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  • Question 1 - You are called to attend a 35-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest...

    Correct

    • You are called to attend a 35-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest on one of the wards. On arrival, the patient has defibrillator pads attached and someone is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). A rhythm strip displays ventricular fibrillation during a CPR pause.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Safely DC shock immediately

      Explanation:

      Proper Steps for Responding to a Shockable Rhythm

      When responding to a shockable rhythm, such as ventricular fibrillation, it is important to follow the proper steps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the resuscitation efforts. The first step is to immediately deliver a safe direct current (DC) shock, followed by one round of CPR and another safe DC shock. It is not appropriate to give drugs at this stage.

      After the second shock, continue CPR at a rate of 30 compressions to 2 breaths with interval checks. It is important to note that CPR is appropriate on both sides of the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm initially, but once the pads are attached and the rhythm has been observed, the appropriate pathway should be followed.

      Under no circumstances should resuscitation be stopped if a shockable rhythm is observed. Instead, adrenaline 1:1000 IV should be administered only after the appropriate steps have been taken and the patient’s condition has been reassessed. By following these steps, responders can increase the chances of a successful resuscitation and potentially save a life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What is the most effective method for diagnosing sleep apnoea syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most effective method for diagnosing sleep apnoea syndrome?

      Your Answer: Polygraphic sleep studies

      Explanation:

      Sleep Apnoea

      Sleep apnoea is a condition where breathing stops during sleep, causing frequent interruptions in sleep and restlessness. This leads to daytime drowsiness and irritability. Snoring is often associated with this condition. To diagnose sleep apnoea, a polygraphic recording of sleep is taken, which shows periods of at least 30 instances where breathing stops for 10 or more seconds in seven hours of sleep. These periods are also associated with a decrease in arterial oxygen saturation. the symptoms and diagnosis of sleep apnoea is important for proper treatment and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose? ...

    Correct

    • What condition is Tinel's sign utilized to diagnose?

      Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Tinel’s Sign for Median Nerve Compression

      Tinel’s sign is a diagnostic test used to identify median nerve compression. It involves tapping firmly over the ventral aspect of the wrist, specifically over the carpal tunnel, which produces an electric shock along the course of the median nerve. The test is performed by tapping over the creases on the inner side of the wrist between the two bones on either side of the base of the palm.

      The specificity of Tinel’s sign is high at 94%, meaning that it accurately identifies those with median nerve compression. However, the sensitivity of the test ranges from 44-70%, indicating that it may not identify all cases of median nerve compression. Despite this limitation, Tinel’s sign remains a useful tool for diagnosing median nerve compression and should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A father brings his 5-year-old child for a routine general practice (GP) appointment....

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 5-year-old child for a routine general practice (GP) appointment. During the consultation, the father mentions that the child recently started playing soccer and has been enjoying it. You observe that the child has a short stature, upslanting palpebral fissures, a flat occiput and a single palmar crease.

      What should be the GP's primary concern for this 5-year-old child with short stature, upslanting palpebral fissures, a flat occiput, and a single palmar crease who recently started playing soccer?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Correct Answer: Atlantoaxial instability

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Down syndrome who engage in sports that have a higher risk of neck dislocation, such as gymnastics, boxing, diving, horse riding, rugby, and trampolining, should be screened for Atlantoaxial instability. This complication of Down syndrome can increase the likelihood of sudden neck dislocation, and while the child in this scenario does not exhibit any immediate concerns related to hypothyroidism, dementia, leukaemia, or seizures, it is important to prioritize screening for Atlantoaxial instability.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 6-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a 6-day history of fever and irritability, with red eyes and reduced eating for the last 24 hours. On examination, she was noted to have dry and cracked lips, mild conjunctivitis and cervical lymphadenopathy.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most important investigation?

