She exhibits bruising on the right side of her chest. The primary survey has been conducted, and you have been tasked with conducting a secondary survey.
      As per the ATLS guidelines, which of the following would be considered a potentially life-threatening chest injury that should be identified and addressed during the SECONDARY survey?

      Your Answer: Massive haemothorax

      Correct Answer: Traumatic aortic disruption

      Explanation:

      The ATLS guidelines categorize chest injuries in trauma into two groups: life-threatening injuries that require immediate identification and treatment in the primary survey, and potentially life-threatening injuries that should be identified and treated in the secondary survey.

      During the primary survey, the focus is on identifying and treating life-threatening thoracic injuries. These include airway obstruction, tracheobronchial tree injury, tension pneumothorax, open pneumothorax, massive haemothorax, and cardiac tamponade. Prompt recognition and intervention are crucial in order to prevent further deterioration and potential fatality.

      In the secondary survey, attention is given to potentially life-threatening injuries that may not be immediately apparent. These include simple pneumothorax, haemothorax, flail chest, pulmonary contusion, blunt cardiac injury, traumatic aortic disruption, traumatic diaphragmatic injury, and blunt oesophageal rupture. These injuries may not pose an immediate threat to life, but they still require identification and appropriate management to prevent complications and ensure optimal patient outcomes.

      By dividing chest injuries into these two categories and addressing them in a systematic manner, healthcare providers can effectively prioritize and manage trauma patients, ultimately improving their chances of survival and recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      33.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 2 year old toddler is brought into the resuscitation bay after collapsing...

    Incorrect

    • A 2 year old toddler is brought into the resuscitation bay after collapsing and having a seizure. A capillary blood glucose test shows a reading of 0.9 mmol/L. Your consultant instructs you to initiate an intravenous glucose infusion. What is the most suitable dosage?

      Your Answer: 20 mL/kg/hour of 20% dextrose

      Correct Answer: 5 mL/kg/hour of 10% dextrose

      Explanation:

      Diabetes Mellitus:
      – Definition: a group of metabolic disorders characterized by persistent hyperglycemia caused by deficient insulin secretion, resistance to insulin, or both.
      – Types: Type 1 diabetes (absolute insulin deficiency), Type 2 diabetes (insulin resistance and relative insulin deficiency), Gestational diabetes (develops during pregnancy), Other specific types (monogenic diabetes, diabetes secondary to pancreatic or endocrine disorders, diabetes secondary to drug treatment).
      – Diagnosis: Type 1 diabetes diagnosed based on clinical grounds in adults presenting with hyperglycemia. Type 2 diabetes diagnosed in patients with persistent hyperglycemia and presence of symptoms or signs of diabetes.
      – Risk factors for type 2 diabetes: obesity, inactivity, family history, ethnicity, history of gestational diabetes, certain drugs, polycystic ovary syndrome, metabolic syndrome, low birth weight.

      Hypoglycemia:
      – Definition: lower than normal blood glucose concentration.
      – Diagnosis: defined by Whipple’s triad (signs and symptoms of low blood glucose, low blood plasma glucose concentration, relief of symptoms after correcting low blood glucose).
      – Blood glucose level for hypoglycemia: NICE defines it as <3.5 mmol/L, but there is inconsistency across the literature.
      – Signs and symptoms: adrenergic or autonomic symptoms (sweating, hunger, tremor), neuroglycopenic symptoms (confusion, coma, convulsions), non-specific symptoms (headache, nausea).
      – Treatment options: oral carbohydrate, buccal glucose gel, glucagon, dextrose. Treatment should be followed by re-checking glucose levels.

      Treatment of neonatal hypoglycemia:
      – Treat with glucose IV infusion 10% given at a rate of 5 mL/kg/hour.
      – Initial stat dose of 2 mL/kg over five minutes may be required for severe hypoglycemia.
      – Mild asymptomatic persistent hypoglycemia may respond to a single dose of glucagon.
      – If hypoglycemia is caused by an oral anti-diabetic drug, the patient should be admitted and ongoing glucose infusion or other therapies may be required.

