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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl has been brought to see you by her father who is concerned that she has another episode of tonsillitis. A locum sent a throat swab 3 days earlier, which is reported as showing a Group A streptococcus.
Select the single most appropriate management.Your Answer: 5 days penicillin V
Correct Answer: 10 days penicillin V
Explanation:Throat Swabs and Antibiotic Treatment for Sore Throat
Throat swabs are not always reliable in differentiating between infection and carriage, and their results take up to 48 hours to be reported. However, they may be useful in high-risk groups to guide treatment choices in case of treatment failure. Symptomatic treatment and a delayed prescription may be reasonable options for sore throat, but after three days, a prescription for antibiotics may be necessary. Penicillin V is the recommended antibiotic for a 10-day course, while erythromycin or clarithromycin should be given for 5 days if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Overall, careful consideration of the patient’s condition and risk factors is necessary in determining the appropriate treatment for sore throat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents with a 4-day history of general malaise, conjunctivitis and a cough. He is starting to develop a maculopapular rash on his face and upper trunk and has a temperature of 39oC.
Select the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Measles
Measles is characterized by a 4-day prodrome with cough and conjunctivitis, which is not seen in any other condition. While rubella has a similar prodrome, it is milder and fever is not as high. Parvovirus B19’s rash appears in the convalescent phase, while infectious mononucleosis presents with sore throat, lymphadenopathy, and malaise. The rash in primary HIV is macular, erythematous, and truncal, and is accompanied by painful oral ulceration and lymphadenopathy. However, if a patient presents with cough and conjunctivitis, measles should be considered as a possible diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman is being seen at the genitourinary medicine clinic for vaginal discharge and dysuria. Upon examination, an endocervical swab revealed a Gram-negative coccus identified as Neisseria gonorrhoea, marking her third episode of gonorrhoea in the last two years. What is the probable outcome of repeated infections?
Your Answer: Infertility
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) resulting in infertility is frequently seen as a complication of gonorrhoea, with Chlamydia being the only cause of PID that is more common. Arthropathy is a rare occurrence in comparison. Chlamydia trachomatis is responsible for causing lymphogranuloma venereum.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.
If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old man complains of back pain, fever, and chills persisting for the last four weeks. He recently visited a sheep farm in Cyprus two months ago. His chest x-ray and urine culture are normal. The doctor suspects Brucellosis. What test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Brucella serology
Explanation:The Knowledge and skills guide of the 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes zoonotic diseases such as leptospirosis and brucellosis.
Understanding Brucellosis
Brucellosis is a disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and is more commonly found in the Middle East and among individuals who work with animals such as farmers, vets, and abattoir workers. The disease is caused by four major species of bacteria: B. melitensis (sheep), B. abortus (cattle), B. canis and B. suis (pigs). The incubation period for brucellosis is typically 2-6 weeks.
Symptoms of brucellosis are nonspecific and may include fever and malaise, as well as hepatosplenomegaly and spinal tenderness. Complications of the disease can include osteomyelitis, infective endocarditis, meningoencephalitis, and orchitis. Leukopenia is also commonly seen in patients with brucellosis.
Diagnosis of brucellosis can be done through the Rose Bengal plate test for screening, but other tests are required to confirm the diagnosis. Brucella serology is the best test for diagnosis, and blood and bone marrow cultures may be suitable in certain patients, although these tests are often negative.
Management of brucellosis typically involves the use of doxycycline and streptomycin. It is important for individuals who work with animals to take precautions to prevent the transmission of brucellosis, such as wearing protective clothing and practicing good hygiene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 5
Correct
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As part of a medication review for a 75-year-old patient, who had a previous admission complicated by C. difficile infection, which of the following commonly prescribed medications should be potentially discontinued due to its association with an increased risk of C. difficile infection?
