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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old inpatient needs to undergo a magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) to investigate...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old inpatient needs to undergo a magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) to investigate possible gallstones. However, it was discovered that the patient had consumed a fatty meal in the morning, and the medical team wants to postpone the procedure. The reason being that the patient's gallbladder would be harder to visualize due to the release of cholecystokinin (CCK) in response to the meal.

      What type of cells in the intestine are responsible for secreting CCK?

      Your Answer: D cells

      Correct Answer: I cells

      Explanation:

      The I cells located in the upper small intestine release cholecystokinin, a hormone that triggers the contraction of the gallbladder when fats, proteins, and amino acids are ingested. Additionally, cholecystokinin stimulates the exocrine pancreas, slows down gastric emptying by relaxing the stomach, and induces a feeling of fullness through vagal stimulation.

      K and L cells secrete gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) and glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), respectively. These incretins increase in response to glucose and regulate metabolism. GLP-1 agonists, also known as incretin mimetics, are medications that enhance the effects of these hormones.

      ECL cells, found in the stomach, secrete histamine, which increases acid secretion to aid in digestion.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 2 - A 63-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of dizziness and haematemesis...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of dizziness and haematemesis that started 2 hours ago. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus.

      The patient is stabilized after receiving 2 litres of normal saline for fluid resuscitation. The next day, a gastroscopy is performed, revealing a peptic ulcer that is no longer actively bleeding. The CLO test is positive, indicating the presence of the likely organism.

      What is the name of the enzyme secreted by this organism to aid its survival in the stomach?

      Your Answer: Protease

      Correct Answer: Urease

      Explanation:

      Helicobacter pylori uses urease to survive in the stomach by neutralizing gastric acid. This enzyme produces ammonia, which creates a more suitable environment for bacterial growth. The patient’s CLO positive peptic ulcer is consistent with a Helicobacter pylori infection. It is important to note that Helicobacter pylori does not use arginase, beta-lactamase, protease, or trypsin to neutralize stomach acid.

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old man is admitted to the general medical ward with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted to the general medical ward with complaints of abdominal crampy pain and diarrhoea. He has had five loose stools in the past 24 hours. The patient was diagnosed with a lung abscess three days ago and is currently being treated with cefaclor in the ward. His blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, pulse rate is 98 beats per minute, and temperature is 38.2 ºC. Blood investigations reveal Hb of 135 g/L, platelets of 280 * 109/L, and WBC of 13.4 * 109/L. A stool sample is sent for testing, and the results show the presence of gram-positive bacteria. The consultant prescribes metronidazole along with bezlotoxumab that binds to the toxin B of this bacterium. What is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Bezlotoxumab targets the Clostridium difficile toxin B, making it a monoclonal antibody used for treatment. Clostridium difficile is a gram-positive rod that can cause diarrhoea and abdominal pain when normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics. Bacillus cereus, Campylobacter jejuni, and Escherichia coli are incorrect answers as they are either associated with different symptoms or are gram-negative, making bezlotoxumab ineffective for their treatment.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 4 - Which one of the following forms the medial wall of the femoral canal?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following forms the medial wall of the femoral canal?

      Your Answer: Sartorius

      Correct Answer: Lacunar ligament

      Explanation:

      It is important to differentiate between the femoral canal and the femoral triangle, particularly during exams when time is limited.

      Understanding the Femoral Canal

      The femoral canal is a fascial tunnel located at the medial aspect of the femoral sheath. It contains both the femoral artery and femoral vein, with the canal lying medial to the vein. The borders of the femoral canal include the femoral vein laterally, the lacunar ligament medially, the inguinal ligament anteriorly, and the pectineal ligament posteriorly.

      The femoral canal plays a significant role in allowing the femoral vein to expand, which facilitates increased venous return to the lower limbs. However, it can also be a site of femoral hernias, which occur when abdominal contents protrude through the femoral canal. The relatively tight neck of the femoral canal places these hernias at high risk of strangulation, making it important to understand the anatomy and function of this structure. Overall, understanding the femoral canal is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating potential issues related to this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 5 - A 57-year-old woman is scheduled for a left hemicolectomy to treat splenic flexure...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman is scheduled for a left hemicolectomy to treat splenic flexure carcinoma. The surgical team plans to perform a high ligation of the inferior mesenteric vein. Typically, what does this structure drain into?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Splenic vein

      Explanation:

      Colonic surgery carries the risk of ureteric injury, which should be taken into consideration.

      Ileus can be caused during surgery when the inferior mesenteric vein joins the splenic vein near the duodenum, which is a known complication.

      Anatomy of the Left Colon

      The left colon is a part of the large intestine that passes inferiorly and becomes extraperitoneal in its posterior aspect. It is closely related to the ureter and gonadal vessels, which may be affected by disease processes. At a certain level, the left colon becomes the sigmoid colon, which is wholly intraperitoneal once again. The sigmoid colon is highly mobile and may even be found on the right side of the abdomen. As it passes towards the midline, the taenia blend marks the transition between the sigmoid colon and upper rectum.

      The blood supply of the left colon comes from the inferior mesenteric artery. However, the marginal artery, which comes from the right colon, also contributes significantly. This contribution becomes clinically significant when the inferior mesenteric artery is divided surgically, such as during an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair. Understanding the anatomy of the left colon is important for diagnosing and treating diseases that affect this part of the large intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old male pedestrian is struck by a van while on a busy...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male pedestrian is struck by a van while on a busy road and is transported to the Emergency Department via ambulance. Despite receiving high flow 100% oxygen, he remains dyspneic and hypoxic. His blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg and his pulse rate is 115 bpm. Upon examination, the right side of his chest is hyper-resonant on percussion and has decreased breath sounds. Additionally, the trachea is deviated to the left. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Flail chest

      Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      A flap-like defect on the lung surface caused by chest trauma, whether blunt or penetrating, can lead to a tension pneumothorax. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, worsening oxygen levels, a hollow sound upon tapping the chest, and the trachea being pushed to one side. The recommended course of action is to perform needle decompression and insert a chest tube.