      Note: Patients who have a hypoglycemic episode with a loss of warning symptoms should not drive and should inform the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neonatal Emergencies
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recent onset back...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged patient with a previous cancer diagnosis complains of recent onset back pain. After conducting a thorough examination, your findings raise significant alarm. You begin to suspect the presence of metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC).
      What specific feature is the strongest indicator of MSCC?

      Your Answer: Localised spinal tenderness

      Explanation:

      Metastatic spinal cord compression (MSCC) occurs when a tumor mass compresses the thecal sac and its components, leading to a spinal emergency. If the pressure on the spinal cord is not relieved promptly, it can result in irreversible loss of neurological function. The most crucial factor for predicting functional outcomes is the patient’s neurological function before treatment. Therefore, delayed treatment can lead to permanent disability and a decrease in quality of life.

      The most common cancers that cause MSCC include prostate, lung, breast, and myeloma. In approximately 10 to 20% of cancer patients, MSCC is the first noticeable symptom. It is important to consider MSCC in any patient with a history of cancer if they experience any of the following symptoms: severe or worsening lower back pain, nocturnal pain that disrupts sleep, localized spinal tenderness, radicular pain, or neurological symptoms.

      Thoracic pain can also be an indicator of MSCC or an aortic aneurysm. In patients aged 60 or older with persistent back pain, myeloma should be considered. For patients aged 60 or older with accompanying weight loss, pancreatic cancer should be taken into consideration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncological Emergencies
      26
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 35 year old epileptic is brought into the emergency department after experiencing...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old epileptic is brought into the emergency department after experiencing a grand mal seizure. The patient is unable to close their mouth. You suspect temporomandibular joint dislocation. What is the initial imaging test recommended for diagnosing this condition?

      Your Answer: Orthopantomogram

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line diagnostic test for TMJ dislocation is an OPG. The Royal College of Emergency Medicine suggests that an OPG is the most effective initial imaging technique for diagnosing TMJ dislocation. However, mandibular series X-ray views and CT scans can also be used as alternative imaging methods.

      Further Reading:

      TMJ dislocation occurs when the mandibular condyle is displaced from its normal position in the mandibular fossa of the temporal bone. The most common type of dislocation is bilateral anterior dislocation. This occurs when the mandible is dislocated forward and the masseter and pterygoid muscles spasm, locking the condyle in place.

      The temporomandibular joint is unique because it has an articular disc that separates the joint into upper and lower compartments. Dislocation can be caused by trauma, such as a direct blow to the open mouth, or by traumatic events like excessive mouth opening during yawning, laughing, shouting, or eating. It can also occur during dental work.

      Signs and symptoms of TMJ dislocation include difficulty fully opening or closing the mouth, pain or tenderness in the TMJ region, jaw pain, ear pain, difficulty chewing, and facial pain. Connective tissue disorders like Marfan’s and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome can increase the likelihood of dislocation.

      If TMJ dislocation is suspected, X-rays may be done to confirm the diagnosis. The best initial imaging technique is an orthopantomogram (OPG) or a standard mandibular series.

      Management of anterior dislocations involves reducing the dislocated mandible, which is usually done in the emergency department. Dislocations to the posterior, medial, or lateral side are usually associated with a mandibular fracture and should be referred to a maxillofacial surgeon.

      Reduction of an anterior dislocation involves applying distraction forces to the mandible. This can be done by gripping the mandible externally or intra-orally. In some cases, procedural sedation or local anesthesia may be used, and in rare cases, reduction may be done under general anesthesia.

      After reduction, a post-reduction X-ray is done to confirm adequate reduction and rule out any fractures caused by the procedure. Discharge advice includes following a soft diet for at least 48 hours, avoiding wide mouth opening for at least 2 weeks, and supporting the mouth with the hand during yawning or laughing. A Barton bandage may be used to support the mandible if the patient is unable to comply with the discharge advice. Referral to a maxillofacial surgeon as an outpatient is also recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maxillofacial & Dental
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Your consultant has observed that the senior medical students assigned to the department...

