00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 48-year-old Nigerian patient presents with a 3-month history of jaundiced sclera, weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old Nigerian patient presents with a 3-month history of jaundiced sclera, weight loss, and pale stools. Suspected malignancy is being worked up, and a pancreatic protocol CT reveals a low attenuating mass within the pancreatic body and neck, distension of the pancreatic duct within the pancreatic tail, and non-opacification of the portal confluence. Peritoneal nodular thickening and masses are also noted, along with a right hepatic lobe focal lesion in the arterial phase. After MDT discussion, it is determined that the extent of the disease is unresectable. What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pancreaticoduodenectomy

      Correct Answer: Biliary stenting

      Explanation:

      Biliary stenting is the preferred treatment for patients with malignant distal obstructive jaundice caused by unresectable pancreatic carcinoma. Although it does not provide a cure, it can alleviate symptoms and reduce short-term morbidity and mortality. Percutaneous biliary drainage via transhepatic route may be considered if biliary stenting fails, but it is not the first option. However, due to the complexity of the procedure and the presence of peritoneal seeding and liver metastases, it requires careful consideration before being performed.

      A choledochoduodenostomy is an anastomosis between the common bile duct (CBD) and jejunum, which is used to relieve biliary obstruction distal to the junction of the hepatic duct and the cystic duct. Although it is indicated for chronic pancreatitis, it is not recommended for many patients with pancreatic head malignancies because the tumours can prevent proper repositioning of the duodenum, leading to a tension-filled surgical anastomosis that can cause bile leakage. As the patient has unresectable pancreatic cancer, this procedure is not appropriate.

      The CT report shows a significant pancreatic malignancy with metastases in the right liver lobe and peritoneum, making pancreaticoduodenectomy or pancreatic resection inappropriate options.

      Jaundice can present in various surgical situations, and liver function tests can help classify whether the jaundice is pre hepatic, hepatic, or post hepatic. Different diagnoses have typical features and pathogenesis, and ultrasound is the most commonly used first-line test. Relief of jaundice is important, even if surgery is planned, and management depends on the underlying cause. Patients with unrelieved jaundice have a higher risk of complications and death. Treatment options include stenting, surgery, and antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      68.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department following three events...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 7-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department following three events which occurred earlier in the day. The father describes multiple events throughout the day whereby his daughter has been sitting on the floor and suddenly stops what she is doing, becoming somewhat vacant. She would not respond to anything that he said. He describes the events lasting for around five seconds and they end quite rapidly. She is not aware of these events and cannot recall any odd feelings. The father is very worried and is sure that this is not normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Typical absence seizure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Absence Seizures: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis

      Absence seizures are a type of seizure that typically begins in childhood, between the ages of four and seven years. They can occur several times every day and are characterized by an immediate distraction from what is being done and vacant staring into space, accompanied by unresponsiveness lasting for around 5–10 seconds. The event will usually terminate as quickly as it commences, with the child immediately carrying on with whatever they were doing.

      Diagnosing absence seizures can be challenging, as they can be mistaken for daydreaming or other types of seizures. Atypical absence seizures have been reported to start slowly and also gradually fade away, while focal dyscognitive seizures are more likely to include focal automatic behaviors such as lip smacking and mumbling.

      To differentiate between absence seizures and other conditions, clinical tests such as hyperventilation and electroencephalogram (EEG) can be implemented. It is also important to consider the duration of the seizure and any accompanying symptoms, such as myoclonic jerks or confusion.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and differential diagnosis of absence seizures is crucial for proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the greatest risk of complications for an elderly patient with severe...

    Correct

    • What is the greatest risk of complications for an elderly patient with severe urosepsis who has received a once daily dose of gentamicin at 7 mg/kg and has gentamicin levels exceeding 2 mg/L after 24 hours?

      Your Answer: Nephrotoxicity

      Explanation:

      Gentamicin and its potential side effects

      Gentamicin is a medication that can cause nephrotoxicity, especially in elderly patients with renal impairment. This is more likely to occur if the drug accumulates over time, leading to acute tubular necrosis. Therefore, it is crucial to administer gentamicin according to body weight and monitor levels regularly. Elderly patients are at a higher risk of acute renal failure, so extra caution is necessary. If the gentamicin trough exceeds 2 mg/L, the next dose should not be given.

      In addition to nephrotoxicity, gentamicin can also cause vestibulotoxicity, which can result in permanent loss of equilibrioception. This side effect usually occurs when the drug is taken at high doses for an extended period, although there have been cases where it developed within a few days. However, this side effect can be beneficial in treating severe Meniere’s disease.

      Unlike nephrotoxicity and vestibulotoxicity, hepatotoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and retinopathy are not typically associated with gentamicin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal range
      pH 7.34 7.35–7.45
      pa(O2) 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
      pa(CO2) 7.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
      HCO3- 36 mmol 24–30 mmol/l
      Base excess +4 mmol −2 to +2 mmol
      What is the best interpretation of this man's ABG results?