      Thoracic Trauma: Types and Management

      Thoracic trauma refers to injuries that affect the chest area, including the lungs, heart, and blood vessels. There are several types of thoracic trauma, each with its own set of symptoms and management strategies. Tension pneumothorax, for example, occurs when pressure builds up in the thorax due to a laceration in the lung parenchyma. This condition is often caused by mechanical ventilation in patients with pleural injury. Flail chest, on the other hand, occurs when the chest wall disconnects from the thoracic cage due to multiple rib fractures. This condition is associated with pulmonary contusion and abnormal chest motion.

      Other types of thoracic trauma include pneumothorax, haemothorax, cardiac tamponade, pulmonary contusion, blunt cardiac injury, aorta disruption, diaphragm disruption, and mediastinal traversing wounds. Each of these conditions has its own set of symptoms and management strategies. For example, patients with traumatic pneumothorax should never be mechanically ventilated until a chest drain is inserted. Haemothoraces large enough to appear on CXR are treated with a large bore chest drain, and surgical exploration is warranted if >1500ml blood is drained immediately. In cases of cardiac tamponade, Beck’s triad (elevated venous pressure, reduced arterial pressure, reduced heart sounds) and pulsus paradoxus may be present. Early intubation within an hour is recommended for patients with significant hypoxia due to pulmonary contusion. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of thoracic trauma is crucial for improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old man is having surgery to remove his appendix. During the procedure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is having surgery to remove his appendix. During the procedure, the external oblique aponeurosis is cut and the underlying muscle is split along its fibers. A strong fibrous structure is found at the medial edge of the incision. What is the most likely structure that will be encountered upon entering this fibrous structure?

      Your Answer: Transversus abdominis

      Correct Answer: Rectus abdominis

      Explanation:

      Upon entry, the structure encountered will be the rectus abdominis muscle, which is surrounded by the rectus sheath.

      Abdominal Incisions: Types and Techniques

      Abdominal incisions are surgical procedures that involve making an opening in the abdominal wall to access the organs inside. The most common approach is the midline incision, which involves dividing the linea alba, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. Another type is the paramedian incision, which is parallel to the midline and involves dividing the anterior rectus sheath, rectus, posterior rectus sheath, transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal fat, and peritoneum. The battle incision is similar to the paramedian but involves displacing the rectus medially.

      Other types of abdominal incisions include Kocher’s incision under the right subcostal margin for cholecystectomy, Lanz incision in the right iliac fossa for appendicectomy, gridiron oblique incision centered over McBurney’s point for appendicectomy, Pfannenstiel’s transverse supra-pubic incision primarily used to access pelvic organs, McEvedy’s groin incision for emergency repair of a strangulated femoral hernia, and Rutherford Morrison extraperitoneal approach to the left or right lower quadrants for access to iliac vessels and renal transplantation.

      Each type of incision has its own advantages and disadvantages, and the choice of incision depends on the specific surgical procedure and the surgeon’s preference. Proper closure of the incision is crucial to prevent complications such as infection and hernia formation. Overall, abdominal incisions are important techniques in surgical practice that allow for safe and effective access to the abdominal organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 8 - A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue. She has experienced occasional bouts of diarrhea...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue. She has experienced occasional bouts of diarrhea for several years and has recurrent abdominal pain and bloating.

      During the abdominal examination, no abnormalities were found, but a blood test revealed anemia due to folate deficiency. The patient tested positive for immunoglobulin A-tissue transglutaminase (IgA-tTG), and an intestinal biopsy showed villous atrophy.

      Which serotype is most strongly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: HLA-DQ2

      Explanation:

      The incorrect HLA serotypes are HLA-A3, HLA-B27, and HLA-B51. HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis, which can be asymptomatic in early stages and present with non-specific symptoms such as lethargy and arthralgia. HLA-B27 is associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and anterior uveitis. Ankylosing spondylitis presents with lower back pain and stiffness that worsens in the morning and improves with exercise. Reactive arthritis is characterized by arthritis following an infection, along with possible symptoms of urethritis and conjunctivitis. Anterior uveitis is inflammation of the iris and ciliary body and is a differential diagnosis for red eye. HLA-B51 is associated with Behçet’s disease, which involves oral and genital ulcers and anterior uveitis.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe generalised abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe generalised abdominal pain and haematemesis. The patient reports ongoing epigastric pain over the past few months which was worse after eating meals. She had a similar but milder episode about 4 years ago, which was treated with omeprazole. Past medical history includes osteoarthritis for which she takes ibuprofen.

      Clinical observations reveal a heart rate of 120 beats per minute, blood pressure of 90/78 mmHg, respiratory rate of 25/min, oxygen saturations of 98% on air and a temperature of 37.5ºC. On examination, the patient has severe epigastric tenderness on palpation.

      What is the first-line treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IV proton-pump inhibitor infusion

      Correct Answer: Endoscopic intervention

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient is a perforated peptic ulcer, which may have been caused by their use of ibuprofen. The recommended first-line treatment according to NICE guidelines is endoscopic intervention, which can confirm the diagnosis and stop the bleeding. This involves injecting adrenaline into the bleeding site and using cautery and/or clip application. Helicobacter pylori eradication therapy is not appropriate in this case, as the patient’s symptoms suggest a perforated peptic ulcer rather than peptic ulcer disease caused by H. pylori. IV proton-pump inhibitor infusion may be considered later, but the patient requires immediate management with endoscopic intervention.

      Managing Acute Bleeding in Peptic Ulcer Disease

      Peptic ulcer disease is a condition that can lead to acute bleeding, which is the most common complication of the disease. In fact, bleeding accounts for about three-quarters of all problems associated with peptic ulcer disease. The gastroduodenal artery is often the source of significant gastrointestinal bleeding in patients with this condition. The most common symptom of acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease is haematemesis, but patients may also experience melaena, hypotension, and tachycardia.