    Correct

    • Your consultant has observed that the senior medical students assigned to the department have a limited understanding of vertigo. You have been tasked with delivering a teaching session on the typical causes of vertigo. In relation to vestibular neuronitis, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo develops in around 10% of people following an episode of vestibular neuritis

      Explanation:

      Vestibular neuritis is a common complication of vestibular neuronitis, characterized by a following of people experiencing symptoms such as persistent dizziness, unsteadiness, and fear of falling. However, a rare complication called phobic postural vertigo may also occur, where individuals experience these symptoms despite not actually falling.

      On the other hand, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) presents with short episodes of vertigo, usually lasting less than 20 seconds, triggered by changes in head position. In contrast, vestibular neuronitis causes constant vertigo, even when at rest, which can be worsened by head movements.

      Recovery from vestibular neuronitis is a gradual process that typically takes a few weeks, up to 6 weeks. It is believed that this condition is caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve following a viral infection. On the other hand, BPPV is thought to occur due to the presence of cellular debris or crystal formation in the semicircular canals.

      Further Reading:

      Vestibular neuritis, also known as vestibular neuronitis, is a condition characterized by sudden and prolonged vertigo of peripheral origin. It is believed to be caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, often following a viral infection. It is important to note that vestibular neuritis and labyrinthitis are not the same condition, as labyrinthitis involves inflammation of the labyrinth. Vestibular neuritis typically affects individuals between the ages of 30 and 60, with a 1:1 ratio of males to females. The annual incidence is approximately 3.5 per 100,000 people, making it one of the most commonly diagnosed causes of vertigo.

      Clinical features of vestibular neuritis include nystagmus, which is a rapid, involuntary eye movement, typically in a horizontal or horizontal-torsional direction away from the affected ear. The head impulse test may also be positive. Other symptoms include spontaneous onset of rotational vertigo, which is worsened by changes in head position, as well as nausea, vomiting, and unsteadiness. These severe symptoms usually last for 2-3 days, followed by a gradual recovery over a few weeks. It is important to note that hearing is not affected in vestibular neuritis, and symptoms such as tinnitus and focal neurological deficits are not present.

      Differential diagnosis for vestibular neuritis includes benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV), labyrinthitis, Meniere’s disease, migraine, stroke, and cerebellar lesions. Management of vestibular neuritis involves drug treatment for nausea and vomiting associated with vertigo, typically through short courses of medication such as prochlorperazine or cyclizine. If symptoms are severe and fluids cannot be tolerated, admission and administration of IV fluids may be necessary. General advice should also be given, including avoiding driving while symptomatic, considering the suitability to work based on occupation and duties, and the increased risk of falls. Follow-up is required, and referral is necessary if there are atypical symptoms, symptoms do not improve after a week of treatment, or symptoms persist for more than 6 weeks.

      The prognosis for vestibular neuritis is generally good, with the majority of individuals fully recovering within 6 weeks. Recurrence is thought to occur in 2-11% of cases, and approximately 10% of individuals may develop BPPV following an episode of vestibular neuritis. A very rare complication of vestibular neuritis is ph

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      16.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45 year old male is brought to the emergency department after developing...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old male is brought to the emergency department after developing a rash shortly after receiving a flu vaccination at the local clinic. On arrival it is noted that the patient's lips and throat have started to swell. You diagnose anaphylaxis and decide to administer epinephrine. What is the most suitable dosage?

      Your Answer: 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000) adrenaline by intramuscular injection

      Explanation:

      The most suitable dosage of epinephrine for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis after a flu vaccination is 500 micrograms (0.5ml 1 in 1,000) adrenaline by intramuscular injection.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that can have sudden onset and progression. It is characterized by skin or mucosal changes and can lead to life-threatening airway, breathing, or circulatory problems. Anaphylaxis can be allergic or non-allergic in nature.