      Your Answer: Antistreptolysin O titre (ASOT)

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Monitoring

      Kawasaki disease is a febrile vasculitis affecting small to medium-sized arteries in children under the age of 5 years. Diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, including fever lasting for >5 days and at least four or five of the following: bilateral conjunctivitis, changes in the lips and oral mucosal cavities, lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, and changes in the extremities. Atypical cases may present with fewer symptoms. An echocardiogram is essential on admission to assess cardiac function and for the presence of aneurysms. Treatment involves inpatient care, intravenous immunoglobulins (IVIG), antipyretics, and monitoring of cardiovascular function. Corticosteroids may be used as an adjunct to IVIG. Aspirin is indicated for Kawasaki disease. Serial echocardiography is advised to monitor for any changes/worsening. If recognised early and treated appropriately, the prognosis is very good. If not, it carries a high morbidity as it is associated with the formation of arterial aneurysms and development of congestive heart disease. Other tests, such as ESR, throat swab, ASOT, and chest X-ray, may be performed but are not critical for the care and management of the patient.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease: Diagnosis, Treatment, and Monitoring

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A patient with a known history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A patient with a known history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with nausea, diarrhoea, coarse tremor and unsteadiness on her feet. She is taking the following prescribed medications: clozapine 150 mg mane and 300 mg nocte, lithium carbonate 200 mg bd and sertraline 50 mg od. Blood results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal Value
      Clozapine level 444 ng/ml 250 to 350 ng/ml
      Lithium level 2.3 mmol/l 0.4–1.2 mmol/l
      Blood glucose 6.1 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 4.5 × 109 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient in their 30s with these symptoms and medication history?

      Your Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms and Causes of Lithium and Clozapine Toxicity

      Lithium toxicity occurs when levels exceed 1.5 mmol/l, leading to gastrointestinal and central nervous system symptoms. At levels above 2.0 mmol/l, confusion, coma, and death may occur. Clozapine and lithium are not commonly co-prescribed, and lithium is not typically used to augment clozapine for psychotic symptoms. Clozapine toxicity causes lethargy, confusion, tachycardia, hypotension, and hypersalivation. Gastrointestinal infection due to clozapine-induced neutropenia is unlikely if the neutrophil count is normal. Hypoglycemia is not suggested with a blood sugar level of 6.1. Serotonin syndrome presents with tachycardia, hypertension, tachypnea, confusion, seizures, fever, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      55.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 56-year-old homeless man is discovered unresponsive on the pavement. Upon arrival at...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old homeless man is discovered unresponsive on the pavement. Upon arrival at the emergency department, blood tests are conducted, revealing an abnormality - Amylase 1100 U/l. An ultrasound is performed, indicating no biliary tree dilatation. What is the probable reason for this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is mainly caused by gallstones and alcohol in the UK. A popular mnemonic to remember the causes is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. CT scans of patients with acute pancreatitis show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 44-year-old man presents with nephrotic syndrome and is undergoing further investigations to...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old man presents with nephrotic syndrome and is undergoing further investigations to determine the underlying cause.

      Under what condition would corticosteroids be the most successful in reversing the nephrotic syndrome?

      Your Answer: Minimal change disease

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Different Types of Glomerulonephritis

      Glomerulonephritis (GN) is a group of kidney diseases that affect the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys. While there is no known effective treatment for IgA nephropathy, long-term corticosteroid therapy has shown favourable response in some cases. On the other hand, 80% of adults with minimal change GN can respond to steroids, but it may take up to 16 weeks for remissions to occur. Unfortunately, membranous GN does not respond to steroid treatment. Lastly, there is no specific treatment available to cause regression of amyloid deposits. It is important to note that treatment options may vary depending on the type of GN and individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 9-year-old patient is brought to the general practitioner by his parents because...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old patient is brought to the general practitioner by his parents because he has been disruptive at school. His teachers report that he does not pay attention in class, bullies other classmates and takes their food during lunchtime without their permission. One teacher also reported that the patient was seen hurting the class hamster.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oppositional defiant disorder

      Correct Answer: Conduct disorder

      Explanation:

      Differentiating between Conduct Disorder, Major Depression, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Antisocial Disorder, and Manic Episode

      Conduct Disorder, Major Depression, Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Antisocial Disorder, and Manic Episode are all mental health conditions that can present with similar symptoms. However, each disorder has its own unique characteristics that differentiate it from the others.

      Conduct Disorder is a disorder that affects individuals under the age of 18 and is associated with disruptive, bullying behavior and often torture of animals. It is characterized by repetitive behavior that violates the rights of others.

      Major Depression is associated with depressed mood, in addition to five of the following symptoms: sleep changes, loss of interest in previous hobbies or activities, guilt, decreased energy, difficulty concentrating, changes in appetite, sluggishness, and suicidal thoughts persisting for 2 weeks.