Your Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) have been identified as a risk factor for C. difficile infection (CDI), with evidence suggesting that they increase the likelihood of infection more than H2 antagonists. As a result, patients with CDI or those at high risk of infection, such as those who have previously experienced CDI, should have their use of PPIs reviewed. Other factors that increase the risk of CDI include advancing age, the use of antibiotics (especially broad-spectrum antibiotics and multiple courses), inflammatory bowel disease, extended hospital stays, immunosuppression, and gastrointestinal surgery.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection and is prescribed a course of amoxicillin. She comes back after 2 weeks with complaints of dysuria, pruritus vulvae, and a white vaginal discharge.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Cystitis
Correct Answer: Vulvovaginal candidiasis
Explanation:Understanding and Treating Vulvovaginal Candidiasis
Vulvovaginal candidiasis is a common condition that affects approximately 75% of women in their reproductive years. It is caused by an overgrowth of yeast in the vaginal area and can be triggered by various factors such as pregnancy, diabetes, and the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. While routine culture is not necessary for diagnosis, it is important to rule out underlying conditions such as type 2 diabetes in older women.
Treatment for vulvovaginal candidiasis typically involves the use of topical or oral antifungal medications such as azoles or triazoles. In cases where an azole has failed, nystatin may be more effective, especially if the infection is caused by Candida glabrata rather than Candida albicans. It is also important to note that approximately 10% of women with vulvovaginal candidiasis have a mixed infection with bacteria, which may require additional testing and treatment.
Overall, understanding the causes and treatment options for vulvovaginal candidiasis can help women effectively manage this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man rapidly develops fever (39oC), sore throat, dry cough, malaise, widespread muscle and joint aches and retro-orbital headache.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Pneumonia
Correct Answer: influenza
Explanation:influenza: Causes, Symptoms, and Impact
influenza, commonly known as the flu, is a viral infection that affects up to 15% of the population each year. The virus undergoes minor mutations, known as antigenic drift, which causes seasonal epidemics. In some cases, major changes in antigens can produce a new virus subtype, known as antigenic shift, which can result in a major epidemic due to little population immunity.
Symptoms of influenza include fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, and fatigue. While most cases are mild, the virus can be highly infectious with a ratio of infections to clinical cases between 3:1 and 9:1. In an average year, there are 50-200 GP consultations for influenza or flu-like illnesses per 100,000 of the population per week.
influenza can have a significant impact on mortality rates, with more than 20,000 deaths worldwide each year. During epidemics, this number can be much higher. Typically, seasonal influenza has a greater effect on mortality rates in the elderly, while swine flu tends to affect children and young adults.
While influenza is the most likely cause of flu-like symptoms, other conditions should also be considered in the differential diagnosis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or if there are underlying health conditions that may increase the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is diagnosed with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection at a relatively late stage when he is already starting to get opportunistic infections. Select from the list the single correct statement about the complications of HIV/AIDS.
Your Answer: Mycobacterium avium infection occurs with CD4 counts as high as <300/mm3
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Complications of HIV/AIDS and the Role of Antiretroviral Therapy
HIV/AIDS is a disease that suppresses T-cell mediated immunity, leading to various complications. However, antiretroviral therapy (ART) has been effective in inhibiting the replication of the virus, restoring the immune system, and reducing the risk of opportunistic infections. Combinations of three or more drugs are used to prevent resistance.
One of the hallmark complications of late-stage HIV disease is pneumocystis pneumonia, which is now less common due to ART and primary prophylaxis. Symptoms include shortness of breath, dry cough, fever, malaise, fatigue, weight loss, and chest pain. Diagnosis can be difficult, with few signs in the chest and unhelpful radiology.
Mycobacterium avium infection is another complication that often occurs at a CD4 count < 200/mm3, and is seen in 40% of patients with late-stage HIV in industrialized countries. Symptoms include fever, night sweats, weight loss, diarrhea, abdominal pain, anemia, or hepatic dysfunction. Dementia is usually caused by HIV encephalopathy, but can also be caused by cytomegalovirus encephalitis or cerebral toxoplasmosis. The incidence of Kaposi’s sarcoma and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma has been reduced by ART, but the incidence of other cancers in HIV patients has not changed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which statement regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct?
