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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old patient comes in for her routine check-up at the psychiatric outpatient clinic. She has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder. During the consultation, she discloses that she hears voices in her head instructing her to harm herself. Additionally, she sees apparitions of her deceased mother and cat. However, she is not frightened by these occurrences as she recognizes that they are not real. How would you characterize her atypical perceptions?
Your Answer: Pseudohallucination
Explanation:Pseudohallucinations in Personality Disorders
Pseudohallucinations are hallucinations that patients recognize as not being real. These hallucinations can occur spontaneously and are different from true perception. Patients can stop them willingly. Patients with personality disorders, especially borderline personality disorder, may experience semi-psychotic and pseudohallucinatory episodes that are challenging to treat with medication. Psycho-social interventions and a strong therapeutic alliance are the primary therapeutic techniques, with medication as a secondary option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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A 24-year-old male has just begun taking risperidone for schizophrenia. Soon after starting the medication, he observes that his breasts have become enlarged and there is some discharge. He also confesses to experiencing a decrease in libido and erectile dysfunction.
What dopaminergic pathway is being suppressed to result in this manifestation, which is diagnosed as hyperprolactinemia due to the use of antipsychotics?Your Answer: Tuberoinfundibular pathway
Explanation:Antipsychotics cause hyperprolactinaemia by inhibiting the tuberoinfundibular pathway, a dopaminergic pathway that originates from the hypothalamus and extends to the median eminence. This inhibition results in an increase in prolactin levels, which is responsible for the patient’s symptoms. Parkinson’s disease is associated with dysfunction in the nigrostriatal pathway, while schizophrenia is linked to abnormalities in the mesolimbic and mesocortical pathways. The corticospinal tract is involved in movement.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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What defense mechanism is being displayed in the differing views of Brian among the mental health unit team?
Your Answer: Splitting
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms: Splitting, Projective Identification, Reaction Formation, Displacement, and Undoing
Splitting is a common behavior observed in individuals with borderline personality disorder. It involves dividing people into their polar opposites, such as viewing nurses as either nurturing or rejecting. This behavior can cause disagreements within clinical teams and should be considered in this context.
Projective identification occurs when an individual projects an aspect of themselves onto another person, often seen in close relationships like that of a mother and child or patient and therapist. The projector tries to make the recipient identify with what has been projected, which can be useful in facilitating further insight into the individual in a therapeutic relationship.
Reaction formation is a defense mechanism that reduces anxiety by acting in the opposite way to a feeling, impulse, or behavior. For example, being overly friendly to someone you dislike.
Displacement is when emotions and feelings are shifted towards a less threatening object. For instance, returning home from work feeling angry about the way you were treated by your boss and shouting at the dog.
Undoing is performing an act to make up for past behavior and alleviate guilt. For example, a man fights with his wife and then buys her a box of chocolates.
In summary, defense mechanisms are psychological strategies used to cope with anxiety and protect the ego. Splitting, projective identification, reaction formation, displacement, and undoing are just a few examples of these mechanisms. these behaviors can help individuals recognize and manage their emotions in a healthier way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old man is having an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy to investigate his dysphagia. He is being given midazolam, a benzodiazepine that enhances activity at the GABA receptor, an inhibitory receptor in the body. What is the ion that flows through the GABA receptor?
Your Answer: Chloride
Explanation:The two types of GABA receptor are GABA-A and GABA-B. GABA-A receptors are ionotropic receptors that function as ligand-gated ion channels. When GABA binds to these receptors, the channel opens and allows ions to pass through. This results in an influx of chloride ions, which reduces the membrane potential and produces sedative effects.
Benzodiazepines are drugs that enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has an inhibitory effect on the brain. This makes them useful for a variety of purposes, including sedation, anxiety relief, muscle relaxation, and as anticonvulsants. However, patients can develop a tolerance and dependence on these drugs, so they should only be prescribed for short periods of time. When withdrawing from benzodiazepines, it is important to do so gradually, reducing the dose every few weeks. If patients withdraw too quickly, they may experience benzodiazepine withdrawal syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms including insomnia, anxiety, and seizures. Other drugs, such as barbiturates, work in a similar way but have different effects on the duration or frequency of chloride channel opening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presents to the GP clinic with a one-month history of anhedonia, insomnia, and low mood. The GP prescribes citalopram to alleviate her symptoms. What is the underlying hypothesis for this treatment?
