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  • Question 1 - A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with chronic kidney disease stage 3 is prescribed lisinopril. After two weeks, blood tests are conducted and no other medication changes have been made. The patient is examined and found to be adequately hydrated. As per NICE guidelines, what is the maximum acceptable rise in creatinine levels after initiating an ACE inhibitor?

      Your Answer: No increase

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) patients often require more than two drugs to manage hypertension. The first-line treatment is ACE inhibitors, which are especially effective in proteinuric renal disease like diabetic nephropathy. However, these drugs can reduce filtration pressure, leading to a slight decrease in glomerular filtration pressure (GFR) and an increase in creatinine. NICE guidelines state that a decrease in eGFR of up to 25% or a rise in creatinine of up to 30% is acceptable, but any increase should prompt careful monitoring and exclusion of other causes. If the rise is greater than this, it may indicate underlying renovascular disease.

      Furosemide is a useful Antihypertensive drug for CKD patients, particularly when the GFR falls below 45 ml/min*. It also helps to lower serum potassium levels. However, high doses are usually required, and if the patient is at risk of dehydration (e.g. due to gastroenteritis), the drug should be temporarily stopped. The NKF K/DOQI guidelines suggest a lower cut-off of less than 30 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      14.2
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  • Question 2 - A research facility is attempting to create a new test to screen for...

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    • A research facility is attempting to create a new test to screen for prostate cancer compared to current methods which include a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test. From initial findings, the new screening test seems to be more effective at detecting early-stage cancers. However, when comparing both tests, there doesn't seem to be a noticeable difference in survival rates.

      What is this an instance of?

      Your Answer: Late-look bias

      Correct Answer: Lead-time bias

      Explanation:

      Lead-time bias is when a comparison is made between two tests for a disease, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no impact on the disease’s outcome. This can result in the survival times appearing more favorable for the new test.

      Late-look bias is a type of selection bias that occurs when information is collected at an inappropriate time. For instance, studying a fatal disease many years after patients have passed away.

      Publication bias happens when negative or uninteresting results from valid studies are not published.

      Recall bias is particularly relevant for case-control studies, where there is a difference in the accuracy of the memories retrieved by participants.

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A male patient is prescribed oral testosterone replacement therapy. A Mirena® IUS has...

    Incorrect

    • A male patient is prescribed oral testosterone replacement therapy. A Mirena® IUS has been fitted and will be used for protection against endometrial hyperplasia.

      For what length of time is the Mirena® licensed for use as protection against endometrial hyperplasia?

      Your Answer: 5 years

      Correct Answer: 4 years

      Explanation:

      Mirena® License for Contraception and Endometrial Hyperplasia Protection

      At the moment, question stats are not available, but it is likely that many people will choose 5 years as the answer for Mirena®’s duration of use for contraception. However, it is important to note that while Mirena® is licensed for up to 5 years for contraception and idiopathic menorrhagia, it is only licensed for 4 years for protection against endometrial hyperplasia during oestrogen replacement therapy. This means that individuals using Mirena® for this purpose should have it replaced after 4 years to ensure continued protection. It is crucial to follow the recommended duration of use for Mirena® to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
      22.8
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  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old patient who has just enrolled in college comes in for a...

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    • A 20-year-old patient who has just enrolled in college comes in for a meningitis ACWY vaccine. While waiting, he notices a poster about Chlamydia screening and inquires about getting tested despite not experiencing any symptoms.

      What type of sample needs to be collected for the test?

      Your Answer: Blood for serology

      Correct Answer: Urine

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate screening test for asymptomatic males to detect chlamydia is a urine test. This is preferred over blood serology, urethral swab, or semen sample as it is less invasive and has similar sensitivity to urethral swab. It is important to note that Chlamydia infection can often be asymptomatic, so screening is still recommended even in the absence of symptoms.

      Chlamydia is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the UK caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is often asymptomatic but can cause cervicitis and dysuria in women and urethral discharge and dysuria in men. Complications include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility. Testing is done through nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) on urine or swab samples. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years. Doxycycline is the first-line treatment, but azithromycin may be used if contraindicated. Partners should be notified and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old female comes to ask you about cervical screening.

    She recently received...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female comes to ask you about cervical screening.

      She recently received a letter inviting her to make an appointment at the surgery for a cervical smear. She tells you that she is in a relationship with another woman and has never had sexual intercourse with a man. Her partner had told her that as this was the case she doesn't need to have a smear.

      Which of the following patient groups are not eligible for routine cervical screening as part of the national cervical screening programme?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Women over the age of 65

      Explanation:

      Cervical Screening in the UK

      Cervical screening is recommended for all women in England aged 25-64, and from 20 onwards in Wales and Scotland. This screening is important because certain human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes underlie the development of almost all cases of cervical cancer. HPV is transmitted during sexual intercourse and intimate sexual contact, and even homosexual women can still pass the virus on to female partners.