      Oppositional Defiant Disorder is characterized by behavior in opposition to authority, but there is no violation of the rights of others or extreme behavior such as bullying or animal cruelty.

      Antisocial Disorder is diagnosed in individuals who are 18 or older and exhibit signs of Conduct Disorder. It is characterized by a disregard for the rights of others and a lack of empathy.

      Manic Episode is associated with elevated mood lasting for 7 days. These patients feel as though they have increased energy, do not need sleep, engage in risky sexual activity and sometimes illicit behavior, feel above the law or invincible, are easily distractible, have flight of fancy, are agitated, and have pressured speech.

      It is important to differentiate between these disorders to ensure that individuals receive the appropriate treatment and support for their specific condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is found to have gestational...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who has never given birth is found to have gestational diabetes during her current pregnancy after an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). She inquires about the potential impact of this diagnosis on future pregnancies.

      What is the recommended method for screening for gestational diabetes in subsequent pregnancies?

      Your Answer: Random capillary blood glucose at booking, and OGTT at 24-28 weeks

      Correct Answer: OGTT immediately after booking, and at 24-28 weeks

      Explanation:

      Women with a history of gestational diabetes should be offered an OGTT immediately after booking and at 24-28 weeks to screen for gestational diabetes in subsequent pregnancies. No screening test is not recommended. OGTT at 24-28 weeks is the screening strategy for those with risk factors but no previous history of gestational diabetes.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a complaint of headache for the past few months. She reports feeling a tight band-like sensation all over her head, which is present most days but has not interfered with her work. She experiences fatigue due to the headache but denies any associated nausea or vomiting. She occasionally takes paracetamol and ibuprofen, which provide some relief. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic tension headache

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are most consistent with chronic tension headache, which is a common cause of non-pulsatile headache that affects both sides of the head. There may be tenderness in the scalp muscles. Treatment typically involves stress relief measures such as massage or antidepressants. Chronic headache is defined as occurring 15 or more days per month for at least 3 months. Other types of headache, such as cluster headache, trigeminal neuralgia, and migraine, have more specific features that are not present in this case. Medication overuse headache is unlikely given the patient’s occasional use of paracetamol and ibuprofen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A study investigated the effectiveness of a new statin therapy in preventing ischaemic heart disease in a diabetic population. Over a five-year period, 1000 patients were randomly assigned to receive the new therapy and 1000 were given a placebo. Among the placebo group, 150 patients experienced myocardial infarctions, while the group treated with the new statin had 100 infarctions. What is the percentage reduction in relative risk of MI provided by the statin therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 33%

      Explanation:

      Relative Risk Reduction

      Relative risk reduction is a measure of the effectiveness of a therapy in reducing the risk of an event occurring in a treated group compared to a control group. It provides valuable information about the efficacy of a treatment and the expected reduction in risk when treating subjects. The formula for calculating relative risk reduction is (CER – EER)/CER, where CER is the control group event rate and EER is the experimental group event rate.

      For instance, if there were 50 fewer myocardial infarctions (MIs) in the treated group than in the placebo-treated group, the relative risk reduction would be 33%. This information is crucial in determining the significance of the data and the effectiveness of the treatment. relative risk reduction is essential in evaluating the efficacy of a therapy and making informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 47-year-old man presents with lower back pain that has been bothering him...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man presents with lower back pain that has been bothering him for the past 2 weeks. There are no signs of trauma or systemic symptoms, and his clinical and neurological examinations are normal. You advise him to stay active and provide him with a list of exercises to do at home. However, he requests pain relief to help him get through the day. What is the best initial medication to prescribe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral naproxen

      Explanation:

      The 2016 NICE guidelines suggest considering oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for the management of low back pain, while taking into account potential differences in toxicity for the gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal systems, as well as the individual’s risk factors, including age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs for low back pain, appropriate clinical assessment, ongoing monitoring of risk factors, and the use of gastroprotective treatment should be considered. It is recommended to prescribe oral NSAIDs for low back pain at the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible period of time. Weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) should only be considered for managing acute low back pain if an NSAID is contraindicated, not tolerated, or has been ineffective. Paracetamol alone should not be offered for managing low back pain.