Your Answer: Monoamine hypothesis
Explanation:Patients with moderate depression exhibit elevated cortisol levels. The neurotrophic hypothesis suggests that depression-induced glutamate increase leads to cellular atrophy and reduced BDNF, which typically safeguards neurons. The immunological hypothesis proposes that depression can imitate the sick role by raising inflammatory cytokines and interleukins, such as interferon-alpha and tumor necrosis factor. The psychological hypothesis posits that mood changes stem from dysfunctional core beliefs, which cause cognitive distortions about oneself, others, and the world, forming the foundation of CBT. The monoamine hypothesis suggests that depressed patients have insufficient monoamine levels, which regulate mood. In depression, there is an increased density of MAO-A (metabolizer). Citalopram functions by restricting monoamine reuptake into the presynaptic cell, thereby increasing the monoamine levels available to the postsynaptic receptor, indicating that it operates based on the monoamine hypothesis.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Correct
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A 78-year-old male is admitted to your ward with community-acquired pneumonia. He has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 6 years. The patient becomes increasingly agitated during his stay, and you notice that he is prescribed haloperidol for agitation. However, after receiving the medication, his Parkinson's symptoms worsen significantly. What is the likely mechanism of action of haloperidol?
Your Answer: Blocks dopamine receptors
Explanation:Haloperidol is a typical antipsychotic that works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain. However, typical antipsychotics are known to have non-selective blockage of various dopamine receptors, leading to unwanted side effects such as parkinsonism. This is particularly problematic for individuals with Parkinson’s disease, as the depletion of dopaminergic neurons already present in the condition can be further exacerbated by the use of antipsychotics that block any remaining dopamine transmissions.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient with schizophrenia visits the clinic. He has observed discharge on his shirt twice and upon inspection, he noticed a milky fluid coming from his nipples. He recalls his psychiatrist mentioning that this could happen with his medication. What is the most probable reason for his discharge?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:Hyperprolactinaemia, which is characterized by high levels of prolactin, is a common side effect of certain atypical antipsychotics like risperidone. This medication can cause galactorrhoea, which is the abnormal secretion of milk due to the development of breast tissue and mammary glands.
Different antipsychotics have their own unique side effect profiles, and the most likely culprits of hyperprolactinaemia are haloperidol (a conventional antipsychotic) and risperidone (an atypical antipsychotic). While it is uncommon for most atypical antipsychotics to cause galactorrhoea, risperidone is an exception.
Other antipsychotics like clozapine are associated with agranulocytosis and myocarditis, while olanzapine is linked to dyslipidaemia, diabetes mellitus, and weight gain.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Correct
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Samantha is a 60-year-old female who is well known to the emergency department due to regular admissions of intoxication and related incidents. The last time she was admitted was because of a fall after a drinking binge, it was later discovered that this was caused by visual impairment and balance issues. Before treatment could be initiated, she self-discharged.
This admission she was found roaming the streets with no clothes on, no idea of how she got there or who she was. Whilst in the department she would constantly ask where she was and when she could home, despite being told numerous times.
Which of the following would you expect to see in this patient?Your Answer: Confabulation
Explanation:Withdrawal from alcohol can lead to hallucinations, often in the form of visual images such as rats or bugs crawling on or around the patient.
Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. This condition is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, which leads to damage and haemorrhage in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often follows untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is another condition caused by thiamine deficiency.
The primary features of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to acquire new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.
Understanding Korsakoff’s syndrome is crucial for individuals who have a history of alcoholism or thiamine deficiency. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further damage and improve the individual’s quality of life. Proper nutrition and abstinence from alcohol are essential for managing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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A teenager presents with the belief that they can fly. This is likely to be a primary delusion.