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis without metabolic compensation

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Results: A Five-Step Approach

      Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results provide valuable information about a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status. Understanding ABG results requires a systematic approach. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to assessing ABGs.

      Step 1: Assess the patient and their oxygenation status. A pa(O2) level of >10 kPa is considered normal.

      Step 2: Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH <7.35) or alkalotic (pH >7.45).

      Step 3: Evaluate the respiratory component of the acid-base balance. A high pa(CO2) level (>6.0) suggests respiratory acidosis or compensation for metabolic alkalosis, while a low pa(CO2) level (<4.5) suggests respiratory alkalosis or compensation for metabolic acidosis. Step 4: Evaluate the metabolic component of the acid-base balance. A high bicarbonate (HCO3) level (>26 mmol) suggests metabolic alkalosis or renal compensation for respiratory acidosis, while a low bicarbonate level (<22 mmol) suggests metabolic acidosis or renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis. Step 5: Interpret the results in the context of the patient’s clinical history and presentation. It is important to note that ABG results should not be interpreted in isolation. A thorough clinical assessment is necessary to fully understand a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 10-year-old boy is the shortest in his class, measuring only 125 cm....

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is the shortest in his class, measuring only 125 cm. His parents are worried about his growth. His last three recorded heights have been between the 0.4th and 2nd centile. His mother is 160 cm tall and his father is 175 cm tall. He has no other health issues.

      What could be the probable reason for his short stature?

      Your Answer: Familial short stature

      Explanation:

      Familial Short Stature in Children

      Children who have short parents and are otherwise healthy may have familial short stature. This means that their height and weight fall within the expected range based on their parents’ heights, and growth charts can be used to predict their adult height. In the case of a girl with familial short stature, her predicted adult height would be 154 cm, which falls within the mid-parental range of heights. Delayed puberty would cause a failure to gain height at the beginning of puberty and crossing of height centiles, while inadequate nutrition would cause crossing of both height and weight centiles. Low birth weight can also cause short stature in children, but in the absence of any other history, familial short stature is the most likely explanation. Precocious puberty, on the other hand, causes children to be tall for their age at the onset of puberty, not short.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      41.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain. The pain is concentrated in the epigastric region and is relieved by leaning forward. He has vomited twice, but there was no blood in the vomit.

      Upon examination, he appears unwell and sweaty. His heart rate is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 100/72 mmHg, respiratory rate is 22 breaths per minute, and temperature is 39.2 ºC.

      Given his complex medical history and multiple daily medications, which medication is most likely causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Mesalazine

      Explanation:

      The drug that can cause drug-induced pancreatitis is mesalazine. This patient is exhibiting the typical symptoms of acute pancreatitis, such as severe epigastric pain that is relieved by leaning forward, accompanied by vomiting and fever. Although there can be multiple causes of this condition, drug-induced pancreatitis is a common one. Mesalazine has been identified as a causative agent, but the exact mechanism is still unknown. It is believed that salicylic acid may increase the permeability of the pancreatic duct, leading to inflammation.

      Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures, but it has not been shown to cause pancreatitis, although it can cause hepatitis and other side effects. Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used to treat complicated schizophrenia, but it has not been linked to pancreatitis, although it can cause agranulocytosis, neutropenia, constipation, myocarditis, and seizures. Ramipril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor that has not been associated with pancreatitis, but it may cause cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      285.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading, which...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of difficulty reading, which she has noticed over the past two weeks. She has never worn glasses and is not taking any medications.

      Upon examination, her pupils are of normal size but react sluggishly to light. Both optic discs appear sharp, without signs of haemorrhages or exudates. However, her visual acuity is significantly impaired and remains so even when using a pinhole card. Additionally, she exhibits five-beat nystagmus and double vision when looking to the left.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnosis of Multiple Sclerosis in a Young Woman

      This young woman shows signs of retrobulbar neuritis, which is characterized by inflammation of the optic nerve behind the eye. Additionally, she exhibits some cerebellar features such as nystagmus, which is an involuntary eye movement. These symptoms suggest a possible diagnosis of Multiple sclerosis (MS), a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the central nervous system.

      Further diagnostic tests can support this diagnosis. Visual evoked responses can measure the electrical activity in the brain in response to visual stimuli, which can be abnormal in MS. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) can reveal demyelinating plaques, or areas of damage to the protective covering of nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord. Finally, oligoclonal bands can be detected in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) of MS patients, indicating an immune response in the central nervous system.

      In summary, this young woman’s symptoms and diagnostic tests suggest a possible diagnosis of MS. Further evaluation and treatment by a healthcare professional are necessary to confirm this diagnosis and manage her symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old man in a heterosexual relationship is seeking advice on contraception options...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man in a heterosexual relationship is seeking advice on contraception options after undergoing a vasectomy. What recommendations can be provided to him?