      In allergic anaphylaxis, there is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction where an antigen stimulates the production of IgE antibodies. These antibodies bind to mast cells and basophils. Upon re-exposure to the antigen, the IgE-covered cells release histamine and other inflammatory mediators, causing smooth muscle contraction and vasodilation.

      Non-allergic anaphylaxis occurs when mast cells degrade due to a non-immune mediator. The clinical outcome is the same as in allergic anaphylaxis.

      The management of anaphylaxis is the same regardless of the cause. Adrenaline is the most important drug and should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses for adrenaline vary based on age. Other treatments include high flow oxygen and an IV fluid challenge. Corticosteroids and chlorpheniramine are no longer recommended, while non-sedating antihistamines may be considered as third-line treatment after initial stabilization of airway, breathing, and circulation.

      Common causes of anaphylaxis include food (such as nuts, which is the most common cause in children), drugs, and venom (such as wasp stings). Sometimes it can be challenging to determine if a patient had a true episode of anaphylaxis. In such cases, serum tryptase levels may be measured, as they remain elevated for up to 12 hours following an acute episode of anaphylaxis.

      The Resuscitation Council (UK) provides guidelines for the management of anaphylaxis, including a visual algorithm that outlines the recommended steps for treatment.
      https://www.resus.org.uk/sites/default/files/2021-05/Emergency%20Treatment%20of%20Anaphylaxis%20May%202021_0.pdf

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      11.6
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought into the emergency room by an ambulance with flashing lights. He has been in a building fire and has sustained severe burns. You examine his airway and have concerns about the potential for airway blockage.
      Which of the following is NOT a notable factor that increases the risk of airway obstruction in a patient with significant burns?

      Your Answer: A carboxyhaemoglobin level of 8%

      Explanation:

      Early assessment of the airway is a critical aspect of managing a patient who has suffered burns. Airway blockage can occur rapidly due to direct injury, such as inhalation injury, or as a result of swelling caused by the burn. If there is a history of trauma, the airway should be evaluated and treated while maintaining control of the cervical spine.

      Signs of airway obstruction may not be immediately apparent, as swelling typically does not occur right away. Children with thermal burns are at a higher risk of airway obstruction compared to adults due to their smaller airway size, so they require careful observation.

      There are several risk factors for airway obstruction in burned patients, including inhalation injury, the presence of soot in the mouth or nostrils, singed nasal hairs, burns to the head, face, or neck, burns inside the mouth, a large burn area with increasing depth, and associated trauma. A carboxyhemoglobin level above 10% is also suggestive of an inhalation injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 17 - You evaluate a 45-year-old male patient with a swollen and red right calf....

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 45-year-old male patient with a swollen and red right calf. His D-dimer levels are elevated, and you schedule an ultrasound scan which confirms the presence of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his right calf. He has a history of a previous DVT and his INR today is 2.5.
      What is the MOST suitable course of action for management in this case?

      Your Answer: His target INR should be raised to 3.5

      Explanation:

      When managing a first episode of acute venous thromboembolism (VTE), it is recommended to start warfarin in combination with a parenteral anticoagulant, such as unfractionated heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin, or fondaparinux. The parental anticoagulant should be continued for a minimum of 5 days and ideally until the international normalized ratio (INR) is above 2 for at least 24 hours.

      To prevent the extension of the blood clot and recurrence in calf deep vein thrombosis (DVT), at least 6 weeks of anticoagulant therapy is necessary. For proximal DVT, a minimum of 3 months of anticoagulant therapy is required.

      For first episodes of VTE, the ideal target INR is 2.5. However, in cases where patients experience recurrent VTE while being anticoagulated within the therapeutic range, the target INR should be increased to 3.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 18 - You assess a 48-year-old woman who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction after mistakenly...