      Management of Non-Specific Lower Back Pain

      Lower back pain is a common condition that affects many people. In 2016, NICE updated their guidelines on the management of non-specific lower back pain. The guidelines recommend NSAIDs as the first-line treatment for back pain. Lumbar spine x-rays are not recommended, and MRI should only be offered to patients where malignancy, infection, fracture, cauda equina or ankylosing spondylitis is suspected.

      Patients with non-specific back pain are advised to stay physically active and exercise. NSAIDs are recommended as the first-line analgesia, and proton pump inhibitors should be co-prescribed for patients over the age of 45 years who are given NSAIDs. For patients with sciatica, NICE guidelines on neuropathic pain should be followed.

      Other possible treatments include exercise programmes and manual therapy, but only as part of a treatment package including exercise, with or without psychological therapy. Radiofrequency denervation and epidural injections of local anaesthetic and steroid may also be considered for acute and severe sciatica.

      In summary, the management of non-specific lower back pain involves encouraging self-management, staying physically active, and using NSAIDs as the first-line analgesia. Other treatments may be considered as part of a treatment package, depending on the severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a few months history of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a few months history of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. Further questioning reveals increasing episodes of facial flushing and occasional wheeze. Clinical examination reveals irregular, craggy hepatomegaly. Abdominal CT is performed which revealed nonspecific thickening of a terminal small bowel loop, a large calcified lesion in the small bowel mesentery and innumerable lesions in the liver.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carcinoid syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carcinoid Syndrome and Differential Diagnosis

      Carcinoid syndrome is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes serotonin and is commonly found in the terminal ileum. While the primary tumor is often asymptomatic, metastasis can lead to symptoms such as diarrhea, facial flushing, and bronchospasm. Abdominal pain may also be present due to liver and mesenteric metastases. Diagnosis is made through biopsy or finding elevated levels of 5-HIAA in urine. Treatment options include surgery, chemotherapy, and somatostatin analogues like octreotide.

      Whipple’s disease presents with diarrhea, weight loss, and migratory arthritis, typically affecting the duodenum. Yersinia ileitis and tuberculosis both affect the terminal ileum and cause diarrhea and thickening of small bowel loops on CT, but do not match the symptoms and imaging findings described in the case of carcinoid syndrome. Normal menopause is also not a likely diagnosis based on the patient’s history and imaging results. A thorough differential diagnosis is important in accurately identifying and treating carcinoid syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - An 81-year-old man has fallen off his bike and hit his head. His...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man has fallen off his bike and hit his head. His friend at the scene reports that he was unconscious for less than a minute. The man was cycling slowly on a path beside a canal. Upon initial assessment, he has some bruising on his upper and lower limbs, a Glasgow coma score (GCS) of 15, and no neurological deficit. He has not experienced vomiting or seizures since the accident and was able to describe the incident. He takes antihypertensives but has no significant medical history. What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perform a CT head scan within 8 hours

      Explanation:

      When it comes to detecting significant brain injuries in the acute setting, CT imaging of the head is currently the preferred method of investigation. MRI is not typically used due to safety concerns, logistical challenges, and resource limitations.

      According to NICE guidelines, patients over the age of 65 who experience a head injury resulting in loss of consciousness or amnesia should undergo a CT head scan within 8 hours. However, if there is an indication for a CT head scan within 1 hour, that should take priority. The specific indications for CT head scans within 1 hour and 8 hours can be found below.

      Reference:
      NICE (2014): Head injury: assessment and early management.

      NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults

      Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.

      For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury without other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 16 - As a caregiver for an elderly gentleman on the acute medical unit, who...

    Incorrect

    • As a caregiver for an elderly gentleman on the acute medical unit, who also suffers from hypertension, he has been admitted with an intracerebral bleed and is awaiting a neurosurgical bed for observation. However, throughout the day, he becomes increasingly unresponsive, only localizing and opening his eyes in response to pain. What investigation is the most crucial in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CT scan of the brain

      Explanation:

      When patients with intracranial bleeds become unresponsive, it is crucial to promptly perform a CT scan to detect hydrocephalus. This diagnostic tool can quickly confirm or rule out the presence of hydrocephalus in these patients. CT angiograms are not appropriate for this purpose, as they are typically used to locate the source of subarachnoid bleeds. While arterial blood tests can reveal whether a patient with COPD is retaining carbon dioxide, this is not relevant for a patient without underlying lung pathology. Although hyponatremia is common in patients with intracranial bleeds, it does not present in a way that would warrant urgent investigation. While lumbar punctures can measure intracranial pressure, they should not be performed without first conducting a CT scan in these patients.