      Women who have been vaccinated as part of the national HPV programme will be protected against the main two HPV subtypes that cause the majority of cervical cancers, but there are other less common subtypes that can lead to cervical cancer that they are not vaccinated against. Women with a previously abnormal smear require follow up either with further smears or referral for colposcopy/treatment depending on the exact abnormalities detected.

      Women who have never been sexually active would be very low risk so following discussion with their GP often may decide not to participate in cervical screening. However, they are eligible to be screened routinely and would be offered screening. The only group above who are not eligible for routine cervical screening are women over the age of 65. Routine screening runs up to the age of 64. However, if a woman has abnormalities that require further follow up smears then this would of course be done beyond the age of 65 if clinically indicated.

      In summary, cervical screening is an important part of women’s health in the UK, and all women should consider participating in routine screening to help prevent cervical cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 6 - During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old...

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    • During an out of hours shift, you are called to see an 80-year-old man who has developed acute urinary retention on a background of 2 years of urinary hesitancy and poor stream. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, hypertension and he tells you that his usual GP has recently started him on a new medication for neuropathic pain.

      Which of the following drugs is most likely to have caused the urinary retention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Urinary retention may be caused by tricyclic antidepressants, particularly Amitriptyline, due to its anticholinergic effects. This can result in symptoms such as tachycardia, dry mouth, mydriasis, and urinary retention. However, SSRIs like fluoxetine and SNRIs like venlafaxine are not typically associated with these side effects, with dry mouth and urinary retention being rare occurrences. Unlike Amitriptyline, Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, doesn’t have anticholinergic effects.

      Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not commonly used for depression anymore due to their side-effects and potential for toxicity in overdose. However, they are still widely used for the treatment of neuropathic pain, where smaller doses are typically required. The common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention, and lengthening of QT interval. When choosing a TCA, low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for the management of neuropathic pain and the prevention of headaches. Lofepramine is preferred due to its lower incidence of toxicity in overdose, while amitriptyline and dosulepin are considered the most dangerous in overdose. The sedative effects of TCAs vary, with amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, and trazodone being more sedative, while imipramine and nortriptyline are less sedative. Trazodone is technically a ‘tricyclic-related antidepressant’.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 7 - John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 50-year-old man who has Crohn's disease and you have arranged for a routine DEXA scan. The DEXA results are as follows:

      Spine (L2-4) T: -2.6 Z: -1.7
      Left femur T: -1.5 Z: -0.9
      Right femur T: -2.3 Z: -1.5

      What is your interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      The results of the DEXA scan show that the spine has osteoporosis with a T-score below -2.5, while the left and right femur have osteopenia with T-scores between -1 and -2.5. It is important to note that osteoporosis is diagnosed when the T-score is below -2.5, while osteopenia is diagnosed when the T-score is between -1 and -2.5. The z score takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, but the T score is used to determine the presence of osteoporosis and osteopenia.

      Understanding DEXA Scan Results for Osteoporosis

      When it comes to diagnosing osteoporosis, a DEXA scan is often used to measure bone density. The results of this scan are given in the form of a T score, which compares the patient’s bone mass to that of a young reference population. A T score of -1.0 or higher is considered normal, while a score between -1.0 and -2.5 indicates osteopaenia, or low bone mass. A T score below -2.5 is classified as osteoporosis, which means the patient has a significantly increased risk of fractures. It’s important to note that the Z score, which takes into account age, gender, and ethnicity, can also be used to interpret DEXA scan results. By understanding these scores, patients can work with their healthcare providers to develop a plan for managing and treating osteoporosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 8 - Nine therapists gather to discuss challenging clients in a casual setting. Each takes...

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    • Nine therapists gather to discuss challenging clients in a casual setting. Each takes a turn to share their difficulties in working with the client. Afterwards, the group engages in a discussion about various aspects of the therapist-client relationship.

      Which one of the following does this best describe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Balint group

      Explanation:

      Balint Groups: A Patient-Centred Approach to Healthcare

      Michael Balint, a Hungarian psychoanalyst and psychiatrist, played a significant role in shaping modern views on patient-centred healthcare. He believed that many presenting complaints had underlying psychological and emotional problems that needed to be explored to understand patients better. Balint coined the phrase ‘the doctor as a drug’, emphasizing the importance of the doctor-patient relationship in the healing process.

      During the 1950s, Balint established small groups called ‘Balint Groups’ that allowed GPs to discuss their patients on an informal basis. These groups were similar to discussions held amongst GP Registrars during their half-day release. Balint’s ideas were published in the book ‘The doctor, his patient and the illness’.