Your Answer: Infection requires physical contact with a carrier
Correct Answer: MRSA is often sensitive to trimethoprim
Explanation:Understanding MRSA: Causes, Transmission, and Treatment
MRSA, or Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, is a type of bacteria that can be acquired in both hospital and community settings. While it is carried by many people without causing harm, it can also cause serious infections. MRSA can be spread through direct contact or airborne infection. When treatment is necessary, a combination of doxycycline, fusidic acid, or trimethoprim with rifampicin is typically effective. However, it is important to note that fusidic acid and rifampicin should not be used alone due to the risk of resistance developing. Understanding the causes, transmission, and treatment of MRSA is crucial in preventing its spread and managing infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 10
Correct
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The school nurse is preparing for a visit from the health inspector tomorrow. She seeks guidance on the appropriate temperature range (in Celsius) for storing vaccines in the fridge. What is the standard temperature range that vaccines should be stored at, unless otherwise stated by the manufacturer?
Your Answer: +2C to +8C
Explanation:Vaccinations: Types and Precautions
Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.
It is important to note that different types of influenza vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.
In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old previously healthy medical student presents to his GP a few weeks after returning from his elective in South America. He reports experiencing ongoing watery diarrhea and has observed some weight loss. Despite submitting a stool sample, the results come back negative. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Amoebiasis
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Giardiasis: A Common Cause of Traveller’s Diarrhoea
Giardiasis is a type of infection caused by the flagellate protozoan Giardia lamblia, which is usually acquired from contaminated water supplies. The infection is spread through the faecal-oral route and typically causes watery diarrhoea. Unlike other types of diarrhoea, giardiasis doesn’t cause haemorrhagic diarrhoea.
Diagnosing giardiasis can be difficult, even when looking for cysts in stool cultures, which are frequently negative. As a result, repetitive samples are often required. Chronic infection can lead to malabsorption, and a duodenal biopsy can demonstrate partial villous atrophy. The infection is treated with metronidazole.
Traveller’s diarrhoea in a previously healthy person with a negative stool sample is a typical presentation of giardiasis. While Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis can also present in this way, even without abdominal pain or bloody diarrhoea, the travel history makes giardiasis a much more likely diagnosis. Amoebic dysentery and shigellosis, on the other hand, typically cause profuse, bloody diarrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 12
Correct
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A patient of yours with COPD who is in his 60s wants to travel to Spain on holiday. He plans to fly, but is prepared to drive and take the ferry if you tell him that he is not fit to do so.
You currently manage his COPD with a high dose seretide inhaler and PRN salbutamol. On examination at the surgery he looks relatively well. He has good bilateral air entry on auscultation of his chest and sparse bilateral wheeze.
What level of O2 saturation constitutes the threshold above which he should be able to fly?Your Answer: 90%
Explanation:Fitness to Fly: Guidelines and Recommendations
Maintaining good health is crucial when it comes to air travel. Before boarding a plane, it is important to ensure that you are fit to fly. One way to determine this is by assessing your ability to walk 50 meters on level ground or climb a flight of stairs without experiencing shortness of breath. If you can do this, it is usually indicative that you are fit to fly.
Another way to assess fitness to fly is through a hypoxic challenge test. This test mimics the conditions on a plane, and if your PaO2 (partial pressure of oxygen) is less than 55 mmHg, it is not recommended to fly.
During an exam, you may be asked about your fitness to fly after an illness. It is important to consider any recent health issues and consult with a healthcare professional before making a decision to fly.
If you have experienced a pneumothorax (collapsed lung), it is recommended to wait at least two weeks after conservative management before considering flying. Additionally, evidence of resolution of the pneumothorax should be confirmed before flying.
In summary, it is important to prioritize your health and assess your fitness to fly before boarding a plane. By following these guidelines and recommendations, you can ensure a safe and comfortable flight.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 13
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, continues to smoke and is housebound due to her disability.
Which vaccination should she receive annually?Your Answer: influenza
Explanation:The Importance of Annual influenza Vaccination
influenza vaccines are designed to protect against the two subtypes of human influenza A (H3N2 and H1N1) and influenza B viruses. However, due to changes in the surface antigens of the virus, the composition of the vaccine must be modified annually. To ensure global recommendations on vaccine composition and surveillance for potential pandemic viruses, the World Health Organisation maintains a network of collaborating laboratories.
Annual re-immunisation is particularly recommended for those at the highest risk of morbidity, including patients in chronic care facilities (especially the elderly), those with chronic cardiopulmonary, lung or renal diseases, diabetes mellitus, haemoglobinopathies, and those who are immunocompromised. It is also offered annually to patients aged 65 and over.