      Types of Traumatic Brain Injury

      Traumatic brain injury can result in primary and secondary brain injury. Primary brain injury can be focal or diffuse. Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing, which causes disruption and tearing of axons. intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural, or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to or contralateral to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma rendering the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia. The Cushings reflex often occurs late and is usually a pre-terminal event.

      Extradural haematoma is bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull. It often results from acceleration-deceleration trauma or a blow to the side of the head. The majority of epidural haematomas occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural haematoma is bleeding into the outermost meningeal layer. It most commonly occurs around the frontal and parietal lobes. Risk factors include old age, alcoholism, and anticoagulation. Subarachnoid haemorrhage classically causes a sudden occipital headache. It usually occurs spontaneously in the context of a ruptured cerebral aneurysm but may be seen in association with other injuries when a patient has sustained a traumatic brain injury. Intracerebral haematoma is a collection of blood within the substance of the brain. Causes/risk factors include hypertension, vascular lesion, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, trauma, brain tumour, or infarct. Patients will present similarly to an ischaemic stroke or with a decrease in consciousness. CT imaging will show a hyperdensity within the substance of the brain. Treatment is often conservative under the care of stroke physicians, but large clots in patients with impaired consciousness may warrant surgical evacuation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
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  • Question 17 - You are asked to obtain consent from a pediatric patient for electroconvulsive therapy...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to obtain consent from a pediatric patient for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).

      Which of the following is not a risk associated with ECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induction of dementia

      Explanation:

      Side Effects and Memory Loss Associated with Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a medical treatment that involves passing electrical currents through the brain to induce a seizure. While side effects of ECT are rare, some patients may experience memory loss. During the course of ECT, patients may have difficulty remembering newly learned information, but this typically improves in the days and weeks following treatment. However, some patients may experience partial loss of memory for events that occurred before ECT, which may take longer to recover.

      Despite these potential memory issues, some patients report improved memory ability following ECT, as it can remove the amnesia associated with severe depression. It is important to note that cardiac arrhythmia may be stimulated by the electrical shock of ECT, but musculoskeletal injury is rare with adequate anesthesia.

      It is also important to dispel the myth that ECT can cause dementia. Dementia is an organic illness that is not induced by ECT. Research has not found a link between ECT and dementia, but this remains an area of focus for further study. Overall, while ECT may have some potential side effects, it can be a highly effective treatment for severe depression and other mental health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 18 - A 68 year old woman has been admitted to the cardiology ward with...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old woman has been admitted to the cardiology ward with worsening symptoms of congestive cardiac failure. She is breathless at rest and has pitting oedema bilaterally to the level of the shins. The cardiology consultant asks you to prescribe a furosemide infusion.
      Which of the following mechanisms best describes the way that furosemide acts as a diuretic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Na+/ K+/2Cl– co-transporter inhibition

      Explanation:

      Types of Diuretics and Their Mechanisms of Action

      Diuretics are medications that increase urine output and are commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension and edema. There are several types of diuretics, each with a unique mechanism of action.

      Loop Diuretics
      Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the co-transport of Na+/K+/2 Cl– in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. This leads to a significant increase in sodium and chloride concentrations in the filtrate, resulting in massive diuresis.

      NaCl Transport Inhibitors
      Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, inhibit NaCl transport in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to a moderate increase in sodium excretion and moderate diuresis.

      Aldosterone Antagonist
      Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts as an aldosterone antagonist, causing an increase in Na+ excretion and a decrease in K+ and H+ excretion in the collecting tubules.

      Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor
      Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that increases bicarbonate excretion in the proximal convoluted tubule. It is not commonly used as a diuretic but is used to treat glaucoma, altitude sickness, and idiopathic intracranial hypertension.