      Your Answer: Use additional contraception until semen analysis reveals azoospermia

      Explanation:

      It is important to inform the patient that vasectomy is not an immediate form of contraception. A semen analysis must be performed twice after the procedure to confirm azoospermia before it can be used as contraception. Therefore, the most appropriate advice would be to use additional contraception until the semen analysis confirms azoospermia. While abstinence is a safe option, it may not be practical for the patient’s sexual life. Advising that there is no need for additional contraception or suggesting that the patient’s partner use hormonal contraception is incorrect. It is important to give advice directly to the patient. Additionally, there is no defined timeframe for when vasectomy becomes effective. The patient will need to produce a sample for analysis about 12 weeks after the procedure, and only when tests confirm azoospermia can the patient stop using additional contraception. This typically occurs around 16 to 20 weeks after the procedure.

      Vasectomy: A Simple and Effective Male Sterilisation Method

      Vasectomy is a male sterilisation method that has a failure rate of 1 per 2,000, making it more effective than female sterilisation. The procedure is simple and can be done under local anesthesia, with some cases requiring general anesthesia. After the procedure, patients can go home after a couple of hours. However, it is important to note that vasectomy does not work immediately.

      To ensure the success of the procedure, semen analysis needs to be performed twice following a vasectomy before a man can have unprotected sex. This is usually done at 12 weeks after the procedure. While vasectomy is generally safe, there are some complications that may arise, such as bruising, hematoma, infection, sperm granuloma, and chronic testicular pain. This pain affects between 5-30% of men.

      In the event that a man wishes to reverse the procedure, the success rate of vasectomy reversal is up to 55% if done within 10 years. However, the success rate drops to approximately 25% after more than 10 years. Overall, vasectomy is a simple and effective method of male sterilisation, but it is important to consider the potential complications and the need for semen analysis before engaging in unprotected sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      31.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man is experiencing chest pain and shortness of breath three weeks after a myocardial infarction that was treated with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) for a proximal left anterior descending artery occlusion. On examination, he has a loud friction rub over the praecordium, bilateral pleural effusions on chest x-ray, and ST elevation on ECG. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dressler's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dressler’s Syndrome

      Dressler’s syndrome is a type of pericarditis that typically develops between two to six weeks after a person has experienced an anterior myocardial infarction or undergone heart surgery. This condition is believed to be caused by an autoimmune response to myocardial antigens. In simpler terms, the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the heart tissue, leading to inflammation of the pericardium, which is the sac that surrounds the heart.

      The symptoms of Dressler’s syndrome can vary from person to person, but they often include chest pain, fever, fatigue, and shortness of breath. In some cases, patients may also experience a cough, abdominal pain, or joint pain. Treatment for this condition typically involves the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) to reduce inflammation and manage pain. In severe cases, corticosteroids may be prescribed to help suppress the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A plasma donor on a continuous flow separator machine experiences light headedness, muscle cramps, and circumoral paraesthesia. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Investigate for any evidence of haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Investigate and treat citrate toxicity

      Explanation:

      Citrate Toxicity and Hypocalcaemia in Apheresis Patients

      This patient is experiencing symptoms of citrate toxicity, which has led to hypocalcaemia. While it is possible for haemorrhage to occur at the site of venepuncture or venous access, this is typically easy to identify through clinical examination. Sepsis is an uncommon occurrence if proper aseptic precautions have been taken, and the symptoms described here are not indicative of an infection. Immediate treatment is necessary, and this can be achieved by slowing or stopping the apheresis process. Treatment options include the administration of oral or intravenous calcium replacement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      26.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A woman with known angina currently managed on glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray presents...

    Incorrect

    • A woman with known angina currently managed on glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray presents to Accident and Emergency with crushing central chest pain. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals ST depression and flat T waves. She is managed as acute coronary syndrome without ST elevation.
      Which one of the following options is most likely to be used in her immediate management?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin

      Correct Answer: Fondaparinux

      Explanation:

      Medications for Acute Coronary Syndrome: Indications and Uses

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a medical emergency that requires prompt and appropriate treatment to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. The management of ACS involves a combination of medications and interventions, depending on the type and severity of the condition. Here are some commonly used medications for ACS and their indications:

      1. Fondaparinux: This medication is a factor Xa inhibitor that is used for anticoagulation in ACS without ST-segment elevation. It is usually given along with other drugs such as aspirin, clopidogrel, and nitrates to prevent blood clots and reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events.

      2. Warfarin: This medication is used for the treatment and prevention of venous thrombosis and thromboembolism. It is not indicated for the immediate management of ACS.

      3. Furosemide: This medication is a diuretic that is used to treat pulmonary edema in patients with heart failure. It is not indicated for ACS as it may cause dehydration.

      4. Paracetamol: This medication is not effective as an analgesic option for ACS. Morphine is commonly used for pain relief in ACS.

      5. Simvastatin: This medication is a statin that is used for the long-term management of high cholesterol levels. It is not indicated for the initial management of ACS.