While protection may be less effective in the elderly than in children, immunisation has been shown to reduce the incidence of bronchopneumonia, mortality, and hospital admission. In children aged 1-5, it has been shown to reduce influenza-associated respiratory illness in the 1- to 15-year age group by up to 90%, and may reduce influenza-associated otitis media by up to 30%.
In conclusion, annual influenza vaccination is crucial for protecting vulnerable populations and reducing the spread of the virus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 14
Correct
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Which one of the following is a notifiable disease in the UK?
Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Notifiable Diseases in the UK
In the UK, certain diseases are considered notifiable, meaning that the Local Health Protection Team must be notified if a case is suspected or confirmed. These diseases are then reported to the Health Protection Agency on a weekly basis. Notifiable diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever, food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever, whooping cough, and yellow fever.
It is important to note that HIV is not a notifiable disease in the UK. Additionally, in April 2010, dysentery, ophthalmia neonatorum, leptospirosis, and relapsing fever were removed from the list of notifiable diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old teacher presents to your clinic. She experienced upper respiratory symptoms during the COVID-19 pandemic in March 2020 and subsequently tested positive for the virus. Her dyspnea gradually worsened, and she was hospitalized ten days into her illness. She received oxygen therapy and was discharged one week later. She has been off work for three months since the onset of her symptoms and has interacted with several colleagues during this time. She now comes to you nine months after the onset of her symptoms, complaining of persistent fatigue. On physical examination, everything appears normal. Her chest X-ray, lung function tests, electrocardiogram, full blood count, and thyroid function tests are all normal, and she has been discharged from the care of respiratory physicians. How would you manage this patient?
Your Answer: Prescribe a 10-day course of remdesivir
Correct Answer: Consider that she could be suffering with psychological effects following her illness
Explanation:Dealing with Uncertainty in Long Covid Management
Dealing with uncertainty can be challenging for both patients and clinicians, especially in a rapidly evolving field like long covid management. It is unlikely that candidates will be tested on precise details that may change between question setting and the exam. Instead, questions may focus on the management of conditions that are poorly understood or the more reliable do not dos.
One important point to note is that there is no reliable evidence to support prescribing steroids or antivirals for suspected long covid, especially by a generalist. At least 10% of people with acute covid-19 may experience symptoms that persist for months, and recovery timescales can vary. There is no set date by which patients should have settled, and there is no evidence that patients are infectious at this stage of the disease.
It is also important to consider psychological illness as a potential factor in long covid management. Clinicians should keep an open mind about this when evaluating patients, while also being alert to alternative diagnoses and investigating where appropriate. By staying informed and adaptable, clinicians can better navigate the uncertainties of long covid management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents with diarrhoea, vomiting and jaundice following a visit to India. Hepatitis A is diagnosed.
Select from the list the single most common mode of transmission.Your Answer: Contaminated food
Explanation:Common Modes of Disease Transmission
Diseases can be transmitted through various means, including oral ingestion, blood contamination, tick bites, sexual contact, and mosquito bites. Hepatitis A is an example of a disease that is acquired orally, while Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV are blood-borne diseases. Tick-borne diseases, such as Lyme disease and typhus, are caused by infectious agents transmitted through tick bites. Sexually transmitted infections, such as chlamydia, syphilis, and gonorrhoea, are commonly spread through sexual contact. Mosquito bites can also transmit diseases like malaria and dengue fever. It is important to be aware of these modes of transmission and take necessary precautions to prevent the spread of diseases.
Modes of Disease Transmission
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which blood tests are included in the standard antenatal screening program for women in the UK?
Your Answer: HIV
Correct Answer: Listeriosis
Explanation:Antenatal Screening in the UK: HIV, Listeriosis, Strep B, Hepatitis B and Haemoglobinopathies
Antenatal screening is an important part of prenatal care in the UK. HIV testing is routinely offered to pregnant women, as appropriate interventions can reduce transmission rates to less than 1%. Listeriosis, although not routinely tested for, is a concern for pregnant women as it can cause pregnancy and birth complications, and even result in miscarriage or the death of the baby. Strep B is also not routinely tested for, but pregnant women with risk factors should be screened as the infection can be life-threatening for newborns. Hepatitis B is part of routine screening, but Hepatitis C is only tested for in women with risk factors. Finally, screening for haemoglobinopathies varies across the UK, with all women in England and Scotland offered screening for sickle cell and thalassaemia, while in Wales only those at increased risk are screened and in Northern Ireland no policy decision has been made. It is important for pregnant women to be aware of these screening options and to discuss them with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old Bangladeshi man with a history of mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation has been diagnosed with tuberculosis and started on anti-tuberculosis therapy. However, three weeks into the treatment, his INR has increased to 5.6. Which medication is the most likely cause of this increase?