      Balint Groups provide a safe space for GPs to discuss their patients’ emotional and psychological needs, which can often be overlooked in a busy clinical setting. By exploring these areas, GPs can gain a deeper understanding of their patients and provide more effective care. Balint’s patient-centred approach to healthcare has had a significant impact on modern medicine and continues to be used today.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 9 - You are called to do a house visit for an elderly gentleman with...

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    • You are called to do a house visit for an elderly gentleman with an advanced brain tumour. You review his notes and see that he received radiotherapy and chemotherapy but these failed to have a significant impact. He is being treated palliatively.

      He complains of persistent nausea and has vomited on a couple of occasions over the last few days. He also complains of bouts of vertigo.

      Which of the following antiemetics is most appropriate to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levomepromazine

      Explanation:

      Antiemetics in Palliative Care

      A variety of antiemetics are used in palliative care to treat nausea and vomiting. However, the underlying cause of the symptoms should be identified to guide which particular treatment is most appropriate. For instance, a patient with cerebral disease and co-existent vertigo may benefit from an antiemetic with antihistamine properties such as cyclizine, which has actions against vertigo, motion sickness, and labyrinthine disorders.

      Nausea and vomiting due to drugs or toxins and metabolic causes, such as hypercalcemia, may respond best to haloperidol. Levomepromazine is a broad-spectrum antiemetic usually used as a second-line agent when other first-line antiemetics have not been effective. Metoclopramide is a prokinetic and can be useful in treating symptoms due to gastric stasis. Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 antagonist and acts at the chemoreceptor trigger zone in the brain. It is used as a treatment for emetogenic chemotherapy.

      In summary, the appropriate antiemetic for a patient in palliative care depends on the underlying cause of their nausea and vomiting. Healthcare professionals should consider the patient’s individual needs and medical history when selecting an antiemetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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  • Question 10 - You are conducting the annual review for a 65-year-old man with type 2...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting the annual review for a 65-year-old man with type 2 diabetes. His glycaemic control is satisfactory with metformin therapy, and his latest HbA1c is 54 mmol/mol (7.1%). During his recent clinic visit, his blood pressure was measured at 152/90 mmHg. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor was subsequently requested, and the results indicate an average blood pressure of 142/88 mmHg. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start an ACE inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients due to their renoprotective effect, even if the patient has stage 1 hypertension according to NICE guidelines. In contrast, for patients aged over 55 years without diabetes, a calcium channel blocker is the first-line treatment.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 11 - A 38-year-old female presents with a four month history of having problems sleeping...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female presents with a four month history of having problems sleeping at night.

      She has been woken on numerous occasions by her legs which are irritable and feel that they are being tugged. She needs to keep moving them. This urge lasts variable periods and she finds little relief from rubbing the legs. No abnormalities are noted on examination of her legs.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ropinirole

      Explanation:

      Restless Legs Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Restless Legs Syndrome (RLS) is a condition characterized by an uncomfortable sensation in the legs and a strong urge to move them. The exact cause of RLS is unknown, and there are no specific tests for diagnosis. However, the International Restless Legs Syndrome Study Group has established four basic criteria for diagnosing RLS, including a desire to move the limbs, symptoms that worsen during rest and improve with activity, motor restlessness, and nocturnal worsening of symptoms.

      Treatment for RLS depends on the severity of the condition. Ropinirole is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient, as it is the only agent among the options listed that is licensed for treating RLS. Pramipexole and rotigotine are also licensed for moderate to severe cases of RLS. If you are experiencing symptoms of RLS, it is important to speak with your healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for your individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old lady presents to you seeking advice on how to manage her...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady presents to you seeking advice on how to manage her possible menopause. Her periods have been light and infrequent for a few years and stopped about three months ago. She has no significant medical or surgical history. Her family history doesn't reveal any significant cardiovascular or thromboembolic disease, and she has never smoked. She has had two pregnancies, both resulting in healthy children. Currently, she feels well, and on further questioning, she reports experiencing mild flashes that are not bothersome. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/80, and her BMI is 23. What advice should you give her regarding her possible menopause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She is probably post menopausal but she should continue to use contraception until 12 months have elapsed since her last period

      Explanation:

      Understanding Menopause and Hormone Replacement Therapy

      The menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is defined as the cessation of normal menstruation, which typically occurs around the age of 51 in the UK. However, the climacteric, a period of gradually declining ovarian function, can begin years before and last years after menopause itself. This perimenopausal period can be characterized by irregular periods and occasional menorrhagia.

      To be considered postmenopausal, a woman must have gone without menstruation for at least 12 months. However, it is important to note that a woman can still potentially become pregnant for up to two years after her last period if she is under 50, and one year if over 50. Therefore, contraception should be discussed with healthcare providers.