Which of the following is most commonly associated with this symptom?Your Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Primary delusions are unique in that they cannot be attributed to any previous psychopathological state, such as a mood disorder. Delusions are characterized by an unshakeable, false belief that is not accepted by others in the patient’s culture. The patient perceives no difference between a delusional belief and a true belief.
The correct answer is Schizophrenia, as primary delusions are often observed in this disorder and other psychotic disorders. In contrast, mania and severe depression are more likely to cause secondary delusions that are related to the patient’s underlying mood.
Anorexia nervosa typically does not involve true delusions, but it may involve over-valued ideas that the person becomes preoccupied with.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Correct
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Which of the following side-effects are more prevalent with clozapine compared to typical antipsychotics?
Your Answer: Agranulocytosis
Explanation:To ensure patient safety, it is important to monitor the full blood count for signs of agranulocytosis/neutropenia, a severe adverse reaction associated with clozapine.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Correct
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A 29-year-old male has just been prescribed olanzapine for his schizophrenia. However, his family reports that he appears restless and has a blank stare. During your examination, you observe an upward deviation of both eyes.
What could be the reason for this?Your Answer: Oculogyric-crisis
Explanation:Acute dystonia is characterized by sustained muscle contraction, such as torticollis or oculogyric crisis. These symptoms are unlikely to be caused by a brain tumor.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is often triggered by the initiation of anti-dopaminergic medication or withdrawal of dopamine agonists. Symptoms include fever, sweating, muscle rigidity, and confusion. Treatment involves discontinuing anti-dopaminergic medications and sometimes starting dopamine agonists like bromocriptine. Symptomatic care, such as cooling blankets, may also be provided. Antipyretics are not effective in treating neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
Oculogyric crisis is a dystonic reaction that typically occurs shortly after starting antipsychotics, particularly older typical antipsychotics. Treatment involves stopping the medication and administering antimuscarinic drugs.
A cranial nerve III palsy would result in a ‘down and out gaze,’ while a cranial nerve VI palsy would cause an inability to effectively abduct the eye.
Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Correct
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A 60-year-old male patient comes in for a routine colonoscopy. He had stage I colon cancer that was treated successfully ten years ago. During the discussion of his thoughts, concerns, and expectations, he mentions that he hasn't thought about the potential results until now and that worrying won't change anything.
What ego defense mechanism is he displaying?Your Answer: Suppression
Explanation:Understanding Ego Defenses
Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.
Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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After the passing of a dear friend, a 22-year-old male comes in with symptoms of confusion and auditory hallucinations. He appears to be in great distress and has developed a belief that he is a malevolent sorcerer. It is suspected that he may be experiencing brief psychotic disorder.
What are some characteristics of this disorder?Your Answer: It often results in a return to baseline functioning
Explanation:Brief psychotic disorder is a condition characterized by a sudden onset of psychotic symptoms, such as hallucinations or delusions, that typically occurs in response to a stressful event. Individuals with a pre-existing personality disorder may be more susceptible to this condition. However, the good news is that brief psychotic disorder often resolves within a month, and patients typically return to their normal level of functioning. This disorder is most commonly seen in individuals in their 20s, 30s, and 40s, and patients may not always be aware of the changes in their behavior.
Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features
Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.
Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.
The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Correct
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A patient with intricate mental health issues and multiple medications presents at the clinic with concerns about weight gain. Which of the following medications is probable to be the cause of this side effect?
Your Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Weight gain is a prevalent side effect of antipsychotics.
While antipsychotics are successful in treating schizophrenia, they often lead to weight gain and an increased likelihood of developing type 2 diabetes. The most rapid weight gain typically occurs within the first six months of starting antipsychotic treatment.
In particular, Olanzapine and Clozapine are associated with a high risk of weight gain. They stimulate appetite and result in overeating, as well as disrupt glucose regulation.