      When managing acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease, an ABC approach should be taken, as with any upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. Intravenous proton pump inhibitors are the first-line treatment, and endoscopic intervention is typically the preferred approach. However, if endoscopic intervention fails (which occurs in approximately 10% of patients), urgent interventional angiography with transarterial embolization or surgery may be necessary. By following these management strategies, healthcare providers can effectively address acute bleeding in patients with peptic ulcer disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old female patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal discomfort, bloating,...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal discomfort, bloating, flatulence, and diarrhea that have persisted for 8 months. She reports that her symptoms worsen after consuming meals, particularly those high in carbohydrates. During the examination, the gastroenterologist observes no significant abdominal findings but notices rashes on her elbows and knees. As part of her diagnostic workup, the gastroenterologist is contemplating endoscopy and small bowel biopsy. What is the probable biopsy result?

      Your Answer: Villous atrophy

      Explanation:

      Coeliac disease can be diagnosed through a biopsy that shows villous atrophy, raised intra-epithelial lymphocytes, and crypt hyperplasia. This condition is likely the cause of the patient’s chronic symptoms, which are triggered by meals containing gluten. Fortunately, adhering to a strict gluten-free diet can reverse the villous atrophy. In some cases, coeliac disease may also present with a vesicular rash called dermatitis herpetiformis. Other pathological findings, such as mucosal defects, irregular gland-like structures, or transmural inflammation with granulomas and lymphoid aggregates, suggest different diseases.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department feeling ill with pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department feeling ill with pain in her upper abdomen that spreads to her back, but is relieved when she leans forward. Her blood test shows elevated levels of serum amylase and lipase. She had been diagnosed with a viral infection a week ago.

      What type of viral infection is linked to an increased likelihood of her current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B virus

      Correct Answer: Mumps virus

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis can be caused by mumps virus.

      The symptoms described in the scenario are consistent with acute pancreatitis. The mnemonic ‘I GET SMASHED’ is a helpful tool for identifying risk factors for this condition, and mumps virus is included in this list.

      While hepatitis B and C viruses have been associated with cases of pancreatitis, they are not known to directly cause the condition. influenzae virus is also not a known cause of acute pancreatitis.

      However, mumps virus is a known cause of acute pancreatitis. In addition to symptoms of pancreatitis, patients may also experience other symptoms of mumps virus. The severity of the pancreatitis is typically mild in these cases.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of blood in his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male visits his GP with a complaint of blood in his stool and increased frequency of bowel movements. He has also experienced mild weight loss due to a change in appetite. Upon referral to secondary care, a mass is discovered in his ascending colon. If the mass were to perforate the bowel wall, where would bowel gas most likely accumulate?

      Your Answer: Within the peritoneum

      Correct Answer: Retroperitoneal space

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that he may have bowel cancer in his ascending colon. As the ascending colon is located behind the peritoneum, a rupture of the colon could lead to the accumulation of gas in the retroperitoneal space.

      Pneumoperitoneum, which is the presence of gas in the peritoneum, is typically caused by a perforated peptic ulcer. On the other hand, subcutaneous emphysema is the trapping of air under the skin layer and is usually associated with chest wall trauma or pneumothorax.

      Air in the intra-mural space refers to the presence of air within the bowel wall and is not likely to occur in cases of perforation. This condition is typically associated with intestinal ischaemia and infarction.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset abdominal...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset abdominal pain. He rates the pain as 8/10 in severity, spread throughout his abdomen and persistent. He reports having one instance of loose stools since the pain started. Despite mild abdominal distension, physical examination shows minimal findings.

      What sign would the physician anticipate discovering upon further examination that is most consistent with the clinical picture?

      Your Answer: An irregularly irregular pulse

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of acute mesenteric ischaemia, which is characterized by sudden onset of abdominal pain that is disproportionate to physical examination findings. Diarrhoea may also be present. The presence of an irregularly irregular pulse is indicative of atrial fibrillation, which is a common cause of embolism and therefore the correct answer. Stridor is a sign of upper airway narrowing, bi-basal lung crepitations suggest fluid accumulation from heart failure or fluid overload, and bradycardia does not indicate a clot source.

      Acute mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that is commonly caused by an embolism that blocks the artery supplying the small bowel, such as the superior mesenteric artery. Patients with this condition usually have a history of atrial fibrillation. The abdominal pain associated with acute mesenteric ischaemia is sudden, severe, and does not match the physical exam findings.

      Immediate laparotomy is typically required for patients with acute mesenteric ischaemia, especially if there are signs of advanced ischemia, such as peritonitis or sepsis. Delaying surgery can lead to a poor prognosis for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - A 44-year-old female presents to her GP with persistent gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old female presents to her GP with persistent gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and complains of a burning pain in her chest. She is referred to a gastroenterologist who performs an endoscopy with biopsy, leading to a diagnosis of Barrett's oesophagus. Explain the metaplasia that occurs in Barrett's oesophagus and its association with an increased risk of oesophageal cancer.

      Barrett's oesophagus is characterized by the metaplasia of the lower oesophageal epithelium from stratified squamous to simple columnar epithelium. This change from the normal stratified squamous epithelium increases the risk of oesophageal cancer by 30-fold and is often caused by gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      Your Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium to simple columnar

      Explanation:

      Barrett’s oesophagus is characterized by the transformation of the lower oesophageal epithelial cells from stratified squamous to simple columnar epithelium. This change from the normal stratified squamous epithelium increases the risk of oesophageal cancer by 30 times and is often associated with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      Metaplasia is a reversible process where differentiated cells transform into another cell type. This change may occur as an adaptive response to stress, where cells sensitive to adverse conditions are replaced by more resilient cell types. Metaplasia can be a normal physiological response, such as the transformation of cartilage into bone. The most common type of epithelial metaplasia involves the conversion of columnar cells to squamous cells, which can be caused by smoking or Schistosomiasis. In contrast, metaplasia from squamous to columnar cells occurs in Barrett’s esophagus. If the metaplastic stimulus is removed, the cells will revert to their original differentiation pattern. However, if the stimulus persists, dysplasia may develop. Although metaplasia is not directly carcinogenic, factors that predispose to metaplasia may induce malignant transformation. The pathogenesis of metaplasia involves the reprogramming of stem cells or undifferentiated mesenchymal cells present in connective tissue, which differentiate along a new pathway.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of moderate upper abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of moderate upper abdominal pain that is slightly relieved by eating. Despite taking ibuprofen, she has not experienced any relief. The doctor suspects a duodenal peptic ulcer and schedules an oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD). Based on the location of the ulcer, which organ is derived from the same embryological region of the gut?