Your Answer: Streptomycin
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:When answering questions about liver enzymes, it is crucial to determine whether the question pertains to induction or inhibition. Candidates should avoid hastily providing drugs that cause induction as the answer. Inhibited liver enzymes can result in an elevated INR. Additionally, isoniazid is known to inhibit the P450 system.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.
Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.
It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with an infected wound on his hand after being bitten by a dog outside his home yesterday. He has a history of rheumatoid arthritis. What is the most appropriate management in addition to copious irrigation?
Your Answer: Remove any foreign body, close the wound, administer co-amoxiclav.
Correct Answer: Remove any foreign body and leave the wound open, administer co-amoxiclav.
Explanation:Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review
Dog bites can cause serious injuries and infections. Therefore, it is important to know how to manage them properly. According to a clinical review published in the British Medical Journal in 2007, the following steps should be taken:
1. Copious irrigation with tap water or normal saline is essential.
2. Any foreign body (e.g. teeth) should be removed, with debridement where necessary.
3. Closure of the wound should be delayed where possible.
4. Antibiotics should be administered according to the risk of infection.
5. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated for all high-risk wounds and patients.
6. Bites to the hands, wrists, and genitalia are considered high-risk as are patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
7. Co-amoxiclav is the antibiotic of choice as it covers all commonly expected organisms.
8. For those with a true penicillin allergy, tetracycline or doxycycline plus metronidazole or a combination with clindamycin should be used.
9. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin alone should not be used for prophylaxis as they do not cover the virulent Pasteurella multocida, commonly found in dog bites.
10. Tetanus immunoglobulin and toxoid should be given to all patients with a history of two or fewer immunisations.It is important to note that if the patient was not bitten abroad, there is no risk of rabies.
Proper Management of Dog Bites: A Clinical Review
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman has plantar warts. Her mother has read that they are caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). She is aware of the link with cervical cancer and is concerned.
Select from the list the type of HPV infection that is most commonly associated with the development of cervical cancer.Your Answer: Common warts
Correct Answer: Asymptomatic infection
Explanation:Understanding Human Papillomavirus (HPV) and its Association with Cancer
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a virus that infects the skin and mucosae of the upper respiratory and anogenital tracts. With about 100 types of HPV, 40 of them infect the genital tract. HPV is classified as either ‘high-risk’ or ‘low-risk’ types, depending on their association with cancer. HPV16 is responsible for over 50% of all cervical cancers, while HPV18 is responsible for over 15%. Although most high-risk infections are transient and cause no clinical problems, persistent infection by a high-risk HPV type is the most important factor for the development of cancer. Types 6 and 11 are associated with anogenital warts and are included in one of the HPV vaccines (Gardasil®) along with types 16 and 18. It is recommended that individuals receive the HPV vaccine to prevent the development of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 21
Correct
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Out of the following patients attending for vaccination against pneumococcal infection, which patient is most likely to have sufficient immunity after receiving the injection and not require any further injections?
Your Answer: A 65-year-old man with no risk factors
Explanation:Pneumococcal Infection and Vaccination: Who is at Risk and How to Protect Them
Streptococcus pneumoniae, commonly known as pneumococcus, can cause a range of illnesses including otitis media, meningitis, septicaemia, and pneumonia. Those at higher risk of serious infection include children, the elderly, patients who have had their spleen removed, and those who are immunocompromised.
To prevent pneumococcal infection, vaccines are available. In the UK, a polyvalent vaccine containing purified capsular polysaccharide from each of the 23 types of pneumococcus is commonly used for individuals over the age of 5. Children under 2 years old receive a conjugate vaccine containing 13 types of pneumococcus. Both vaccines are inactivated and do not contain live organisms.