      While hormone replacement therapy (HRT) can be used to alleviate symptoms of hypo-oestrogenism, it is not always necessary or appropriate. Routine hormone testing is not recommended unless there is diagnostic doubt. Women who are considering HRT should discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider, as well as any pre-existing medical conditions that may affect their suitability for treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 13 - You receive blood test results for a patient who has been taking atorvastatin...

    Incorrect

    • You receive blood test results for a patient who has been taking atorvastatin 10 mg for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. The patient's lipid profile before starting the medication was as follows: cholesterol 6.2 mmol/L, triglycerides 1.8 mmol/L, HDL cholesterol 1.2 mmol/L, LDL cholesterol 4.5 mmol/L, non HDL cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L, and total cholesterol/HDL ratio 5.2 mmol/L. The liver profile was also normal. After three months of treatment, the lipid profile results are as follows: cholesterol 4.8 mmol/L, triglycerides 1.5 mmol/L, HDL cholesterol 1.5 mmol/L, LDL cholesterol 2.8 mmol/L, non HDL cholesterol 3.3 mmol/L, and total cholesterol/HDL ratio 3.2 mmol/L. What is your recommended course of action based on these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consider increasing the dose of atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      It is important to verify the patient’s adherence to the medication and ensure that they are taking it at the appropriate time (in the evening). Additionally, lifestyle advice should be revisited. Upon further examination of the case, it may be determined that a dose titration is not necessary, but it should be taken into consideration.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about her memory in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about her memory in the past six months. She reports increased forgetfulness and misplacing items. She has no medical history and takes no regular medications. Her MMSE score is 24/30. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cognitive impairment

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) and its Limitations

      The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is a widely used tool to assess cognitive functioning. It is scored out of 30, with scores of 25-30 considered normal. Mild cognitive impairment is classified as scores of 21-24, while moderate cognitive impairment is described as scores of 10-20. Severe impairment is indicated by a score of less than 10. However, it is important to note that the MMSE only assesses cognitive impairment and not cognitive decline, which requires a history. Additionally, the MMSE is sensitive to education, meaning that individuals with low intelligence or limited education may obtain lower scores without any associated decline in their cognitive abilities.

      While the MMSE has been used in many community studies of older people and has proved to be a valuable screening tool for moderate and severe dementia, it is insufficient to diagnose dementia and cannot differentiate between different types of dementia. It is also not used to test for anxiety or diagnose depression, although depression may be mistaken for cognitive impairment in older adults. Furthermore, while the MMSE can identify people who are likely to have dementia by applying a cut-point to their score, it is not a diagnostic test for any type of dementia and must be considered alongside a person’s clinical picture.

      In summary, the MMSE is a useful tool for assessing cognitive impairment, but it has its limitations and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old man who is a non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man who is a non-smoker complains of bone pain, constipation and malaise. His initial tests show an increased serum calcium level. There are no abnormalities found during physical examination.
      Which tumor marker test would be the most beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Their Uses in Cancer Diagnosis and Monitoring

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells that can be detected in the blood or other bodily fluids. While they are not always reliable for screening or diagnosis, they can be useful in monitoring the progression of cancer and evaluating the effectiveness of treatment. Here are some common tumor markers and their uses:

      Prostate-specific antigen (PSA): PSA can be used to screen for prostate cancer and detect recurrence of the malignancy. It is also useful in investigating adenocarcinoma of unknown primary.

      Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP): AFP, along with beta-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG), is important in evaluating and treating non-seminomatous germ-cell tumors and monitoring response to therapy. It can also be useful in evaluating potential origins of poorly differentiated metastatic cancer. AFP is a marker for hepatocellular carcinoma.

      Beta-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG): β-hCG, along with AFP, is important in evaluating and treating non-seminomatous germ-cell tumors and monitoring response to therapy. It can also be useful in evaluating potential origins of poorly differentiated metastatic cancer.

      CA 19-9: CA 19-9 may be helpful in establishing the nature of pancreatic masses.

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA): CEA is used to detect relapse of colorectal cancer.

      While tumor markers can provide valuable information in cancer diagnosis and monitoring, they should always be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical evaluation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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  • Question 16 - A family brings their 3-year-old child to the clinic, worried that he may...

    Incorrect

    • A family brings their 3-year-old child to the clinic, worried that he may have autism as they notice he is not progressing or engaging as much as their other children and his peers.