      Your Answer: Jejunum

      Correct Answer: Oesophagus

      Explanation:

      The major papilla located in the 2nd part of the duodenum marks the division between the foregut and the midgut, with the foregut encompassing structures from the mouth to the 2nd part of the duodenum where peptic ulcers are commonly found. It should be noted that the kidneys are not derived from gut embryology, but rather from the ureteric bud.

      The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply

      The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.

      The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      76.8
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  • Question 16 - Which one of the following is not a result of cholecystokinin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a result of cholecystokinin?

      Your Answer: It stimulates pancreatic acinar cells

      Correct Answer: It increases the rate of gastric emptying

      Explanation:

      The rate of gastric emptying is reduced.

      Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures

      A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.

      There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.

      The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.

      In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 36-year-old female patient presents with persistent dyspepsia of 6 months duration. She...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old female patient presents with persistent dyspepsia of 6 months duration. She failed multiple trials of conservative treatment by her GP, therefore, she was referred for the gastroenterologist for further review.

      Investigations were done and her urea breath test was negative for Helicobacter pylori. Gastroscopy revealed multiple gastroduodenal ulcers. What type of cells are affected by the high levels of fasting gastrin detected?

      Your Answer: Gastric parietal cells

      Explanation:

      The secretion of gastrin hormone from G cells in the antrum of the stomach is responsible for increasing the secretion of H+ by gastric parietal cells. Additionally, chief cells secrete pepsin, which is a proteolytic enzyme, while D cells in the pancreas and stomach secrete somatostatin hormone. Gastrin hormone is released in response to distension of the stomach and vagal stimulation.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During a sigmoid colectomy for colonic cancer in a 56-year-old man, which structure...

    Incorrect

    • During a sigmoid colectomy for colonic cancer in a 56-year-old man, which structure is most vulnerable to damage?

      Your Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Correct Answer: Left ureter

      Explanation:

      The left ureter is the structure that is most commonly encountered and at the highest risk of damage by a careless surgeon, although all of these structures are at risk.

      The colon begins with the caecum, which is the most dilated segment of the colon and is marked by the convergence of taenia coli. The ascending colon follows, which is retroperitoneal on its posterior aspect. The transverse colon comes after passing the hepatic flexure and becomes wholly intraperitoneal again. The splenic flexure marks the point where the transverse colon makes an oblique inferior turn to the left upper quadrant. The descending colon becomes wholly intraperitoneal at the level of L4 and becomes the sigmoid colon. The sigmoid colon is wholly intraperitoneal, but there are usually attachments laterally between the sigmoid and the lateral pelvic sidewall. At its distal end, the sigmoid becomes the upper rectum, which passes through the peritoneum and becomes extraperitoneal.

      The arterial supply of the colon comes from the superior mesenteric artery and inferior mesenteric artery, which are linked by the marginal artery. The ascending colon is supplied by the ileocolic and right colic arteries, while the transverse colon is supplied by the middle colic artery. The descending and sigmoid colon are supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The venous drainage comes from regional veins that accompany arteries to the superior and inferior mesenteric vein. The lymphatic drainage initially follows nodal chains that accompany supplying arteries, then para-aortic nodes.

      The colon has both intraperitoneal and extraperitoneal segments. The right and left colon are part intraperitoneal and part extraperitoneal, while the sigmoid and transverse colon are generally wholly intraperitoneal. The colon has various relations with other organs, such as the right ureter and gonadal vessels for the caecum/right colon, the gallbladder for the hepatic flexure, the spleen and tail of pancreas for the splenic flexure, the left ureter for the distal sigmoid/upper rectum, and the ureters, autonomic nerves, seminal vesicles, prostate, and urethra for the rectum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      17.8
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old male patient is diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. What is the...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old male patient is diagnosed with a peptic ulcer. What is the source of gastric acid secretion?

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Explanation:

      Gastric acid is released by parietal cells, while Brunner’s glands are located in the duodenum.

      Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures

      A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.

      There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.

      The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.

      In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old man is scheduled for a splenectomy. What is the most posteriorly...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man is scheduled for a splenectomy. What is the most posteriorly located structure of the spleen?

      Your Answer: Lienorenal ligament

      Explanation:

      The phrenicocolic ligament provides the antero-lateral connection, while the gastro splenic ligament is located anteriorly to the lienorenal ligament. These ligaments converge around the vessels at the splenic hilum, with the lienorenal ligament being the most posterior.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Spleen

      The spleen is a vital organ in the human body, serving as the largest lymphoid organ. It is located below the 9th-12th ribs and has a clenched fist shape. The spleen is an intraperitoneal organ, and its peritoneal attachments condense at the hilum, where the vessels enter the spleen. The blood supply of the spleen is from the splenic artery, which is derived from the coeliac axis, and the splenic vein, which is joined by the IMV and unites with the SMV.

      The spleen is derived from mesenchymal tissue during embryology. It weighs between 75-150g and has several relations with other organs. The diaphragm is superior to the spleen, while the gastric impression is anterior, the kidney is posterior, and the colon is inferior. The hilum of the spleen is formed by the tail of the pancreas and splenic vessels. The spleen also forms the apex of the lesser sac, which contains short gastric vessels.

      In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the spleen is crucial in comprehending its functions and the role it plays in the human body. The spleen’s location, weight, and relations with other organs are essential in diagnosing and treating spleen-related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      27.3
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  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Meckel's diverticulum. What embryological structure does it...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old boy is diagnosed with Meckel's diverticulum. What embryological structure does it originate from?

      Your Answer: Hindgut

      Correct Answer: Vitello-intestinal duct

      Explanation:

      The Meckel’s diverticulum is a condition where the vitello-intestinal duct persists, and it is characterized by being 2 inches (5cm) long, located 2 feet (60 cm) from the ileocaecal valve, 2 times more common in men, and involving 2 tissue types.