      ACE Inhibitor
      ACE inhibitors, such as lisinopril, are primarily used as antihypertensive medications. By inhibiting ACE, they decrease the production of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of diuretics and their mechanisms of action is crucial in selecting the appropriate medication for a patient’s specific condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
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  • Question 19 - What is the joint that is most frequently impacted by diabetic Charcot's? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the joint that is most frequently impacted by diabetic Charcot's?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tarsometatarsal joints

      Explanation:

      Charcot’s Joint: A Destructive Process Affecting Weight-Bearing Joints

      Charcot’s joint is a condition that primarily affects the weight-bearing joints in the extremities, including the feet, ankles, knees, and hips. The most commonly affected joints are the tarsometatarsal and metatarsophalangeal joints, as well as the ankle. This condition is characterized by a destructive process that can lead to joint deformity and instability.

      Patients with Charcot’s joint typically have decreased sensation in the affected area and peripheral neuropathy. The most common cause of peripheral neuropathy is diabetes, which has a high affinity for the joints in the foot. Other causes of peripheral neuropathy, such as leprosy, syringomyelia, and tabes dorsalis, are much less common.

      Charcot’s joint can be a debilitating condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent joint deformity and instability. Treatment may include immobilization, orthotics, and surgery in severe cases. With proper management, patients with Charcot’s joint can maintain mobility and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 20 - A 31-year-old woman arrives at the obstetric department in the initial stages of...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman arrives at the obstetric department in the initial stages of labour. She is 36+4 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing polyhydramnios during this pregnancy. During examination, the foetal head is palpable on the right side of the maternal pelvis, while the buttocks are palpable on the left side. The amniotic sac remains intact. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer external cephalic version

      Explanation:

      The recommended course of action for a patient in early labour with a transverse foetal lie and intact amniotic sac is to offer external cephalic version (ECV) before considering other management options. Conservative management is not appropriate as it poses a high risk of maternal and foetal death. Offering an elective caesarean section is also not the first choice, as ECV should be attempted first. An immediate caesarean section is not necessary if there are no contraindications to ECV.

      Understanding Transverse Lie in Foetal Presentation

      Foetal lie refers to the position of the foetus in relation to the longitudinal axis of the uterus. There are three types of foetal lie: longitudinal, oblique, and transverse. Transverse lie is a rare abnormal foetal presentation where the foetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. This means that the foetal head is on the lateral side of the pelvis, and the buttocks are opposite. Transverse lie is more common in women who have had previous pregnancies, have fibroids or other pelvic tumours, are pregnant with twins or triplets, have prematurity, polyhydramnios, or foetal abnormalities.

      Transverse lie can be detected during routine antenatal appointments through abdominal examination or ultrasound scan. Complications of transverse lie include preterm rupture membranes, cord-prolapse, and compound presentation. Management options for transverse lie depend on the gestational age of the foetus. Before 36 weeks gestation, no management is required as most foetuses will spontaneously move into longitudinal lie during pregnancy. After 36 weeks gestation, active management through external cephalic version (ECV) or elective caesarian section is necessary. ECV should be offered to all women who would like a vaginal delivery, while caesarian section is the management for women who opt for it or if ECV is unsuccessful or contraindicated. The decision to perform caesarian section over ECV will depend on various factors, including the risks to the mother and foetus, the patient’s preference, and co-morbidities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 21 - A 26-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of mild left...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male patient arrives at the Emergency department complaining of mild left testicular pain and dysuria that has been going on for six days. During the examination, the patient's scrotum is inflamed, and the epididymis is the most tender area. The patient has a temperature of 37.9°C, and the urine dipstick test came back negative. The cremasteric reflex is present.

      What is the most appropriate management plan for the underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg bd for 10 days (or single dose 1g azithromycin) plus IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Acute Epididymitis and its Treatment

      Acute epididymitis is a condition characterized by the inflammation of the epididymis, which causes pain and swelling in the testicles over several days. It is most commonly caused by sexually transmitted infections such as Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae in patients under 35 years old. In contrast, urinary coliforms are the most common cause in children and men over 35 years old.

      To treat acute epididymitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a combination of antibiotics is required. A course of doxycycline or a single dose of azithromycin can cover chlamydia, while ceftriaxone can cover Neisseria, which can be resistant to other antibiotics. It is important to note that single agents do not cover both infections.

      Symptomatic relief can be achieved through the use of anti-inflammatory drugs and scrotal support, but they do not treat the underlying cause. It is crucial to seek medical attention promptly to prevent complications and ensure proper treatment.