      Which of the following characteristics is indicative of an autism diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gaze avoidance

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autism

      Children with autism often exhibit certain behaviors that set them apart from their peers. They tend to avoid eye contact and struggle to form attachments with others outside of their immediate family. As toddlers, they may not point or respond normally to painful stimuli. Instead, they may show a strong attachment to certain objects or have an intense fear of everyday household tasks. For example, vacuuming may cause them to scream uncontrollably. These behaviors are all hallmarks of autism and can make it difficult for children to navigate the world around them. By understanding these behaviors, we can better support and care for children with autism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over the past two months. On examination, you palpate a diffuse midline swelling which moves with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. There are no other neck lumps or focal nodules, and the patient's voice is normal with no hoarseness. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy or stridor. The patient has no significant past medical history or family history.
      He reports feeling slightly more fatigued and has gained some weight over the past few months but otherwise feels well. He notes that the swelling in his neck has not changed in size since he first noticed it.
      Thyroid function tests reveal hypothyroidism. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Repeat the thyroid function test in four to six weeks

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Swelling: Recognizing and Referring Suspected Cancer

      Note that it is important to clarify descriptions and findings during a patient’s history and examination. For instance, a patient may describe a lump when it is actually a diffuse swelling. According to NICE guidelines, an unexplained thyroid lump warrants a suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. However, other factors to consider during the assessment include a solitary nodule increasing in size, a history of neck irradiation, family history of an endocrine tumor, unexplained hoarseness or voice changes, cervical lymphadenopathy, very young or elderly patients. Patients with symptoms of tracheal compression should be admitted immediately to the hospital.

      In cases where a thyroid swelling doesn’t meet any of the urgent or immediate referral criteria, a thyroid function blood test should be conducted. If the test reveals hypothyroidism, it may explain the patient’s weight gain and tiredness. Patients with abnormal thyroid function and a goitre are unlikely to have thyroid cancer and can be managed in primary care. Those with a goitre and normal thyroid function tests can be referred non-urgently to a thyroid surgeon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old healthy woman visits her General Practitioner to obtain a health insurance policy. She has no significant medical history, is a non-smoker, and drinks 3 units of alcohol weekly. During examination, a faint systolic murmur is detected. Her ECG shows a heart rate of 68 bpm and is normal. An echocardiogram reveals a bicuspid aortic valve.
      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for heart surgery at a later date

      Explanation:

      Bicuspid Aortic Valve: Risks and Recommendations

      Bicuspid aortic valve is a common congenital heart disease in adults, occurring in 1-2% of the population with a familial incidence of around 10%. While some patients may be asymptomatic, about 30% develop complications such as aortic stenosis or insufficiency, which may require surgery. Additionally, the aorta of patients with bicuspid aortic valve has reduced tensile strength, putting them at higher risk for aortic dissection and aneurysm formation in the ascending aorta.

      To manage the cardiovascular risk associated with this condition, low-dose aspirin and cholesterol-lowering drugs may be prescribed as appropriate. While there is evidence supporting a familial predisposition, screening for family members is not yet universally recommended. Finally, while infective endocarditis is a potential complication, antibiotic prophylaxis during dental procedures is no longer recommended.

      In summary, bicuspid aortic valve requires careful monitoring and management to prevent complications and ensure optimal cardiovascular health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for treatment of her asthma....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for treatment of her asthma. She is otherwise well and has no significant previous medical history. During the consultation, it transpires that her sister died of cystic fibrosis and she is worried about having a child affected with the same disease. Her chest X-ray is normal. Her partner has no family history of cystic fibrosis.
      Assuming a population carrier frequency of 1 in 25, what is the chance of this patient having an affected child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 150

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Probability of Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance

      Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition that affects many individuals worldwide. The probability of inheriting this condition can be calculated based on the carrier status of the parents. Here are some examples of how to calculate the chance of having an affected child with cystic fibrosis:

      1. 1 in 150: If one parent has a 2 in 3 chance of being a carrier and the other has a 1 in 25 chance, the overall chance of having an affected child is 1 in 150.

      2. 1 in 10: If one parent has an affected sibling but is not affected themselves (2 in 3 chance of being a carrier), and the other parent has an unknown carrier status, the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 10.

      3. 1 in 50: If one parent has a 2 in 3 chance of being a carrier and the other has a 1 in 25 chance, the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 4. Therefore, the overall chance is 2 in 3 x 1 in 25 x 1 in 4, which equals 1 in 50.

      4. 1 in 100: If both parents are carriers (2 in 3 chance for one and 1 in 25 chance for the other), the chance of having an affected child is 1 in 4. Therefore, the overall chance is 2 in 3 x 1 in 25 x 1 in 4, which equals 1 in 100.

      5. 1 in 200: The chance of being a carrier is not always 1 in 2, as it depends on the individual’s family history. If one parent has an affected relative but is not affected themselves (2 in 3 chance of being a carrier), the chance of having an affected child with a partner who has a 1 in 25 chance of being a carrier is 1 in 200.

      Understanding the probability of cystic fibrosis inheritance can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 20 - You are phoned for advice by the husband of a patient of yours....