      Meckel’s diverticulum is a congenital diverticulum of the small intestine that is a remnant of the omphalomesenteric duct. It occurs in 2% of the population, is 2 feet from the ileocaecal valve, and is 2 inches long. It is usually asymptomatic but can present with abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, or intestinal obstruction. Investigation includes a Meckel’s scan or mesenteric arteriography. Management involves removal if narrow neck or symptomatic, with options between wedge excision or formal small bowel resection and anastomosis. Meckel’s diverticulum is typically lined by ileal mucosa but ectopic gastric, pancreatic, and jejunal mucosa can also occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman presents with fatigue, low energy, and lethargy. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with fatigue, low energy, and lethargy. She has a medical history of migraine, ulcerative colitis, depression, and generalized anxiety disorder.

      During the physical examination, slight pallor is noted in her eyes, but otherwise, everything appears normal.

      The results of her blood test from this morning are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 98 g/l
      - Platelets: 300 * 109/l
      - White blood cells (WBC): 6 * 109/l
      - Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 112
      - C-reactive protein (CRP): 5 mg/L
      - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 5 mm/hr
      - Thyroid function test (TFT): normal

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms and abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer: Poor iron intake

      Correct Answer: Long-term use of sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Sulphasalazine is the likely cause of megaloblastic anaemia in this patient, as her blood results indicate macrocytic anaemia and she has a history of ulcerative colitis for which she is taking the medication. Microcytic anaemia is commonly caused by poor iron intake, while sickle cell anaemia causes microcytic anaemia. Long-term use of sumatriptan is not associated with macrocytic anaemia. Although hypothyroidism can cause macrocytic anaemia, this option is incorrect as the patient’s thyroid function tests are normal.

      Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease

      Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

      Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.

      Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      104.6
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  • Question 23 - A 17-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of nausea and vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl comes to the emergency department complaining of nausea and vomiting. A medical trainee, who has recently started her emergency rotation, prescribes metoclopramide to alleviate her symptoms before ordering some tests.

      The nurse cautions the doctor that metoclopramide is not recommended for young female patients and suggests switching to cyclizine.

      What is the reason for metoclopramide being unsuitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Risk of urinary retention

      Correct Answer: Risk of oculogyric crisis

      Explanation:

      Metoclopramide use in children and young adults can lead to oculogyric crisis, which is a dystonic reaction that causes the eyes to involuntarily gaze upwards for an extended period. Opioids can cause respiratory depression, while cyclizine may result in restlessness and urinary retention. Amiodarone use may cause slate-grey skin discoloration. Additionally, metoclopramide can increase urinary frequency.

      Understanding the Mechanism and Uses of Metoclopramide

      Metoclopramide is a medication primarily used to manage nausea, but it also has other uses such as treating gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and gastroparesis secondary to diabetic neuropathy. It is often combined with analgesics for the treatment of migraines. However, it is important to note that metoclopramide has adverse effects such as extrapyramidal effects, acute dystonia, diarrhoea, hyperprolactinaemia, tardive dyskinesia, and parkinsonism. It should also be avoided in bowel obstruction but may be helpful in paralytic ileus.

      The mechanism of action of metoclopramide is quite complicated. It is primarily a D2 receptor antagonist, but it also has mixed 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Its antiemetic action is due to its antagonist activity at D2 receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone, and at higher doses, the 5-HT3 receptor antagonist also has an effect. The gastroprokinetic activity is mediated by D2 receptor antagonist activity and 5-HT4 receptor agonist activity.

      In summary, metoclopramide is a medication with multiple uses, but it also has adverse effects that should be considered. Its mechanism of action is complex, involving both D2 receptor antagonist and 5-HT3 receptor antagonist/5-HT4 receptor agonist activity. Understanding the uses and mechanism of action of metoclopramide is important for its safe and effective use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      42.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense abdominal pain on the right side. Upon further inquiry, she describes the pain as crampy, intermittent, and spreading to her right shoulder. She has no fever. The patient notes that the pain worsens after meals.

      Which hormone is accountable for the fluctuation in pain?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin

      Explanation:

      The hormone that increases gallbladder contraction is Cholecystokinin (CCK). It is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine, particularly in response to a high-fat meal. Although it has many functions, its role in increasing gallbladder contraction may exacerbate biliary colic caused by gallstones in the patient described.

      Gastrin, insulin, and secretin are also hormones that can be released in response to food intake, but they do not have any known effect on gallbladder contraction. Therefore, CCK is the most appropriate answer.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      126.6
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  • Question 25 - A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with a suspected direct inguinal...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with a suspected direct inguinal hernia that is likely to pass through Hesselbach's triangle. What structure forms the medial edge of this triangle?

      Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle

      Explanation:

      Although of minimal clinical significance, Hesselbach’s triangle is the pathway for direct inguinal hernias, with the rectus muscle serving as its medial boundary.

      Hesselbach’s Triangle and Direct Hernias

      Hesselbach’s triangle is an anatomical region located in the lower abdomen. It is bordered by the epigastric vessels on the superolateral side, the lateral edge of the rectus muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly. This triangle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of direct hernias, which pass through this region.

      To better understand the location of direct hernias, it is essential to know the boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle. The epigastric vessels are located on the upper and outer side of the triangle, while the lateral edge of the rectus muscle is on the inner side. The inguinal ligament forms the lower boundary of the triangle.

      In medical exams, it is common to test the knowledge of Hesselbach’s triangle and its boundaries. Understanding this region is crucial for identifying and treating direct hernias, which can cause discomfort and other complications. By knowing the location of Hesselbach’s triangle, medical professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with direct hernias.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      32.6
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  • Question 26 - A 36-year-old woman is found to have an aggressive caecal adenocarcinoma. Her sister...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman is found to have an aggressive caecal adenocarcinoma. Her sister passed away from the same disease at 39 years of age. Her mother died from endometrial cancer at the age of 42. What genetic abnormality is the most probable cause of this family's cancer history?

      Your Answer: MYH gene mutation

      Correct Answer: Mutation of mismatch repair genes

      Explanation:

      Microsatellite instability of DNA repair genes causes Lynch syndrome, which is identified by the presence of aggressive colon cancer on the right side and endometrial cancer.

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - How many unpaired branches does the abdominal aorta have to provide blood supply...

    Incorrect

    • How many unpaired branches does the abdominal aorta have to provide blood supply to the abdominal organs?