      In summary, the management of ACS involves a combination of medications and interventions that are tailored to the individual patient’s needs. Prompt and appropriate treatment can help improve outcomes and reduce the risk of future cardiovascular events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a persistent headache that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a persistent headache that has been bothering her for two weeks. The pain is more intense on the right side and is aggravated when she combs her hair. She also experiences discomfort in her jaw when eating. Her neurological and fundoscopy examinations reveal no abnormalities, and she is referred to the emergency department.

      Upon admission, the patient is prescribed high-dose oral prednisolone and undergoes a temporal artery biopsy, which yields normal results. What is the next most appropriate course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Switch her to a lower dose of oral prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Continue high-dose prednisolone and repeat biopsy

      Explanation:

      Performing an emergency computed tomography (CT) of the brain is not necessary for this patient. Emergency CT head scans are typically reserved for cases of head injury with symptoms such as reduced GCS, repeated vomiting, skull base fracture signs, post-traumatic seizures, or focal neurological deficits. Elderly patients may require a CT scan if they have experienced a fall with head injury or confusion.

      Stopping high-dose prednisolone and referring the patient to a neurology clinic is not recommended. With a high suspicion of GCA, it is crucial to continue corticosteroid treatment to prevent inflammation from spreading to the eye. Any vision changes caused by GCA are typically irreversible, making it an acute problem that cannot wait for a referral to a neurology clinic.

      Switching the patient to a lower dose of oral prednisolone is not advised. There is no evidence to suggest that reducing the dose of prednisolone is beneficial for GCA if the biopsy is negative. It is important to remember that a negative biopsy result may be due to skip lesions and not because the diagnosis is less likely.

      Temporal arthritis, also known as giant cell arthritis, is a condition that affects medium and large-sized arteries and is of unknown cause. It typically occurs in individuals over the age of 50, with the highest incidence in those in their 70s. Early recognition and treatment are crucial to minimize the risk of complications, such as permanent loss of vision. Therefore, when temporal arthritis is suspected, urgent referral for assessment by a specialist and prompt treatment with high-dose prednisolone is necessary.

      Temporal arthritis often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica, with around 50% of patients exhibiting features of both conditions. Symptoms of temporal arthritis include headache, jaw claudication, and tender, palpable temporal artery. Vision testing is a key investigation in all patients, as anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is the most common ocular complication. This results from occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Fundoscopy typically shows a swollen pale disc and blurred margins. Other symptoms may include aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      Investigations for temporal arthritis include raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr and elevated CRP. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed, and skip lesions may be present. Treatment for temporal arthritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is used. If there is evolving visual loss, IV methylprednisolone is usually given prior to starting high-dose prednisolone. Urgent ophthalmology review is necessary, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      84.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly check-up with his GP. He...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man comes in for his yearly check-up with his GP. He has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. Upon physical examination, there are no notable findings and no signs of fluid overload. His blood pressure is 126/84 mmHg, and his heart rate is 67 bpm. A urine dipstick test shows only 1+ protein.

      The results of his routine blood panel are as follows:
      - Haemoglobin: 139 g/L (125-175)
      - White cell count: 5.7 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Mean cell volume: 82 fL (75-100)
      - Platelets: 359 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Sodium: 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      - Potassium: 4.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      - Urea: 8.9 mmol/L (2-7)
      - Creatinine: 169 μmol/ (75-110)
      - Glucose: 6.7 mmol/L (4-7)
      - HbA1c: 48 mmol/mol (42-53)
      - eGFR: 29 ml/min (>60)
      - Lactate: 2.4 mmol/L (0.5-2)
      - Venous pH: 7.35 (7.35-7.45)

      Currently, the patient is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, bisoprolol 5 mg daily, gliclazide 80 mg twice daily, metformin 1 g twice daily, and ramipril 2.5 mg daily. Based on this information, which medication should be discontinued?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medications and Renal Impairment

      Metformin is a commonly used oral antidiabetic drug that inhibits hepatic gluconeogenesis, making it a first-line agent in the treatment of type 2 diabetes. However, it should be closely monitored in patients with impaired renal function due to the risk of developing lactate acidosis. Current guidelines recommend avoiding metformin in renal impairment if possible, reducing the dose if eGFR is less than 45 ml/min, and discontinuing it if less than 30 ml/min. Gliclazide, another antidiabetic drug, stimulates insulin release and is mostly cleared by the liver, but should be avoided in severe renal impairment and monitored in mild to moderate cases. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor used in hypertension and heart failure, is beneficial in delaying diabetic nephropathy but may require dose adjustments in established renal impairment. Aspirin, commonly used in cardiovascular pathologies, should be avoided in severe renal failure but can be continued in moderate impairment. Bisoprolol, a cardio-specific beta-blocker, is safe to continue in renal impairment, with dose adjustments only needed when eGFR is less than 20 ml/min.

      Overall, it is important to closely monitor medication use in patients with renal impairment and adjust doses or discontinue use as necessary to prevent adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      104.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - As an FY1 on medical ward cover, you have been tasked with cannulating...