    Incorrect

    • You are phoned for advice by the husband of a patient of yours. Your patient is a 65-year-old lady who has Addison's disease and she has fallen down stairs and is unable to get up.

      Her husband says that her left lower leg is swollen, bruised, and deformed. She is in pain and cannot get up. There was no loss of consciousness and there is no vomiting. He has phoned 999 for an ambulance, which is on its way, but in the meantime, he would like advice about her steroids.

      What would you advise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately

      Explanation:

      Sick Day Rules for Addison’s Disease

      The sick day rules for Addison’s disease are important to know and follow. In the case of a major injury, it is crucial to take 20 mg of Hydrocortisone immediately to prevent shock. If a patient has a fever of more than 37.5 C or an infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics, they should double their normal dose of hydrocortisone. For severe nausea with a headache, taking 20 mg of hydrocortisone orally and sipping rehydration/electrolyte fluids (e.g. Dioralyte) is recommended. In the event of vomiting, the emergency injection of 100 mg hydrocortisone should be used immediately, followed by calling a doctor and stating Addison’s emergency. It is also important to inform any medical professionals, such as anaesthetists, surgical teams, dentists, or endoscopists, of the need for extra oral medication and to check the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover. By following these guidelines, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition and prevent potentially life-threatening situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 21 - A 42-year-old patient with a strong family history of premature myocardial infarction presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old patient with a strong family history of premature myocardial infarction presents to his General Practitioner and is found to have familial hypercholesterolaemia. He is a non-smoker and is normotensive. He is given lifestyle and dietary advice and prescribed a high-intensity statin. His lipid results are reviewed after two months.
      Investigations before and after being on a maximum dose of the statin:
      Investigation Result Result after two months Normal value
      Cholesterol concentration 10.2mmol/l 6.8 mmol/l <5.1 mmol/l
      LDL-cholesterol 8.1 mmol/l 5.3 mmol/l <3.1 mmol/l
      HDL-cholesterol 1.2 mmol/l 1.3 mmol/l >1.1 mmol/l
      Fasting triglycerides 1.9 mmol/l 1.0 mmol/l <1.6 mmol/l
      Which of the following is the single most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adding ezetimibe to his medication

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia

      Primary hypercholesterolaemia requires appropriate treatment to reduce LDL-cholesterol levels. In this case, the patient’s LDL-cholesterol reduction is only 35%, which is below the recommended reduction of >40% with the statin alone. Therefore, adding ezetimibe, an inhibitor of cholesterol absorption from the gut, is the treatment of choice. This is the only further primary care intervention before specialist intervention is required.

      Treatment Options for Primary Hypercholesterolaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 22 - Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has...

    Incorrect

    • Evelyn, an 80-year-old woman visits the clinic for a medication review. She has a medical history of well-controlled osteoarthritis, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and chronic kidney disease (CKD). Currently, she takes Symbicort (budesonide with formoterol) 200/6, salbutamol, and uses senna and naproxen tablets as required.

      Her recent urine sample indicates an albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) of 87 mg/mmol, which is higher than the previous sample taken 6 months ago, showing an ACR of 79 mg/mmol. Additionally, her serum urea and creatinine results have mildly deteriorated over the last 6 months.

      During her clinic visit, her blood pressure measures 129/76 mmHg.

      What medication changes would you suggest for Evelyn?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start ramipril and atorvastatin, consider alternatives to naproxen

      Explanation:

      Patients who have chronic kidney disease and a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more should be prescribed an ACE inhibitor, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, all patients with CKD should be prescribed a statin for the prevention of cardiovascular disease. In the case of a patient experiencing a decline in renal function, it may be advisable to discontinue the use of naproxen, although this decision should be made in consideration of the patient’s symptoms and functional impairment. The recommended course of action would be to start the patient on ramipril and atorvastatin while exploring alternative treatments for osteoarthritis. The second option is only partially correct, as ramipril is advised regardless of blood pressure in CKD patients with this level of proteinuria. The third option doesn’t include ramipril or atorvastatin, while the fourth and fifth options do not include atorvastatin. Ultimately, the decision to discontinue naproxen use will depend on the healthcare professional’s clinical judgement, the patient’s preferences, and the frequency of use.

      Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management

      Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.

      To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.

      According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.