Patients with no spleen or splenic dysfunction, patients with renal disease, and children at special risk of infection should receive further vaccinations at 5-yearly intervals. All people over 65 years should receive a single dose of vaccine. Other patients at risk include those with diabetes, chronic respiratory disease, heart or liver disease, individuals having cochlear implants, patients with CSF leaks, and welders.
In summary, pneumococcal infection can be serious, but vaccines are available to protect those at risk. It is important to follow vaccination guidelines to ensure maximum protection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 22
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman who breeds parrots presents with a dry cough, fever and myalgia. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.8°C and there are no other notable findings. You advise her to take fluids and paracetamol and to contact you if her symptoms do not improve. She returns after a week with a worsening cough that is now accompanied by blood and a severe headache. During the examination, you observe a faint macular rash on her face, and she has mild tachypnoea but minimal chest signs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psittacosis
Explanation:Psittacosis: A Rare Illness Caused by Bird Exposure
Psittacosis is a rare illness caused by Chlamydophila psittaci, which is carried by birds, particularly parrots. The incubation period is 1-4 weeks, and symptoms include myalgia, cough, headache, and flu-like symptoms. It presents as a community-acquired pneumonia with marked signs of systemic illness, including fever and lassitude. Other symptoms include a non-productive cough, dyspnoea, sore throat, nosebleeds, and occasionally pleuritic chest pain. Severe headache and photophobia are common, and gastrointestinal symptoms may occur. Rose spots, called Horder’s spots, can appear on the face. The chest x-ray may look worse than the clinical signs suggest, and bradycardia and splenomegaly are common. Treatment is with tetracycline, and the prognosis is good if early antibiotic therapy is given.
Compared to influenza, which typically lasts for 3-5 days, psittacosis has a more gradual onset and lasts longer. L pneumophila is another possible cause of atypical pneumonia, but exposure to birds points to psittacosis. Typical community-acquired pneumonia, such as pneumococcal pneumonia, has a more acute onset and significant focal chest signs. Therefore, it is important to consider psittacosis in patients with bird exposure and atypical pneumonia symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The mother of a 4-year-old girl has contacted the GP surgery as her daughter was recently hospitalized with a fever and a non-blanching rash. The diagnosis was meningococcal septicaemia, but the serogroup is currently unknown. The local health protection unit has advised the mother to speak to her GP about chemoprophylaxis for herself.
The mother is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and has a sulphonamide allergy. She received the meningococcal C vaccine during childhood but did not receive the meningococcal B vaccine as it was not available at the time. What is the most appropriate treatment option for her?Your Answer: Meningococcal B vaccine
Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. The recommended choice, according to Public Health England guidelines, is ciprofloxacin, which is taken as a single-dose treatment for both adults and children. It should be given to all close contacts of the index case during the 7 days before the onset of illness, regardless of vaccination status. Rifampicin is an alternative option but is less desirable due to its potential to reduce the effectiveness of combined oral contraceptives and the need for multiple doses. Currently, there is no role for administering a vaccine to the patient as the infection serogroup has not been identified. Even if serogroup B infection is confirmed later, the administration of meningococcal B (MenB) vaccine to close contacts is not recommended unless it is a cluster of cases, which would be determined by the local health protection team rather than the GP.
When suspected bacterial meningitis is being investigated and managed, it is important to prioritize timely antibiotic treatment to avoid negative consequences. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and if meningococcal disease is suspected in a prehospital setting, intramuscular benzylpenicillin may be given. An ABC approach should be taken initially, and senior review is necessary if any warning signs are present. A key decision is when to attempt a lumbar puncture, which should be delayed in certain circumstances. Management of patients without indication for delayed LP includes IV antibiotics, with cefotaxime or ceftriaxone recommended for patients aged 3 months to 50 years. Additional tests that may be helpful include blood gases and throat swab for meningococcal culture. Prophylaxis needs to be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis, and meningococcal vaccination should be offered to close contacts when serotype results are available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Correct
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Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who presents with skin changes on her left lower leg. During examination, Samantha has a low-grade fever and the left lower leg is erythematous, mildly swollen, and warm to touch. The diagnosis is cellulitis, and since Samantha is allergic to penicillin, you prescribe a course of oral clarithromycin.