    Incorrect

    • As an FY1 on medical ward cover, you have been tasked with cannulating a 72-year-old female with type-1 diabetes. She is currently being treated for pneumonia, has a right below the knee amputation, and suffers from diabetic neuropathy. What would be the appropriate course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: A cannula should only stay in for 24 hours in a known diabetic

      Correct Answer: You should avoid cannulating his foot

      Explanation:

      It is advisable to avoid cannulating the feet of a patient with a known history of diabetes. In this case, the patient has poorly controlled diabetes, diabetic retinopathy, and likely peripheral neuropathy, which has led to amputation. Cannulating the foot could easily result in a diabetic ulcer due to the neuropathy. However, there is no reason why the hand cannot be used for cannulation. While diabetics are more susceptible to infections, there are no guidelines stating that a cannula can only remain in place for 24 hours. It can stay in for up to 3 days, as in most other patients. Administering a shot of antibiotics prior to cannulation is unnecessary and potentially dangerous. A sterile, non-touch technique should be used to minimize the risk of infection, as in any other patient. While cannulation can be stressful for some patients, administering insulin would be inappropriate and hazardous. It is always important to check the patient’s blood glucose levels before administering insulin.

      Intravenous Cannula: Colour, Size, and Maximal Flow Rates

      Intravenous cannulas are medical devices used to administer fluids, medications, and blood products directly into a patient’s bloodstream. These cannulas come in different sizes and colours, each with a specific maximal flow rate. The colour and size of the cannula determine the amount of fluid that can be administered per minute.

      The orange cannula, which has a size of 14g, has the highest maximal flow rate of 270 ml/min. The grey cannula, which has a size of 16g, has a maximal flow rate of 180 ml/min. The green cannula, which has a size of 18g, has a maximal flow rate of 80 ml/min. The pink cannula, which has a size of 20g, has a maximal flow rate of 54 ml/min. Lastly, the blue cannula, which has a size of 22g, has a maximal flow rate of 33 ml/min.

      It is important to choose the appropriate cannula size and colour based on the patient’s needs and the type of fluid or medication being administered. Using the wrong cannula size or colour can result in complications such as infiltration, phlebitis, and extravasation. Therefore, healthcare professionals must be knowledgeable about the different types of cannulas and their maximal flow rates to ensure safe and effective patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with palpitations. Her ECG reveals first-degree heart block, tall P-waves, and flattened T-waves. Upon arterial blood gas analysis, her results are as follows: pH 7.55 (normal range 7.35-7.45), HCO3- 30 mmol/L (normal range 22-26 mmol/L), pCO2 5.8kPa (normal range 4.5-6kPa), p02 11kPa (normal range 10-14kPa), and Chloride 85mmol/L (normal range 95-108mmol/L). What is the underlying cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The palpitations experienced by this patient are likely due to hypokalaemia, as indicated by their ECG. The ABG results reveal a metabolic alkalosis, with low chloride levels suggesting that the cause is likely due to prolonged vomiting resulting in the loss of hydrochloric acid from the stomach. This could also explain the hypokalaemia observed on the ECG. The absence of acute nausea and vomiting suggests that this may be a chronic issue, possibly indicating bulimia nervosa as the underlying condition, unless there is a previous medical history that could account for persistent vomiting.

      Bulimia Nervosa: An Eating Disorder Characterized by Binge Eating and Purging

      Bulimia nervosa is a type of eating disorder that involves recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors such as self-induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives or diuretics, fasting, or excessive exercise. The DSM 5 diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa include recurrent episodes of binge eating, a sense of lack of control over eating during the episode, and recurrent inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain. These behaviors occur at least once a week for three months and are accompanied by an undue influence of body shape and weight on self-evaluation.

      Management of bulimia nervosa involves referral for specialist care and the use of bulimia-nervosa-focused guided self-help or individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT-ED). Children should be offered bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN). While pharmacological treatments have a limited role, a trial of high-dose fluoxetine is currently licensed for bulimia. It is important to seek appropriate care for bulimia nervosa to prevent the physical and psychological consequences of this eating disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old recently arrived female with several skin blisters comes in for assessment....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old recently arrived female with several skin blisters comes in for assessment. A few of the blisters have burst, resulting in a sore, exposed region. The base of one of the erosive lesions is scraped for Tzanck test. Upon examination, acantholytic keratinocytes with significant hyperchromatic nuclei are detected under the microscope.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bullous pemphigoid

      Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Skin Conditions on Tzanck Smear: Pemphigus Vulgaris, Cytomegalovirus, Herpes Simplex, Chickenpox, and Bullous Pemphigoid

      When examining a patient’s bullous skin lesions on a Tzanck smear, it is important to distinguish between various skin conditions. In the case of acantholytic keratinocytes, the most likely diagnosis is pemphigus vulgaris. This autoimmune disorder is caused by an antibody against intraepithelial desmosomal junctions, resulting in the separation of keratinocytes and the formation of intraepithelial blisters.

      Cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, and chickenpox can also present with multinucleated giant cells on a Tzanck smear. However, these conditions are caused by viral infections rather than autoimmune disorders.

      Bullous pemphigoid, on the other hand, is caused by an antibody against the dermal-epidermal junction. The associated blisters are sub-epidermal in location and do not contain acantholytic keratinocytes.

      In summary, a Tzanck smear can provide valuable information in diagnosing various skin conditions, including pemphigus vulgaris, cytomegalovirus, herpes simplex, chickenpox, and bullous pemphigoid. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old man is referred to an otolaryngologist with vertigo and hearing loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is referred to an otolaryngologist with vertigo and hearing loss. A magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan of the cranial region reveals a tumour at the cerebellopontine angle. A working diagnosis of acoustic neuroma is made. In light of the progressive symptoms, the surgeon plans to remove the tumour.
      With regard to the vestibulocochlear nerve, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: The vestibulocochlear nerve provides the efferent nerve supply to the tensor tympani

      Correct Answer: Vestibular fibres pass to the vestibular nuclear complex, located in the floor of the fourth ventricle

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Vestibulocochlear Nerve

      The vestibulocochlear nerve, also known as the eighth cranial nerve, is responsible for carrying special sensory afferent fibers from the inner ear. It is composed of two portions: the vestibular nerve and the cochlear nerve. The vestibular fibers pass to the vestibular nuclear complex, located in the floor of the fourth ventricle, while the cochlear fibers pass to the cochlear nuclear complex, located across the junction between the pons and medulla.

      Acoustic neuromas, which are tumors that commonly arise from the vestibular portion of the nerve, are also known as vestibular schwannomas. The efferent nerve supply to the tensor tympani, a muscle in the middle ear, is provided by the mandibular branch of the fifth cranial nerve.

      The vestibulocochlear nerve enters the brainstem at the pontomedullary junction, lateral to the facial nerve. It then passes into the temporal bone via the internal auditory meatus, along with the facial nerve. It does not exit the cranium through the jugular foramen, which is where the ninth, tenth, and eleventh cranial nerves exit. Understanding the anatomy of the vestibulocochlear nerve is important in diagnosing and treating disorders related to hearing and balance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      55.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after having unprotected sex. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after having unprotected sex. She is seeking emergency contraception as she forgot to take her progesterone-only pill for a few days before the encounter. The doctor advises her to book an appointment at the nearby sexual health clinic for proper screening. After counseling, the doctor prescribes levonorgestrel to the woman. What is the waiting period before she can resume taking her POP?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: She doesn't - can start immediately

      Explanation:

      Women can begin using hormonal contraception right away after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. However, if ulipristal acetate was used instead, it is recommended to wait for 5 days or use barrier methods before resuming hormonal contraception.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      31.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old male patient presents with dyspepsia of 4 weeks’ duration. Other than...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male patient presents with dyspepsia of 4 weeks’ duration. Other than a 15-pack year history of smoking, he has no other medical history and reports no prescribed or over-the-counter medications. Endoscopy reveals features of gastritis and a solitary gastric ulcer in the pyloric antrum. A rapid urease test turned red, revealing a positive result.
      What would be a suitable treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Helicobacter pylori Infection

      Helicobacter pylori is a Gram-negative bacillus that causes chronic gastritis and can lead to ulceration if left untreated. Diagnosis of H. pylori infection can be done through a rapid urease test, which detects the presence of the enzyme urease produced by the bacterium. Treatment for H. pylori infection involves a 7-day course of two antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). Fluconazole, prednisolone and azathioprine, and quinine and clindamycin are not appropriate treatments for H. pylori infection. Combination drug therapy is common to reduce the risk of resistance in chronic infections. Repeat testing should be done after treatment to ensure clearance of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 19-year-old female patient visits her doctor urgently seeking emergency contraception after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female patient visits her doctor urgently seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 80 hours ago. She is currently on day 20 of her menstrual cycle. The doctor discovers that the patient was previously prescribed ellaOne (ulipristal acetate) for a similar situation just 10 days ago. What would be an appropriate emergency contraception method for this patient?

      Your Answer: Mirena (levonorgestrel) device

      Correct Answer: ellaOne (ulipristal acetate) pill

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What is a lower motor neurone lesion associated with? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a lower motor neurone lesion associated with?

      Your Answer: Exaggerated stretch reflex

      Correct Answer: Flaccid paralysis

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Lower Motor Neurone Lesions

      Lower motor neurone lesions are characterized by flaccid paralysis, downward plantar response, and fasciculations. These lesions result in the inability to elicit reflex contractions and slow muscle atrophy. In contrast, upper motor neurone lesions are associated with a positive Babinski sign.

      Flaccid paralysis is a key feature of lower motor neurone lesions, which refers to the loss of muscle tone and strength. Downward plantar response is another characteristic, where the toes point downwards instead of upwards when the sole of the foot is stimulated. Fasciculations, or involuntary muscle twitches, are also commonly observed in lower motor neurone lesions.