      The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 23 - A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the clinic with joint issues. He has been experiencing swelling of the small joints in both hands upon waking up for the past few weeks, along with severe morning stiffness that takes about three hours to improve. He occasionally experiences discomfort in other joints and has had a swollen knee in the past. His current medications include allopurinol and Nizoral shampoo, which he has been purchasing over the counter to treat the scales on his scalp. He has tested negative for rheumatoid factor. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Possible Seronegative Arthritis Diagnosis

      It is possible that the patient is taking allopurinol for gout, which can suppress symptoms once the correct dose is established. Haemochromatosis typically causes joint pain but not acute swelling. Palindromic rheumatism is often a diagnosis of exclusion and can progress to rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) causes morning stiffness and mainly affects the shoulder girdle in older individuals. Although the description could fit for RA, acute psoriatic arthropathy can be clinically indistinguishable. However, the patient’s seronegative arthritis and likely scalp psoriasis provide further clues. While skin lesions may not be present, nail changes are usually observed. Approximately 25% of RA cases are seronegative, but the overall presentation suggests a possible diagnosis of seronegative arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of hypertension and intermittent loin pain presents to his new GP for registration after moving house. During urine testing, evidence of haematuria is found. The patient has a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Kidney Conditions: ADPKD, Glomerulonephritis, Renal Stones, Renal Cell Carcinoma, and Urinary Tract Infection

      The kidneys are vital organs responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and regulating fluid balance in the body. However, they can be affected by various conditions that can lead to significant health problems. Here are some common kidney conditions and their characteristics:

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)
      ADPKD is a genetic disorder that causes the growth of multiple cysts in the kidneys, leading to kidney enlargement and dysfunction. Symptoms may include hypertension, painless haematuria, intermittent loin pain, and a family history of subarachnoid haemorrhage. ACE inhibitors are the first-line treatment for hypertension in ADPKD patients.

      Glomerulonephritis
      Glomerulonephritis is a group of immune-mediated disorders that cause inflammation within the glomerulus and other parts of the kidney. It can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic urinary abnormalities to the nephritic and nephrotic syndromes.

      Renal Stones
      Renal stones are hard deposits that form in the kidneys and can cause sudden severe renal colic. They may be asymptomatic and discovered during investigations for other conditions.

      Renal Cell Carcinoma
      Renal cell carcinoma is a type of kidney cancer that can be detected using ultrasound and CT scans. More than half of adult renal tumours are detected when using ultrasound to investigate nonspecific symptoms. The classic features of haematuria, loin pain, and loin mass are not as frequently seen now.

      Urinary Tract Infection
      Urinary tract infection is a common condition that presents acutely. It occurs when bacteria enter the urinary tract and cause inflammation and infection. Symptoms may include pain or burning during urination, frequent urination, and cloudy or bloody urine.

      In conclusion, understanding the characteristics of common kidney conditions can help with early detection and appropriate management, leading to better outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 25 - You have a male patient aged 45 who has recently had a myocardial...

    Incorrect

    • You have a male patient aged 45 who has recently had a myocardial infarction.

      He attends for follow up and says he was told in hospital that he has familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH). He says several relatives in previous generations died young of heart problems. He has three children and wants to know what are the risks of their being affected.

      FH is inherited as an autosomal dominant, so what is the risk of each of his children being affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Familial Hypercholesterolemia Inheritance

      Familial Hypercholesterolemia (FH) is an inherited condition that affects the body’s ability to remove cholesterol from the blood. It is caused by a mutation in the LDL receptor gene, which is responsible for removing low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol from the bloodstream. Autosomal dominant inheritance means that if one parent has FH, there is a 50% chance that each child will inherit the gene and be affected.

      Most people with FH inherit the gene from only one parent, making them heterozygous. This means that they have one normal copy of the LDL receptor gene and one mutated copy. However, in rare cases, individuals can inherit the gene from both parents, making them homozygous. In these cases, symptoms of FH can appear in childhood and can be more severe.

      Overall, understanding the inheritance pattern of FH is important for individuals and families affected by this condition. It can help with early diagnosis and treatment, as well as genetic counseling for future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 26 - A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of bony pain that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of bony pain that has been present for several months, mainly affecting his left femur, pelvis, and lower back. His blood test shows a normal serum calcium level, but an elevated alkaline phosphatase. X-rays of the femur and pelvis reveal mixed lytic and sclerotic changes with accentuated trabecular markings. His chest X-ray is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget’s disease

      Explanation:

      Paget’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Paget’s disease is a bone disorder that affects approximately 2% of the population above 55 years of age. However, 90% of those affected are asymptomatic. The disease progresses through three phases, starting with lytic changes, followed by mixed lytic and sclerotic changes, and finally primarily sclerotic changes with increasing bony thickening. The new bone formed during the disease is disorganised, mechanically weaker, bulkier, less compact, more vascular, and prone to pathological fractures and deformities.

      The main goals of treatment for Paget’s disease are to normalise bone turnover, maintain alkaline phosphatase levels within the normal range, minimise symptoms, and prevent long-term complications. Bisphosphonates are the mainstay of treatment and are often given as intermittent intravenous courses.

      Long-term complications of Paget’s disease include deafness (in up to 50% of patients with skull-base Paget’s disease), pathological fractures, and, very rarely, osteogenic sarcoma.