      Your Answer: Two

      Correct Answer: Three

      Explanation:

      The abdominal viscera has three branches that are not paired, namely the coeliac axis, the SMA, and the IMA. Meanwhile, the branches to the adrenals, renal arteries, and gonadal vessels are paired. It is worth noting that the fourth unpaired branch of the abdominal aorta, which is the median sacral artery, does not provide direct supply to the abdominal viscera.

      Branches of the Abdominal Aorta

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to the abdominal organs and lower extremities. It gives rise to several branches that supply blood to various organs and tissues. These branches can be classified into two types: parietal and visceral.

      The parietal branches supply blood to the walls of the abdominal cavity, while the visceral branches supply blood to the abdominal organs. The branches of the abdominal aorta include the inferior phrenic, coeliac, superior mesenteric, middle suprarenal, renal, gonadal, lumbar, inferior mesenteric, median sacral, and common iliac arteries.

      The inferior phrenic artery arises from the upper border of the abdominal aorta and supplies blood to the diaphragm. The coeliac artery supplies blood to the liver, stomach, spleen, and pancreas. The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the small intestine, cecum, and ascending colon. The middle suprarenal artery supplies blood to the adrenal gland. The renal arteries supply blood to the kidneys. The gonadal arteries supply blood to the testes or ovaries. The lumbar arteries supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum. The median sacral artery supplies blood to the sacrum and coccyx. The common iliac arteries are the terminal branches of the abdominal aorta and supply blood to the pelvis and lower extremities.

      Understanding the branches of the abdominal aorta is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions that affect the abdominal organs and lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      13.9
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  • Question 28 - A 57-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and type II diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and type II diabetes presents to the emergency department with dull chest pain accompanied by sweating and nausea. He is promptly administered oxygen, aspirin, morphine, metoclopramide, atenolol, and nitrates.

      Upon examination, angiography reveals significant blockage in all four coronary vessels. As a result, he is scheduled for an urgent coronary artery bypass graft, which will necessitate the removal of a vein from his lower limb.

      Which nerve is most frequently affected during a vein harvest for CABG?

      Your Answer: Saphenous nerve

      Explanation:

      During a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG), the great saphenous vein is often harvested. However, this procedure can lead to damage of the saphenous nerve, which runs closely alongside the vein in the medial aspect of the leg. Saphenous neuralgia, characterized by numbness, heightened sensitivity, and pain in the saphenous nerve distribution area, can result from such injury. Other nerves are not typically affected during a vein harvest for CABG.

      During surgical procedures, there is a risk of nerve injury caused by the surgery itself. This is not only important for the patient’s well-being but also from a legal perspective. There are various operations that carry the risk of nerve damage, such as posterior triangle lymph node biopsy, Lloyd Davies stirrups, thyroidectomy, anterior resection of rectum, axillary node clearance, inguinal hernia surgery, varicose vein surgery, posterior approach to the hip, and carotid endarterectomy. Surgeons must have a good understanding of the anatomy of the area they are operating on to minimize the incidence of nerve lesions. Blind placement of haemostats is not recommended as it can also cause nerve damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      37.6
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  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old man presents to you, his primary care physician, after being treated...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to you, his primary care physician, after being treated for acute pancreatitis in the hospital. A contrast CT scan conducted during his stay revealed several small blind-ended pouches in the sigmoid colon. These pouches do not appear to be causing any symptoms.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diverticulosis

      Explanation:

      Diverticulosis refers to the presence of diverticula in the colon without any symptoms.

      Diverticulosis is a common condition where multiple outpouchings occur in the bowel wall, typically in the sigmoid colon. It is more accurate to use the term diverticulosis when referring to the presence of diverticula, while diverticular disease is reserved for symptomatic patients. Risk factors for this condition include a low-fibre diet and increasing age. Symptoms of diverticulosis can include altered bowel habits and colicky left-sided abdominal pain. A high-fibre diet is often recommended to alleviate these symptoms.

      Diverticulitis is a complication of diverticulosis where one of the diverticula becomes infected. The typical presentation includes left iliac fossa pain and tenderness, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and signs of infection such as pyrexia, raised WBC, and CRP. Mild attacks can be treated with oral antibiotics, while more severe episodes require hospitalization. Treatment involves nil by mouth, intravenous fluids, and intravenous antibiotics such as a cephalosporin and metronidazole. Complications of diverticulitis include abscess formation, peritonitis, obstruction, and perforation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      26.8
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old female with a history of sickle cell disease arrives at the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old female with a history of sickle cell disease arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe epigastric pain that extends to her back. The patient displays clinical signs of jaundice. She reports drinking only one small glass of red wine per week and no other alcohol intake. What is the probable reason for acute pancreatitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune

      Correct Answer: Gallstones

      Explanation:

      The leading causes of pancreatitis are gallstones and heavy alcohol use. However, in the case of this patient with sickle cell disease, pigment gallstones are the most probable cause of their acute pancreatitis. Although autoimmune diseases like polyarteritis nodosa can also lead to pancreatitis, it is less common than gallstones. Additionally, the patient’s alcohol consumption is not significant enough to be a likely cause of their condition.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      47.4
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  • Question 31 - A 4-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is rushed to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain. The child is crying and mentions that she feels pain in her tummy that comes and goes in 10-minute intervals. Additionally, the mother reports that her daughter has vomited twice and that she has noticed thick blood in her stool.

      During the examination, a mass is detected in the center of the abdomen.

      A bowel ultrasound is conducted, which shows that the bowel has a doughnut-like appearance.

      Which part of the bowel is most likely affected by this condition?

      Your Answer: Ileoileal

      Correct Answer: Ileocolic

      Explanation:

      Intussusception, a condition that causes bowel obstruction by the invagination of proximal bowel into a more distal part, is most commonly found in infants. The ileocolic type is the most frequent, although different studies may show varying degrees of frequency for the different types. The pathogenesis of intussusception is still not fully understood, but theories include involvement of lymphoid tissue, abnormalities in inhibitory neurotransmitters, and electrolyte disturbances affecting gastric motility. Ultrasound is an effective diagnostic tool, which may reveal a target, doughnut, or pseudokidney sign. Ileoileocolic and colocolic types are less common.