One week later, Samantha returns with new palpitations. What potential side effect of this antibiotic can be observed on an ECG?Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval
Explanation:Macrolides have been known to cause QT interval prolongation, which can lead to palpitations as an uncommon side effect. On the other hand, a shortened PR interval may indicate pre-excitation or an AV nodal (junctional) rhythm, while a prolonged PR interval suggests delayed conduction of the sinoatrial nodal impulse to the ventricles, also known as first-degree AV block. Prominent P waves, on the other hand, are typically caused by right atrial enlargement due to various factors such as chronic lung disease, tricuspid stenosis, congenital heart disease, or primary pulmonary hypertension.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old male who has recently immigrated from sub-Saharan Africa is undergoing tuberculosis screening. He reports no prior medical history and has never received a BCG vaccination. Although his chest x-ray appears normal, his Mantoux test and interferon gamma test are both positive. An HIV test is negative, leading to a suspected diagnosis of latent tuberculosis. What treatment option is most likely to be offered to him?
Your Answer: Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol for 2 months then step down to rifampicin and isoniazid for 4 months
Correct Answer: Isoniazid for 6 months
Explanation:Managing Tuberculosis: Treatment and Complications
Tuberculosis is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The standard therapy for active tuberculosis involves an initial phase of two months with a combination of four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. The continuation phase lasts for four months and involves rifampicin and isoniazid. For latent tuberculosis, treatment involves three months of isoniazid and rifampicin or six months of isoniazid with pyridoxine. Patients with meningeal tuberculosis require prolonged treatment of at least 12 months with the addition of steroids.
Directly observed therapy may be necessary for certain groups, such as homeless individuals, prisoners, and patients with poor concordance. However, treatment can also lead to complications. Immune reconstitution disease can occur 3-6 weeks after starting treatment and often presents with enlarging lymph nodes. Drug adverse effects can also occur, such as hepatitis, orange secretions, flu-like symptoms, peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis, hyperuricaemia causing gout, arthralgia, myalgia, and optic neuritis. It is important to monitor patients for these complications and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presented 2 weeks ago with upper respiratory symptoms, cough with scanty sputum, hoarseness and headache and a few left basal crepitations were heard on examination. She was treated with amoxicillin for 7 days but her cough persists and crepitations are still audible at the left base.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: No prescription necessary, await spontaneous resolution
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Understanding Community-Acquired Pneumonia and Treatment Options
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is suggested by lower respiratory signs and symptoms, and amoxicillin is an appropriate choice of treatment. The most likely organisms causing CAP are S. pneumoniae, Staph. aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, Chlamydophila pneumoniae, and respiratory viruses. Flucloxacillin is appropriate for suspected staphylococcal infection, but staphylococcal pneumonia is usually severe, which is not the case here. Atypical pneumonia due to Mycoplasma or Chlamydophila is more likely, with Chlamydophila causing symptoms that may drag on for weeks or months. A chest X-ray may show more severe changes than the symptoms and signs suggest. Treatment for atypical pneumonia is similar to other CAPs, with clarithromycin being the drug of choice. For moderately severe CAP, amoxicillin and clarithromycin or doxycycline alone are recommended. Severe cases will usually require hospitalization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Four middle-aged patients returned from a trip to Spain with symptoms of cough, fever, and general malaise. They had traveled with a group of 60 people and participated in activities such as hiking in the mountains and swimming in rivers. The group stayed in various hotels, but the four patients who fell ill all stayed in the same hotel. Based on this information, what is the most probable organism responsible for their illness?
Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Legionnaires’ Disease: A Deadly Outbreak
Legionnaires’ disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila. The condition was first described in a veterans’ legion conference, where a group of attendees became ill with similar symptoms. The disease is often linked to contaminated air conditioning units, which can spread the bacteria through the air.
Symptoms of Legionnaires’ disease include fever, cough, shortness of breath, muscle aches, and headaches. In severe cases, the disease can lead to respiratory failure, septic shock, and even death. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if you experience any of these symptoms, especially if you have been exposed to a potential source of Legionella bacteria.