Schizophrenia management guidelines were published by NICE in 2009. The guidelines recommend that first-line treatment for schizophrenia should involve oral atypical antipsychotics. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients. It is important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification due to the high rates of cardiovascular disease in schizophrenic patients, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare professionals should take necessary measures to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department on Thursday evening after falling and hitting his head on the pavement. He was found to be heavily intoxicated and unable to stand. A CT scan of his head reveals a crescent-shaped hematoma on the right side. The patient undergoes a burr-hole craniostomy with irrigation, which goes smoothly. However, two days later, the nursing staff notices that he is restless and agitated. He is speaking to his deceased wife, who passed away 15 years ago, and does not recognize any of the nurses. Additionally, he has developed hand tremors.
What medication has been overlooked by the medical team caring for this patient?Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Long-acting benzodiazepines are administered in decreasing doses to manage alcohol withdrawal symptoms in patients with a history of alcohol abuse. A man with such a history presents with anxiety, restlessness, visual and auditory hallucinations, and tremors 48 hours after his last alcohol intake. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine, is prescribed to alleviate acute alcohol withdrawal and anxiety. Mannitol is indicated for cerebral edema, furosemide is a diuretic, and escitalopram is commonly used to treat anxiety and depression.
Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.
Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.
Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old patient comes in for a routine check-up after her recent gallbladder removal surgery. The procedure went smoothly with no complications. She reports feeling drowsy in the mornings and you suspect it may be due to one of the medications she was prescribed during her hospital stay, specifically lorazepam.
Can you provide a brief explanation of the mechanism of action of this drug?Your Answer: A non-benzodiazepine hypnotic that is a GABA antagonist
Correct Answer: A non-benzodiazepine hypnotic that stimulates GABA receptors
Explanation:Zopiclone is a non-benzodiazepine used for insomnia and anxiety by stimulating the α-subunit of the GABA receptor. It should be used with caution due to addiction and tolerance. Benzodiazepines work through direct stimulation of GABA receptors, while promethazine and cyclizine are H1 receptor antagonists that cause sedation as a side effect.
Understanding Z Drugs
Z drugs are a class of medications that have comparable effects to benzodiazepines but differ in their chemical structure. They work by targeting the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. Z drugs can be categorized into three groups: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon, respectively.
Like benzodiazepines, Z drugs can cause similar adverse effects. Additionally, they can increase the risk of falls in older adults. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of these medications before use and to follow the prescribed dosage and instructions carefully.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Correct
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A 26-year-old male accountant comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in his left arm and right leg. He reports experiencing high levels of stress at work and a recent breakup with his girlfriend. Interestingly, he appears to show little emotional reaction when discussing these events and his motor symptoms. Additionally, he is observed moving his affected limbs normally when he thinks no one is watching. How would you describe his presentation?
Your Answer: Belle indifference
Explanation:Belle Indifference in Conversion Disorder
Conversion disorder is a dissociative disorder that arises when emotional stress is transformed into physical health symptoms. One of the characteristic features of this disorder is belle indifference, which is the lack of emotional response to the severe physical disabilities that patients with conversion disorders present with. Although it is rarely seen nowadays, it is still included in the diagnostic criteria of this disorder.
Belle indifference is typically observed in conversion disorder and is a striking feature of this condition. EEG and MRI may confirm the physical disability, but the patient shows no emotional response to the symptoms. Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, is a condition where the patient believes they have a specific diagnosis, such as cancer. It is important to differentiate between these two conditions as they have different treatment approaches. the features of belle indifference in conversion disorder can aid in the diagnosis and management of this disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Correct
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A 25-year-old patient with paranoid schizophrenia has discontinued their medication and is experiencing distress. As they walk home, they observe a traffic light turn red and immediately interpret it as a sign of the impending apocalypse. How would you classify this delusion?
Your Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:Types of Delusional Symptoms in Psychotic Disorders
Delusional perception is a symptom commonly seen in schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. It occurs when a normal perception takes on a unique and delusional significance for the patient. For example, a red traffic light may be perceived as a sign of the end of the world. This symptom is considered a first rank symptom by psychiatrist Kurt Schneider.
Autochthonous delusions, also known as delusional intuitions, are sudden and unexplained delusions that arise in the patient’s mind. These delusions are not based on any external stimuli or perceptions, but rather grow from within the patient’s mind.