      In summary, acute epididymitis is a painful condition that requires a combination of antibiotics to treat the underlying infection. Prompt medical attention and proper treatment are essential to prevent complications and achieve symptomatic relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 22 - A 75-year-old woman presents to a respiratory outpatient clinic with a dry cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to a respiratory outpatient clinic with a dry cough and shortness of breath that has been ongoing for 6 months. Despite being a non-smoker, her husband is a pigeon breeder. Upon examination, she has an SpO2 of 95% on room air and clubbing is present. Chest examination reveals symmetrical and bilateral reduced chest expansion with fine end-inspiratory crepitations. A chest radiograph shows increased interstitial markings in the lower zones of both lungs. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) confirms these findings and also shows bibasal honeycombing. There is no lymphadenopathy present on CT. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (usual interstitial pneumonia)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Interstitial Lung Disease: A Case Study

      Interstitial lung disease (ILD) is a group of lung disorders that affect the interstitium, the tissue and space surrounding the air sacs in the lungs. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is the most common type of ILD, characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. This article discusses the differential diagnosis for ILD, using a case study of a patient presenting with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue.

      Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)
      IPF is characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. Patients present with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue. Clinical examination reveals fine end-inspiratory crepitations throughout the chest with lower zone predominance. Radiological findings include reduced lung volumes and bilateral increased interstitial markings with lower zone predominance on chest X-ray (CXR), and honeycombing and microcyst formation in the lung bases on high-resolution CT (HRCT). Lung transplantation is the only definitive treatment, while steroids are not indicated.

      Tuberculosis
      Tuberculosis presents with chronic cough, haemoptysis, fever, and night sweats. Imaging shows cavitating lesions ± lymphadenopathy.

      Bronchiectasis
      Bronchiectasis presents with productive cough, recurrent chest infections, and haemoptysis. CXR findings are often non-specific, but dilated, thick-walled (ectatic) bronchi are easily seen on HRCT.

      Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis)
      Hypersensitivity pneumonitis may be caused by airborne irritants to lung parenchyma, such as pigeon breeding. Changes are classically found in lung apices, making it less likely than IPF/UIP.

      Sarcoidosis
      End-stage sarcoidosis may present with lung fibrosis, but this does not spare the apices and typically affects the middle and upper zones of the lung.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis for ILD includes IPF, tuberculosis, bronchiectasis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, and sarcoidosis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 23 - A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to clinic complaining of swelling in her ankles, face and fingers. She states she can no longer wear her wedding ring because her fingers are too swollen. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg; she has pitting oedema in her ankles and notably swollen fingers and face. Her blood results show:
      Investigation Results Normal value
      Creatinine 353.6 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
      Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Elevated
      Urinalysis 3+ glucose, 3+ protein
      Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this woman's increased PTH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism

      Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that occurs when the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to low calcium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including chronic renal failure, vitamin D excess, and the use of certain medications like diuretics.

      In cases of chronic renal failure, decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can lead to raised creatinine levels and proteinuria. This can cause diabetic nephropathy, which can result in hyperphosphataemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism. Over time, this can also lead to osteoporosis as a long-term complication of hyperparathyroidism.

      Vitamin D excess is another cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism, but it is associated with low phosphate levels rather than hyperphosphataemia. In cases of parathyroid adenoma, a less likely cause in this patient, there is an overproduction of PTH by a benign tumor in the parathyroid gland.

      Finally, the use of diuretics can increase phosphate excretion, leading to hypophosphataemia. This can also contribute to the development of secondary hyperparathyroidism.

      Understanding the various causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. By addressing the underlying condition, it may be possible to reduce the production of PTH and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
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  • Question 24 - A 29-year old teacher's aide is admitted with severe dehydration after experiencing vomiting...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year old teacher's aide is admitted with severe dehydration after experiencing vomiting and diarrhea for the past three days. She has no history of foreign travel and has not been in contact with anyone who is ill. The patient is typically healthy, but has mild asthma and occasionally takes salbutamol. Upon examination, the patient has a pulse of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 104/65 mmHg, and mild epigastric tenderness. An antiemetic is prescribed and IV hydration is initiated. Which antiemetic primarily acts on the histaminergic system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cyclizine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Antiemetics: Mechanisms of Action and Examples of Drugs

      Antiemetics are drugs used to suppress the vomiting reflex by acting on specialized sites within the central nervous system (CNS). These sites include the vomiting center, the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), and the vestibular system. Different antiemetics act on different neurochemical systems, resulting in a similar desired effect of vomiting suppression. Combining different antiemetics can result in pharmacological synergy, allowing clinicians to choose the best drug for a specific clinical scenario.