It is important to note that Weil’s disease and Lyme disease are unlikely to be the cause of the symptoms described in this scenario. Weil’s disease is caused by a different type of bacteria, while Lyme disease is transmitted by ticks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 28
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is concerned about his risk of HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) after learning that his previous partner has been diagnosed with AIDS (acquired immune deficiency syndrome). Their last sexual encounter was two years ago, and he is currently in good health with no symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing his situation?
Your Answer: Offer him testing for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody
Explanation:The standard diagnostic and screening test for HIV now includes a combination of HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody testing. Therefore, the correct option is to offer the patient testing for HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody. Monitoring for those with confirmed HIV infection involves measuring CD4 lymphocyte cell count and viral load, which is not applicable in this case as the patient doesn’t have a confirmed diagnosis. A full blood count may show features suggesting HIV, but it is not a diagnostic test for HIV. NICE recommends offering an HIV test in primary care to those who request testing, have risk factors for HIV, have another sexually transmitted infection, have an AIDS-defining condition, an indicator condition, or clinical features of HIV infection. Therefore, offering the patient testing for a full blood count or stating that testing is not required as he is asymptomatic are incorrect options.
HIV seroconversion is a process where the body develops antibodies against the virus. This process is symptomatic in 60-80% of patients and usually presents as a glandular fever type illness. The severity of symptoms is associated with a poorer long-term prognosis. The symptoms typically occur 3-12 weeks after infection and include a sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, mouth ulcers, and rarely meningoencephalitis.
Diagnosing HIV involves testing for HIV antibodies, which may not be present in early infection. However, most people develop antibodies to HIV at 4-6 weeks, and 99% do so by 3 months. The diagnosis usually involves both a screening ELISA test and a confirmatory Western Blot Assay. Additionally, a p24 antigen test can be used to detect a viral core protein that appears early in the blood as the viral RNA levels rise. Combination tests that test for both HIV p24 antigen and HIV antibody are now standard for the diagnosis and screening of HIV. If the combined test is positive, it should be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. Some centers may also test the viral load (HIV RNA levels) if HIV is suspected at the same time. Testing for HIV in asymptomatic patients should be done at 4 weeks after possible exposure, and after an initial negative result, a repeat test should be offered at 12 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are working in the urgent care centre, where John, a 44-year-old man comes to see you with a laceration to his right lower leg. He explains that 2 hours ago he was using a sharp tool to cut wood when it slipped and hit deep into his foot.
On examination, there is a 6 cm laceration on the lateral aspect of John's right lower leg which is 4 cm deep. There is a lot of sawdust visible inside the wound.
John is unsure about his tetanus immunisation history and there is no further information about this in his records.
What is the most appropriate option to manage John's wound with regards to tetanus prophylaxis?Your Answer: Tetanus immunoglobulin should be given
Correct Answer: Booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin should be given
Explanation:If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin, unless the wound is minor and less than six hours old. In the case of Sarah, who has a tetanus-prone wound contaminated with soil, she requires treatment with human tetanus immunoglobulin. According to NICE guidelines, if a person’s immunisation status is unknown or uncertain, an immediate dose of vaccine should be given, followed by a full five-dose course if necessary to ensure future immunity. Therefore, the correct course of action is to administer both a booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin. Waiting to confirm the tetanus immunisation history is not recommended, as tetanus prophylaxis needs to be given urgently. Advising that no tetanus prophylaxis is required is also incorrect, especially in the case of a tetanus-prone wound, which requires both a booster vaccine and tetanus immunoglobulin.
Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses. This is considered to provide long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and non-penetrating with negligible tissue damage. Tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment, wounds containing foreign bodies, and compound fractures. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns that show extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 30
Correct
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A 44-year-old woman is seen in an emergency appointment complaining that her cold has gone onto her chest, giving her a productive cough and occasional retrosternal chest pain. On examination she has a slight wheeze in her chest but no signs of respiratory distress. She is otherwise fit and well.
Select the single correct statement about her management.Your Answer: She should be advised that she has a viral infection and to take analgesics and antipyretics, with instructions to return if her symptoms worsen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Bronchitis
Acute bronchitis is often caused by a virus, and in individuals with mild symptoms who are otherwise healthy, bacterial infections typically resolve on their own. Treatment options for acute bronchitis include deferred prescriptions with advice sheets or simple reassurance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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