Delusional memories are memories that are partially based on true events from the past, but with delusional beliefs attached to them. For example, a patient may believe that a chip has been inserted in their head following a surgery to remove a cyst, even though this is not true.
Delusional atmosphere is a poorly understood phenomenon where the patient experiences an overwhelming feeling that something important is happening or that the world has changed, but they are unable to understand what or how. This feeling may be associated with anxiety, depression, or excitement, and can lead to the development of delusions.
In summary, delusional symptoms can take on various forms in psychotic disorders, including delusional perception, autochthonous delusions, delusional memories, and delusional atmosphere. These symptoms can greatly impact the patient’s perception of reality and require careful management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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Tina, who is in her mid-30s, is currently facing a challenging situation at work that is causing her to feel increasingly frustrated and angry. To cope with these emotions, she has decided to take up kickboxing as a form of release. By channeling her energy into physical activity, Tinais able to manage her anger in a healthy way. This is an example of which defense mechanism?
Your Answer: Sublimation
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms: Coping Strategies for Unacceptable Emotions
Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with unacceptable emotions and thoughts. These mechanisms are often unconscious and can be helpful in managing difficult situations. One such mechanism is sublimation, which involves channeling negative emotions into more acceptable outlets. For example, a person who is angry may choose to engage in physical exercise as a way to release their emotions.
Another defense mechanism is displacement, which involves transferring emotions from one person or situation to another. This can be seen when a person who is angry with their boss comes home and takes out their frustration on their family members. Intellectualization is another mechanism that allows individuals to focus on the facts of a situation rather than the emotions they are feeling. This can be helpful in situations where emotions may be overwhelming, such as when dealing with a serious illness.
Rationalization is a defense mechanism that allows individuals to justify their behavior in a logical manner when their ego is threatened. For example, a student who fails an exam may blame the teacher rather than accepting responsibility for their own actions. Finally, denial is a mechanism that involves consciously avoiding painful topics. This can be seen when a patient denies being told that they have a serious illness.
Overall, defense mechanisms can be helpful in managing difficult emotions and situations. However, it is important to recognize when these mechanisms are being used and to seek help if they are interfering with daily life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Correct
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Sophie is at a crowded concert. She is standing near a group of her favorite band's fans and she can hear part of their conversation. She thinks she hears the name of her favorite band member mentioned.
What kind of illusion is Sophie experiencing?Your Answer: Auditory illusion
Explanation:Types of Illusions and Examples
Illusions can occur in any sensory modality, but the most commonly reported are visual. However, there are three broad types of illusions: affect illusion, completion illusion, and pareidolia. Affect illusion is associated with specific mood states, such as someone who has recently been bereaved may ‘see’ their loved one. Completion illusion is due to inattention when reading, such as misreading words or completing faded letters. Pareidolia occurs when an individual perceives a vivid picture in an otherwise vague or obscure stimulus, such as seeing faces or animals in clouds.
Fantastic illusions were described by some of the classic psychiatrists. For example, Fish described a patient who, during an interview, stated that the psychiatrist’s head changed to a rabbit’s head. This patient was known to confabulate and exaggerate. Another example of an auditory illusion is when a partially overheard conversation is misrepresented or misinterpreted by the listener, leading them to believe that they are being discussed.
In conclusion, illusions can occur in various forms and can be caused by different factors. It is important to understand the different types of illusions to avoid misinterpretation and confusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
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A middle-aged woman presents with complaints of profound sadness, marked difficulty concentrating, and an inability to make decisions. During the evaluation, she speaks slowly and struggles to articulate her emotions. How would you characterize the alterations in her cognitive functioning and thought processes?
Your Answer: Psychomotor retardation
Explanation:Psychomotor Retardation in Severe Depression
Psychomotor retardation is a cognitive symptom commonly observed in individuals with severe depression. It is characterized by a significant slowing down of both thinking and behavior. This symptom can manifest in various ways, such as slowed speech, reduced movement, and delayed responses. Psychomotor retardation can significantly impact an individual’s ability to carry out daily activities and can lead to social withdrawal and isolation.