    Correct

    • You assess a 48-year-old woman who has experienced an anaphylactic reaction after mistakenly consuming peanuts in a dish at a Thai eatery. She has a history of hypertension, but her blood pressure is effectively managed with a daily dose of atenolol 50 mg and amlodipine 5 mg. You have given her two injections of IM adrenaline, but her condition continues to worsen.
      Which of the following interventions is most likely to quickly improve her condition?

      Your Answer: IM glucagon

      Explanation:

      Patients who are on beta-blockers may not respond effectively to adrenaline during anaphylaxis. Research conducted on animals and reported cases have indicated that glucagon can be utilized to counteract the effects of beta-blockade if initial adrenaline doses prove ineffective.

      Although prednisolone and hydrocortisone can be beneficial later on, it typically takes 6-8 hours for them to take full effect. Therefore, they are unlikely to have any impact on the patient during the brief period it will take for the ambulance to arrive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      7.6
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  • Question 19 - A middle-aged woman presents with symptoms that can be associated with sexually transmitted...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged woman presents with symptoms that can be associated with sexually transmitted infection. Following her investigations, she is diagnosed with gonorrhoea.

      Which of the following is the most common presenting clinical feature of gonorrhoea in women?

      Your Answer: Vaginal discharge

      Explanation:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a type of bacteria that is shaped like two spheres and stains pink when tested. It is responsible for causing the sexually transmitted infection known as gonorrhoea. This infection is most commonly seen in individuals between the ages of 15 and 35, and it is primarily transmitted through sexual contact. One important thing to note is that the gonococcal pili, which are hair-like structures on the bacteria, can change their appearance. This means that even if someone has recovered from a previous infection, they can still be reinfected due to the bacteria’s ability to alter its antigens.

      In men, the most common symptoms of gonorrhoea include inflammation of the urethra, which is the tube that carries urine out of the body. This is seen in approximately 80% of cases. Other symptoms may include painful urination, as well as the presence of a discharge that is a combination of mucus and pus. In some cases, the infection can also affect the rectum, leading to anal discharge. It is worth noting that pharyngitis, which is inflammation of the throat, is usually asymptomatic in men.

      On the other hand, women with gonorrhoea often experience a vaginal discharge as the main symptom, which is seen in about 50% of cases. Lower abdominal pain is another common symptom, occurring in approximately 25% of cases. Dysuria, or painful urination, is seen in about 10-15% of women with the infection. Some women may also experience tenderness in the pelvic or lower abdominal area. Additionally, there may be a discharge or bleeding from the endocervix, which is the opening of the cervix. Similar to men, rectal infection is usually asymptomatic in women, but it can cause anal discharge. Pharyngitis, or inflammation of the throat, is typically not accompanied by any noticeable symptoms in women.

      Overall, it is important to be aware of the various clinical features of gonorrhoea in both men and women in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for this sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      16.1
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Wernicke's encephalopathy. You have been requested to examine the patient and arrange an investigation to assist in confirming the diagnosis.

      Which of the following investigations is MOST LIKELY to be beneficial in establishing the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: CT scan of brain

      Correct Answer: MRI scan of brain

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is linked to alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is commonly identified by the presence of three main symptoms: acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination). Additional signs may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. Most cases also involve peripheral neuropathy, primarily affecting the legs.

      This condition is characterized by the occurrence of acute capillary hemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be detected through MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will develop a condition known as Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (loss of memory for events that occurred before the onset of amnesia), an inability to form new memories, disordered perception of time, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).

      When Wernicke’s encephalopathy is suspected, it is crucial to administer parenteral thiamine (such as Pabrinex) for at least 5 days. Following the parenteral therapy, oral thiamine should be continued.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      9.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology & Hepatology (1/2) 50%
Sexual Health (1/2) 50%
Neonatal Emergencies (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Basic Anaesthetics (1/1) 100%
Trauma (1/2) 50%
Oncological Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Maxillofacial & Dental (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose & Throat (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (1/1) 100%
Vascular (1/1) 100%
Allergy (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
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