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition where one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileocecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. Symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and bloodstained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, which may show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used first-line compared to the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child has signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for intussusception is crucial for parents and healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective management of this condition.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 32 - A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of chronic fatigue, bloating,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of chronic fatigue, bloating, and intermittent diarrhea. She denies any recent changes in her diet, rectal bleeding, or weight loss. Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are detected. Further investigations reveal the following results: Hb 95g/L (Female: 115-160), Platelets 200 * 109/L (150-400), WBC 6.2 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), and raised IgA-tTG serology. What additional test should the GP arrange to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endoscopic intestinal biopsy

      Explanation:

      The preferred method for diagnosing coeliac disease is through an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which is considered the gold standard. This should be performed if there is suspicion of the condition based on serology results. While endomysial antibody testing can be useful, it is more expensive and not as preferred as the biopsy. A stomach biopsy would not be helpful in diagnosing coeliac disease, as the condition affects the cells in the intestine. A skin biopsy would only be necessary if there were skin lesions indicative of dermatitis herpetiformis. Repeating the IgA-tTG serology test is not recommended for diagnosis.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which leads to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with villous atrophy and immunology typically reversing on a gluten-free diet.

      To investigate coeliac disease, NICE guidelines recommend using tissue transglutaminase (TTG) antibodies (IgA) as the first-choice serology test, along with endomyseal antibody (IgA) and testing for selective IgA deficiency. Anti-gliadin antibody (IgA or IgG) tests are not recommended. The ‘gold standard’ for diagnosis is an endoscopic intestinal biopsy, which should be performed in all suspected cases to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Rectal gluten challenge is a less commonly used method.

      In summary, investigating coeliac disease involves a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy, with NICE guidelines recommending specific tests and the ‘gold standard’ being an intestinal biopsy. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, and lymphocyte infiltration.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 33 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute and severe abdominal...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute and severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and ischaemic heart disease. Upon examination, his heart rate is 140 beats per minute, blood pressure is 98/58mmHg, respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations are 98% on air, and temperature is 38.8ºC. A CT scan with contrast of the abdomen reveals air in the intestinal wall. During surgery, it is discovered that the distal third of the colon to the superior part of the rectum is necrotic.

      Which artery is responsible for supplying blood to this portion of the bowel?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The correct artery supplying the affected area in this patient is the inferior mesenteric artery. This artery branches off the abdominal aorta and supplies the hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum superior to the pectinate line. It’s important to note that the anal canal is divided into two parts by the pectinate line, with the upper half supplied by the superior rectal artery branch of the inferior mesenteric artery, and the lower half supplied by the inferior rectal artery branch of the internal pudendal artery. Ischaemic heart disease and atrial fibrillation are risk factors for acute mesenteric ischaemia in this patient, which presents with severe, poorly-localised abdominal pain and tenderness. The coeliac trunk, which supplies the foregut, is not involved in this case. The internal pudendal artery supplies the inferior part of the anal canal, perineum, and genitalia, while the right colic artery, a branch of the superior mesenteric artery, supplies the ascending colon, which is not affected in this patient.

      The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut

      The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.

      The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.

      Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old woman is having a Whipple procedure for pancreatic head cancer, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is having a Whipple procedure for pancreatic head cancer, with transection of the bile duct. Which vessel is primarily responsible for supplying blood to the bile duct?

      Your Answer: Cystic artery

      Correct Answer: Hepatic artery

      Explanation:

      It is important to distinguish between the blood supply of the bile duct and that of the cystic duct. The bile duct receives its blood supply from the hepatic artery and retroduodenal branches of the gastroduodenal artery, while the portal vein does not contribute to its blood supply. In cases of difficult cholecystectomy, damage to the hepatic artery can lead to bile duct strictures.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 35 - An elderly man, aged 72, visits his family doctor with complaints of a...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man, aged 72, visits his family doctor with complaints of a vague abdominal pain that has been bothering him for the past few months. He is unable to pinpoint the exact location of the pain but mentions that it is more severe around the epigastric region. The pain worsens after meals and has resulted in a loss of appetite and recent weight loss. The man denies experiencing any nausea or vomiting and reports only mild constipation. He has a long-standing history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and dyslipidemia and is currently taking glipizide, insulin injections, atorvastatin, candesartan, and metoprolol as regular medications. Additionally, he is a current smoker with a 25 pack-year history. On examination, the abdomen is soft and non-tender. The man’s vital signs include a heart rate of 62 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 13 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 147/91 mmHg. What is the most likely mechanism responsible for this patient’s symptoms?

      Your Answer: Fibrous scar formation leading to intestinal wall adhering together and obstructing the intestinal lumen

      Correct Answer: Fatty accumulation, foam cell formation and fibrous plaque formation in the wall of blood vessels

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest that he may have chronic mesenteric ischemia, which is often caused by atherosclerosis in the arteries supplying the splanchnic circulatory vessels. There is no indication of recent abdominal surgery or an underlying inflammatory process. Constipation is a common issue in elderly individuals, but it is not typically associated with abdominal pain. Meckel diverticulum is a congenital defect that can cause symptoms such as melaena, acute appendicitis, and acute abdominal pain due to ectopic acid secretion. Diverticulitis is characterized by inflammation in the colon, often due to a lack of dietary fiber. Small bowel obstruction due to adhesions is a surgical emergency. Chronic mesenteric ischemia, also known as intestinal angina, is common in individuals with atherosclerotic diseases such as diabetics, smokers, hypertensive patients, and those with dyslipidemia. As the population ages and chronic diseases become more prevalent, the incidence and prevalence of chronic mesenteric ischemia are expected to increase.

      Ischaemia to the lower gastrointestinal tract can result in acute mesenteric ischaemia, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, and ischaemic colitis. Common predisposing factors include increasing age, atrial fibrillation, other causes of emboli, cardiovascular disease risk factors, and cocaine use. Common features include abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, diarrhea, fever, and elevated white blood cell count with lactic acidosis. CT is the investigation of choice. Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an embolism and requires urgent surgery. Chronic mesenteric ischaemia presents with intermittent abdominal pain. Ischaemic colitis is an acute but transient compromise in blood flow to the large bowel and may require surgery in a minority of cases.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 36 - Which one of the following is not a result of somatostatin? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a result of somatostatin?