It is essential to differentiate psychomotor retardation from other forms of thought disorders seen in other psychiatric conditions such as mania and schizophrenia. In mania, individuals may experience racing thoughts and increased energy levels, while in schizophrenia, disorganized thinking and speech patterns are common. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a mental health professional is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat psychomotor retardation in severe depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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A 27-year-old individual diagnosed with schizophrenia has a history of cannabis misuse and has discontinued their medication. They are currently experiencing auditory hallucinations where multiple voices are conversing about them. The voices are making derogatory comments, accusing the individual of being a paedophile and deserving punishment.
What is the best description of this hallucination?Your Answer: Third person hallucination
Explanation:Types of Auditory Hallucinations
There are different types of auditory hallucinations that individuals may experience. One type is third person hallucinations, where patients hear voices talking about them in the third person. This is considered a first rank symptom of schizophrenia, but it can also occur in other psychiatric disorders such as mania. Another type is extra-campine hallucinations, which are perceived as coming from outside of the normal sensory field, such as from several miles away. Functional hallucinations, on the other hand, are triggered by stimuli within the same sensory field, such as hearing a phone ring that triggers a voice. Lastly, imperative hallucinations involve the auditory hallucination giving instructions to the patient.
the Different Types of Auditory Hallucinations
Auditory hallucinations can be a distressing experience for individuals who hear voices that are not there. It is important to note that there are different types of auditory hallucinations, each with their own unique characteristics. Third person hallucinations involve hearing voices talking about the individual in the third person, while extra-campine hallucinations are perceived as coming from outside of the normal sensory field. Functional hallucinations are triggered by stimuli within the same sensory field, and imperative hallucinations involve the auditory hallucination giving instructions to the patient. the different types of auditory hallucinations can help individuals and healthcare professionals better identify and manage these experiences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
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A woman punishes her 10-year-old son for breaking his younger sibling's toy by removing one of his favourite toys from the shelf. Her son becomes tearful and wets his bed. He was a previously toilet-trained child.
Which ego defence mechanism is demonstrated by the 10-year-old's behaviour of wetting his bed after being punished for breaking his sibling's toy?Your Answer: Regression
Explanation:Regression refers to the involuntary process of reverting back to earlier ways of dealing with the world, which is different from fixation. This phenomenon is commonly observed in children who are experiencing stress due to factors such as illness, punishment, or the arrival of a new sibling. For instance, a child who was previously toilet-trained may start bedwetting again under such circumstances. Other related psychological concepts include reaction formation, fixation, and displacement.
Understanding Ego Defenses
Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.
Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
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A young intern consistently shows up late for rounds and fabricates medical excuses. Meanwhile, they criticize a fellow intern for being unreliable and inept in their duties.
Which ego defense mechanism is being exhibited in this scenario?Your Answer: Projection
Explanation:Understanding Ego Defenses
Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.
Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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A teenage boy is brought to the emergency department by his family after stating that his 'insides' have ceased functioning and that he is to blame for the Syrian refugee crisis. Upon examination, the physician observes that he appears depressed and speaks in a slow, monotone voice with minimal facial expressions. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psychotic depression
Explanation:These delusions are congruent with depression in terms of mood, as they are considered to be depressing delusions.
Screening and Assessment of Depression
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.
Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.
The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.
In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Correct
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A 9-year-old child with ADHD is brought to the general practice by their mother for a check-up. The child has been taking methylphenidate for the past 2 years and the mother is concerned about their growth due to difficulties with eating. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs that act as central nervous system depressants by enhancing the effects of the neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA). They are commonly used to treat anxiety, insomnia, and seizures.
In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for the recognition and management of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. ADHD is defined by DSM-V as a persistent condition that includes features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. The threshold for diagnosis is six features for children up to 16 years old and five features for those aged 17 or over. ADHD has a prevalence of 2.4% in the UK, with a possible genetic component and a higher incidence in boys than girls.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should follow to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, usually to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants and how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. For patients with mild/moderate symptoms, parents attending education and training programmes can be beneficial. For those who fail to respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy can be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. Lisdexamfetamine can be used if there is an inadequate response, and dexamfetamine can be started in those who have benefited from lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate its side effects. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other.