      Other bone disorders, such as multiple myeloma, hyperparathyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, and secondary carcinoma, have different symptoms, diagnostic criteria, and treatments. Therefore, it is essential to differentiate between these disorders to provide appropriate care for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old male presents with concerns about his penis.

    Whilst examining himself he noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents with concerns about his penis.

      Whilst examining himself he noticed that he had a hard nodule in the shaft of his penis and has been concerned. His erectile function is normal but he is aware of some discomfort in his penis during intercourse.

      On examination you note that he has a firm fibrous nodule in the mid-shaft of his penis with no other abnormalities noted.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Peyronie’s Disease: A Common Condition with Asymptomatic Presentation

      This otherwise healthy man has recently discovered a nodule in the middle of his penis shaft, with no other abnormalities. This finding is suggestive of Peyronie’s disease, a common condition that affects approximately 1-3% of the population. Interestingly, many individuals with Peyronie’s disease are initially unaware of any deviation in their penis, as the condition is often asymptomatic.

      Despite its asymptomatic presentation, Peyronie’s disease can be associated with erectile dysfunction or painful intercourse due to curvature.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 28 - A 56-year-old man, newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man, newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus, presents for his first assessment. He is found to have changes in his eyes on fundoscopy.
      Which of the following options most needs urgent referral to an ophthalmologist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: New vessels on the disc

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Diabetic Retinopathy Findings: What Requires Urgent Referral?

      Diabetic retinopathy is a common complication of diabetes that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. As part of routine eye exams, healthcare professionals may identify various findings in the retina that indicate the presence and severity of diabetic retinopathy. However, not all findings require urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Here are some examples:

      – New vessels on the disc: These are a sign of proliferative retinopathy and require urgent referral as they can cause bleeding and threaten vision.
      – Dot-and-blot haemorrhages: These are a feature of background retinopathy and do not require urgent referral unless they are within one-disc diameter of the fovea. Annual monitoring is recommended.
      – Cataract: While cataracts are more common in people with diabetes, routine referral is sufficient if vision is significantly affected.
      – Hard exudates > one-disc diameter from the fovea: These are also a feature of background retinopathy and do not require urgent referral.
      – Two soft exudates in the temporal field: These cotton-wool spots are not a reason for referral, but referral for review within four weeks is indicated if other signs of pre-proliferative disease are present.

      Understanding which findings require urgent referral can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate care for people with diabetic retinopathy and prevent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 29 - John is a 85-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer who you have...

    Incorrect

    • John is a 85-year-old man with advanced metastatic prostate cancer who you have been managing in the community with palliative care who has died today. You fill out the death certificate. In which of the following circumstances would you be required to refer the case to the coroner?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness

      Explanation:

      A death should be referred to the coroner if the person who died was not visited by a medical practitioner during their final illness, if the cause of death is unknown, if the death was violent or unnatural, if the death was sudden and unexplained, if a medical certificate is not available, if the person who died wasn’t seen by the doctor who signed the medical certificate within 28 days before death or after they died, if the death occurred during an operation or before the person came out of anaesthetic, or if the medical certificate suggests the death may have been caused by an industrial disease or industrial poisoning.

      Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner

      When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.

      It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia has recently started taking clozapine after struggling to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man with schizophrenia has recently started taking clozapine after struggling to find an effective Antipsychotic treatment. His full blood count results are as follows:
      Hb 152 g/l
      MCV 87 fL
      WBC 2.0 x 109/L
      Neutrophils 0.9 x 109/L
      Lymphocytes 1.0 x 109/L
      Platelets 322 x 109/L
      What is the most suitable action to take in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop Clozapine

      Explanation:

      Agranulocytosis and Neutropenia in Clozapine Treatment

      Clozapine is a medication used to treat schizophrenia. However, it carries a risk of agranulocytosis and neutropenia, which are conditions that affect the white blood cells. Agranulocytosis occurs in approximately 1% of patients taking clozapine, while neutropenia occurs in about 3%. The highest risk of developing these conditions is between 6 and 18 weeks after starting clozapine treatment.

      Before starting clozapine treatment, blood counts must be normal. During the first 18 weeks of treatment, a full blood count is required weekly. Afterward, the frequency can be reduced to every 2 or 4 weeks after 12 months. If the leucocyte count falls below 3000/mm or the absolute neutrophil count falls below 1500/mm, the medication should be stopped, and the patient should be referred to a haematologist.

      Patients taking clozapine should report any symptoms of infection immediately. However, an exception is made for patients with benign ethnic neutropenia. If a haematologist approves, they may be started on the medication. It is essential to monitor blood counts regularly to prevent the development of agranulocytosis and neutropenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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