      Your Answer: It deceases gastrin release

      Correct Answer: It stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to release lipase

      Explanation:

      Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures

      A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.

      There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.

      The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.

      In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 37 - A 75-year-old man has been experiencing abdominal discomfort and distension for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man has been experiencing abdominal discomfort and distension for the past two days. He has not had a bowel movement in a week and has not passed gas in two days. He seems sluggish and has a temperature of 35.5°C. His pulse is 56 BPM, and his abdomen is not tender. An X-ray of his abdomen reveals enlarged loops of both small and large bowel. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Small bowel obstruction

      Correct Answer: Pseudo-obstruction

      Explanation:

      Pseudo-Obstruction and its Causes

      Pseudo-obstruction is a condition that can be caused by various factors, including hypothyroidism, hypokalaemia, diabetes, uraemia, and hypocalcaemia. In the case of hypothyroidism, the slowness and hypothermia of the patient suggest that this may be the underlying cause of the pseudo-obstruction. However, other factors should also be considered.

      It is important to note that pseudo-obstruction is a condition that affects the digestive system, specifically the intestines. It is characterized by symptoms that mimic those of a bowel obstruction, such as abdominal pain, bloating, and constipation. However, unlike a true bowel obstruction, there is no physical blockage in the intestines.

      To diagnose pseudo-obstruction, doctors may perform various tests, including X-rays, CT scans, and blood tests. Treatment options may include medications to stimulate the intestines, changes in diet, and surgery in severe cases.

      Overall, it is important to identify the underlying cause of pseudo-obstruction in order to provide appropriate treatment and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 38 - A 67-year-old woman visits her GP after discovering a lump in her groin...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her GP after discovering a lump in her groin subsequent to relocating. The patient reports that she can push the lump back in, but it returns when she coughs. During the examination, the GP identifies the lump located superior and medial to the pubic tubercle. The GP reduces the lump, applies pressure to the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, and instructs the patient to cough. The lump reappears, leading the GP to tentatively diagnose the patient with a direct inguinal hernia. Through which anatomical structures will the hernia pass?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transversalis fascia and superficial inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      The correct structures for a direct inguinal hernia to pass through are the transversalis fascia (which forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal) and the superficial ring. If the hernia were to pass through other structures, such as the deep inguinal ring, it would reappear upon increased intra-abdominal pressure. In contrast, an indirect inguinal hernia enters the canal through the deep inguinal ring and exits at the superficial ring, so it would not reappear if the deep inguinal ring were blocked.

      The inguinal canal is located above the inguinal ligament and measures 4 cm in length. Its superficial ring is situated in front of the pubic tubercle, while the deep ring is found about 1.5-2 cm above the halfway point between the anterior superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle. The canal is bounded by the external oblique aponeurosis, inguinal ligament, lacunar ligament, internal oblique, transversus abdominis, external ring, and conjoint tendon. In males, the canal contains the spermatic cord and ilioinguinal nerve, while in females, it houses the round ligament of the uterus and ilioinguinal nerve.

      The boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle, which are frequently tested, are located in the inguinal region. Additionally, the inguinal canal is closely related to the vessels of the lower limb, which should be taken into account when repairing hernial defects in this area.

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      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 39 - A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after collapsing at home. According...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after collapsing at home. According to his wife, he had complained of sudden lower back pain just before the collapse. Upon examination, he appears pale and hypotensive, leading you to suspect a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Can you determine at which level the affected structure terminates?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L4

      Explanation:

      The section of the aorta that runs through the abdomen, known as the abdominal aorta, extends from the T12 vertebrae to the L4 vertebrae. This area is particularly susceptible to developing an aneurysm, which is most commonly seen in men over the age of 65. Risk factors for abdominal aortic aneurysms include smoking, diabetes, high blood pressure, and high cholesterol levels. Symptoms are often absent until the aneurysm ruptures, causing sudden and severe pain in the lower back or abdomen, as well as a drop in blood pressure and consciousness. To detect potential aneurysms, the NHS offers a one-time ultrasound screening for men over the age of 65 who have not previously been screened.

      The abdominal aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the 12th thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the fourth lumbar vertebrae. It is located in the abdomen and is surrounded by various organs and structures. The posterior relations of the abdominal aorta include the vertebral bodies of the first to fourth lumbar vertebrae. The anterior relations include the lesser omentum, liver, left renal vein, inferior mesenteric vein, third part of the duodenum, pancreas, parietal peritoneum, and peritoneal cavity. The right lateral relations include the right crus of the diaphragm, cisterna chyli, azygos vein, and inferior vena cava (which becomes posterior distally). The left lateral relations include the fourth part of the duodenum, duodenal-jejunal flexure, and left sympathetic trunk. Overall, the abdominal aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies oxygenated blood to various organs in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 40 - A 61-year-old man is having surgery for a cancerous tumor in the splenic...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man is having surgery for a cancerous tumor in the splenic flexure of his colon. During the procedure, the surgeons cut the middle colic vein near its source. What is the primary drainage location for this vessel?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric vein

      Explanation:

      If the middle colonic vein is torn during mobilization, it can lead to severe bleeding that may be challenging to manage as it drains into the SMV.

      The Transverse Colon: Anatomy and Relations

      The transverse colon is a part of the large intestine that begins at the hepatic flexure, where the right colon makes a sharp turn. At this point, it becomes intraperitoneal and is connected to the inferior border of the pancreas by the transverse mesocolon. The middle colic artery and vein are contained within the mesentery. The greater omentum is attached to the superior aspect of the transverse colon, which can be easily separated. The colon undergoes another sharp turn at the splenic flexure, where the greater omentum remains attached up to this point. The distal 1/3 of the transverse colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      The transverse colon is related to various structures. Superiorly, it is in contact with the liver, gallbladder, the greater curvature of the stomach, and the lower end of the spleen. Inferiorly, it is related to the small intestine. Anteriorly, it is in contact with the greater omentum, while posteriorly, it is in contact with the descending portion of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, convolutions of the jejunum and ileum, and the spleen. Understanding the anatomy and relations of the transverse colon is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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