      Furthermore, reflex contractions cannot be elicited in lower motor neurone lesions, leading to muscle atrophy over time. This is in contrast to upper motor neurone lesions, where a positive Babinski sign is observed. A positive Babinski sign refers to the extension of the big toe and fanning of the other toes when the sole of the foot is stimulated, indicating an upper motor neurone lesion.

      In summary, lower motor neurone lesions are characterized by flaccid paralysis, downward plantar response, and fasciculations, while upper motor neurone lesions are associated with a positive Babinski sign.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient is brought to see you by his daughter. She is very...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is brought to see you by his daughter. She is very concerned about him, saying that over the last few weeks, he has been hiding himself in their bedroom, heard to be talking to himself and accusing her of stealing his secret work and selling it to the government.
      You conduct a mental state examination and elicit the following symptoms.
      Which of these symptoms is a negative symptom?

      Your Answer: Thought echo

      Correct Answer: Blunted affect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Symptoms of Schizophrenia

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. It is characterized by a range of symptoms, including positive and negative symptoms. Positive symptoms are those that reflect an increase or excess of the sufferer’s normal function, while negative symptoms are those that reflect a decrease or loss of normal function.

      Blunted affect, social withdrawal, apathy, and anhedonia are examples of negative symptoms. These symptoms can be very prominent and are often associated with a less favorable prognosis. On the other hand, auditory hallucinations, delusions of grandeur, and thought echo are examples of positive symptoms.

      Delusions of passivity, which imply that a person feels their actions, feelings, or impulses are being controlled by an external force, are not negative symptoms. It is important to understand the different symptoms of schizophrenia to properly diagnose and treat the disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      51.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old patient visits his primary care physician complaining of a recent exacerbation...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient visits his primary care physician complaining of a recent exacerbation of his chronic cough. He reports experiencing similar episodes in the past, during which his typically yellow sputum becomes thicker and slightly tinged with blood. The patient has a history of hypertension and bronchiectasis, and has received multiple courses of antibiotics for these exacerbations. Upon examination, the patient appears relatively healthy but continues to cough. Crackles are heard upon chest auscultation. Given the patient's medical history and likely diagnosis, the physician decides to obtain a sputum sample. What organism is most likely to be observed upon culturing?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The most common organism associated with bronchiectasis is Haemophilus influenzae, making it the correct answer for an acute exacerbation of this condition. While Klebsiella pneumonia is also a possibility, it is less frequently seen and typically associated with pneumonia in patients with alcohol dependence. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is an incorrect answer, as it is more commonly found in patients with cystic fibrosis than bronchiectasis. Staphylococcus aureus is also less commonly isolated in bronchiectasis, and is more commonly associated with other infective conditions such as infective endocarditis and skin infections, as well as being a secondary bacterial cause of pneumonia following influenzae.

      Managing Bronchiectasis

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency. The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease. The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

      Spacing:

      Bronchiectasis is a condition where the airways become permanently dilated due to chronic inflammation or infection. Before starting treatment, it is important to identify any underlying causes that can be treated, such as immune deficiency.

      The management of bronchiectasis includes physical training, such as inspiratory muscle training, which has been shown to be effective for patients without cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage, antibiotics for exacerbations, and long-term rotating antibiotics for severe cases are also recommended. Bronchodilators may be used in selected cases, and immunizations are important to prevent infections. Surgery may be considered for localized disease.

      The most common organisms isolated from patients with bronchiectasis include Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella spp., and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      52.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the primary mode of action of valsartan? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mode of action of valsartan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin-II type 1 receptor antagonism

      Explanation:

      Valsartan and its Mechanism of Action

      Valsartan is a medication that works by blocking the angiotensin-II type 1 (AT1) receptor, which is responsible for regulating blood pressure. This medication has a much greater affinity for the AT1 receptor than the AT2 receptor, making it a potent antagonist of the AT1 receptor. By blocking this receptor, valsartan prevents the increase in angiotensin II levels that can lead to increased stimulation of the AT2 receptor. Unlike ACE inhibitors, valsartan does not reduce angiotensin II production or affect substance P or bradykinin, resulting in a significantly lower incidence of cough. Valsartan is primarily excreted through the biliary tract in feces, with only about 13% being recovered in the urine. Its half-life is approximately six hours, and no dose adjustment is required for patients with a creatinine clearance of 10 ml/min or more.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman (38+2, G1 P0) presents to the labour ward with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman (38+2, G1 P0) presents to the labour ward with vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. She reports a small amount of vaginal bleeding and has no significant medical history. However, she is a smoker and consumes 10 cigarettes per day. On examination, her abdomen is tender and tense, and cardiotocography reveals late decelerations. Her vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate 22 breaths/min, oxygen saturation 98%, heart rate 125 beats/min, blood pressure 89/56 mmHg, and temperature 35.9 ºC. What is the initial management for the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Category 1 caesarean section

      Explanation:

      A category 1 caesarean section is necessary in cases of suspected uterine rupture, major placental abruption, cord prolapse, fetal hypoxia, or persistent fetal bradycardia. In this scenario, the most likely diagnosis is a major placental abruption due to intense abdominal pain and haemodynamic shock. Guidelines recommend a category 1 caesarean section if the foetus is alive and >36 weeks with foetal distress, as indicated by late decelerations on cardiotocography. This is because the presentation of placental abruption, haemodynamic shock, and late decelerations poses an immediate threat to the lives of both the mother and baby. Administering corticosteroids and observation is not applicable in this scenario, as the foetus is >36 weeks and foetal distress is present. Category 2 and 4 caesarean sections are also inappropriate, as they are not immediately life-threatening and are elective, respectively.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 16-year-old girl with short stature visits her GP due to delayed onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl with short stature visits her GP due to delayed onset of menstruation. During the physical examination, the GP observes a broad neck and detects a systolic murmur in the chest. What condition is most likely causing these symptoms, and with which of the following options is it associated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      Aortic coarctation, a congenital cardiac abnormality characterized by the narrowing of a section of the aorta, is commonly associated with Turner’s syndrome. This condition results in an increase in afterload, which can be detected as a systolic murmur. The patient’s amenorrhea further supports a diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome over other possibilities. Mitral regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and mitral valve prolapse are unlikely to be associated with Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Turner’s Syndrome

      Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.

      The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.

      In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old male complains of weakness in his right hand. He was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male complains of weakness in his right hand. He was diagnosed with type 1 diabetes 5 years ago and has been in good health otherwise. He has noticed over the past week that he is unable to raise his right hand at the wrist without any pain. Upon examination, a right-sided wrist drop is observed. Which nerve is being affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and Their Effects

      Wrist drop is a condition that occurs when the radial nerve is injured, resulting in the inability to extend the wrist. In addition to this, there is also a loss of sensation over the dorsum of the hand. Another nerve injury that affects the shoulder muscles is axillary nerve palsy. This condition can cause weakness in the shoulder and difficulty lifting the arm.

      Long thoracic nerve injury is another common nerve injury that causes winging of the scapula. This condition occurs when the nerve that controls the muscles of the scapula is damaged, resulting in the shoulder blade protruding from the back. Median nerve palsy affects the sensation to the lateral palmar three and a half fingers and involves the muscles of the thenar eminence. This condition can cause weakness in the hand and difficulty with fine motor skills.

      Finally, ulnar nerve palsy causes a claw hand, which is characterized by the inability to extend the fingers and a claw-like appearance of the hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old female has been discharged from hospital after being diagnosed with schizophrenia....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female has been discharged from hospital after being diagnosed with schizophrenia. She is now being seen in the GP clinic and is concerned about her prognosis. Prior to her illness, she was a high-functioning accountant. Her symptoms began gradually and mainly involved auditory hallucinations and persecutory delusions, which are currently under control. What factor in her case suggests a poor prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gradual onset of symptoms

      Explanation:

      The gradual onset of schizophrenia is associated with a worse long-term outcome, making it a poor prognostic indicator for this patient. However, her gender (being female) and good pre-illness functioning are both positive prognostic indicators. Additionally, her predominant positive symptoms (auditory hallucinations and delusions) suggest a better prognosis compared to predominant negative symptoms. Lastly, being diagnosed at a younger age (such as in her teens) would have resulted in a poorer prognosis.

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of vomiting and dehydration. He reports a two-month history of weight loss and excessive thirst. Upon examination, the patient is diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis, with a blood glucose level of 29.3 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), a pH of 7.12 (7.36-7.44) on blood gas analysis, and +++ ketones in the urine. What is the percentage of individuals with type 1 diabetes who are initially diagnosed after presenting with diabetic ketoacidosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      Diabetic Ketoacidosis: A Dangerous Complication of Type 1 Diabetes

      Approximately one quarter of patients with type 1 diabetes will experience their first symptoms in the form of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). However, it is important to note that these individuals may have previously ignored symptoms such as thirst, frequent urination, and weight loss. DKA is a serious and potentially life-threatening complication of diabetes that is characterized by high blood sugar levels, lactic acidosis, vomiting, and dehydration. It is crucial for individuals with type 1 diabetes to be aware of the signs and symptoms of DKA and seek medical attention immediately if they suspect they may be experiencing this condition. Proper management and treatment of DKA can help prevent serious complications and improve overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A patient who is known to be a cocaine user is discovered collapsed...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who is known to be a cocaine user is discovered collapsed in the waiting area. He is blue around the lips, has a pulse of 60 / min, and is taking only occasional breaths. Oxygen is administered. What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous naloxone

      Explanation:

      The cause of the patient’s respiratory depression is a heroin overdose.

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including both natural and synthetic opioids. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning. Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C can also be helpful.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgery (1/4) 25%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/2) 50%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
ENT (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Medicine (0/1) 0%
Passmed