All of these drugs have the potential to be cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment. Referral to a cardiologist is necessary if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity. A thorough history and clinical examination are essential for accurate diagnosis, given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and physical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Correct
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A 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia has been repeatedly calling the police, claiming that her neighbors are attempting to kill her by filling her apartment with gas. She insists that she can smell gas in her apartment at all times, despite having an electric stove. What kind of abnormal perception is this likely to be?
Your Answer: Olfactory hallucination
Explanation:Types of Hallucinations
Hallucinations are sensory experiences that are not based on reality. They can occur in various forms, including olfactory, gustatory, kinaesthetic, hypnagogic, and tactile. Olfactory hallucinations involve smelling something that is not present, and can be associated with organic disorders such as temporal lobe epilepsy or psychotic disorders like schizophrenia. It is important to rule out other organic disorders before diagnosing a psychotic disorder.
Gustatory hallucinations involve experiencing a taste that is not present, while kinaesthetic hallucinations involve feeling a sensation of movement. Hypnagogic hallucinations occur when a person hears a voice upon awakening, which can be a normal experience. Tactile hallucinations involve feeling a sensation of touch that is not present.
the different types of hallucinations is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. It is essential to rule out any underlying organic disorders before attributing the hallucinations to a psychotic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Correct
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A 38-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse is under the care of a nursing home due to a diagnosis of Wernicke's encephalopathy. What vitamin deficiency is the cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Thiamine
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is linked to bleeding in the mamillary bodies of the brain. This condition is commonly seen in patients who have a deficiency in thiamine. The symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy include an altered mental state, difficulty with coordination and balance, and ophthalmoplegia. This condition is particularly problematic for individuals who abuse alcohol as they often rely on alcohol for their daily caloric intake.
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that can have long-lasting effects on a person’s health. With proper treatment and care, it is possible to manage the symptoms of Wernicke’s encephalopathy and improve overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Correct
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What is the term used to describe the recurring thoughts of harming one's own family, even though the person does not want to act on them?
Your Answer: Obsessional thoughts
Explanation:Possession of Thought
Possession of thought can be understood through the concepts of ego-syntonicity and ego-dystonicity. Ego-syntonic experiences are consistent with an individual’s self-image, while ego-dystonic experiences are not. Obsessional thoughts are unwanted and distressing thoughts, ideas, or images that are recognized as the individual’s own, making them ego-dystonic.
Thought broadcast is a passivity experience where the individual believes their thoughts are taken away from their head and widely broadcast. On the other hand, thought insertion is a phenomenon where the individual believes that their thoughts have been placed inside their head from outside. Both thought broadcasting and insertion are thought alienation experiences and are first rank symptoms of schizophrenia.
In the case of thought alienation experiences, the division between ego-syntonicity and ego-dystonicity is less clear. Although initially ego-syntonic, as the individual recovers from psychosis, they may recognize thought alienation experiences as more distressing and therefore more ego-dystonic in nature.
Compulsions are obsessional motor acts that the patient recognizes as unnecessary but cannot resist performing. possession of thought and its various experiences can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of mental health disorders.
Overall, possession of thought is a complex phenomenon that can have significant impacts on an individual’s mental health and well-being. By the different experiences and their relationship to ego-syntonicity and ego-dystonicity, mental health professionals can provide more effective treatment and support to those experiencing these symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Correct
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A 28-year-old man with schizophrenia who began taking clozapine 2 weeks ago visits for his routine blood test. What is a known severe side effect of clozapine?
Your Answer: Agranulocytosis
Explanation:Clozapine, an antipsychotic medication used to treat refractory schizophrenia, requires continuous monitoring for patients taking it. This involves weekly blood tests for the first 18 weeks, followed by bi-weekly tests until the first year, and then monthly tests thereafter.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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