      Examples of chemical neurotransmitters and their corresponding drugs include acetylcholine and anticholinergics (e.g. hyoscine), histamine and antihistamines (e.g. cyclizine), 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT or serotonin) and 5-HT3-receptor antagonists (e.g. ondansetron, granisetron), and dopamine and dopamine antagonists (e.g. metoclopramide, domperidone, prochlorperazine). Domperidone is the drug of choice in Parkinson’s disease because it is a dopamine antagonist that does not cross the blood-brain barrier, while metoclopramide exacerbates Parkinson’s symptoms. Ondansetron is an antagonist of the 5HT3 receptor and can be given orally, intramuscularly, or intravenously to treat post-operative nausea and vomiting. Prochlorperazine is primarily a dopamine antagonist that inhibits dopaminergic stimulation of the CTZ and can also treat psychosis and motion sickness. Hyoscine is an anticholinergic that is most effective in treating motion sickness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 25 - A 27-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with pain in his hand....

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with pain in his hand. He had a similar incident to the previous patient, where he fell onto an outstretched hand while playing basketball. He is experiencing pain in the wrist, particularly below the thumb. X-rays are taken, including AP, lateral, and scaphoid views, but no fracture is seen.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Application of a scaphoid plaster and sling

      Explanation:

      Application of Scaphoid Plaster and Sling for Fracture Treatment

      A scaphoid fracture is typically caused by a fall on an outstretched hand, resulting in pain over the base of the thumb. Although special views of the scaphoid are required to confirm the injury, treatment is necessary in the absence of radiographic findings. A scaphoid plaster and sling are commonly used for immobilization, and the plaster should be removed after 14 days for repeat X-rays. If a fracture is detected, a new cast is applied, and a follow-up appointment is scheduled in four weeks. However, if no evidence of a fracture is found, the patient may have suffered a sprain, and no further follow-up is necessary unless symptoms persist. To avoid unnecessary immobilization, a CT or MRI scan may be ordered, with MRI being more sensitive. Slings are not recommended for scaphoid fractures. Repeat X-rays should be taken in 10-14 days, as bone resorption around the fracture allows for better visualization. Discharging the patient without further action is not recommended, as scaphoid fractures may not be immediately apparent and can lead to avascular necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old woman is being staged for her ovarian cancer diagnosis. The scan...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is being staged for her ovarian cancer diagnosis. The scan reveals that the tumor has extended beyond the ovary, but remains within the pelvic region. What is the stage of her cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 27 - A 30-year-old man reports experiencing a scratchy sensation in his eyes as the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man reports experiencing a scratchy sensation in his eyes as the day goes on. He feels that his eyes become tired. These symptoms only occur during weekdays when he works as a computer programmer for a local business. During examination, there is mild conjunctival hyperemia, but the rest of the ocular examination is normal. Which nerve stimulation is linked to tear production?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intermediate nerve

      Explanation:

      Cranial Nerves and Their Parasympathetic Functions

      The cranial nerves play a crucial role in the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. Here are some of the cranial nerves and their parasympathetic functions:

      1. Intermediate Nerve: This nerve supplies secretomotor innervation to the lacrimal gland. The parasympathetic fibers originate from the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve and travel through the greater petrosal nerve, deep petrosal nerve, Vidian nerve, and maxillary nerve to reach the lacrimal gland.

      2. Oculomotor Nerve: The oculomotor nerve provides motor innervation to four of the six ocular muscles and parasympathetic innervation to the ciliary muscle and sphincter pupillae muscle of the iris.

      3. Glossopharyngeal Nerve: This nerve provides secretomotor innervation to the parotid gland. The parasympathetic fibers travel through the tympanic branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, tympanic plexus, lesser petrosal nerve, and auriculotemporal nerve to reach the parotid gland.

      4. Vagus Nerve: The vagus nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the heart, lung, and gastrointestinal tract.

      5. Chorda Tympani: This branch of the facial nerve contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers that synapse at the submandibular ganglion attached to the lingual nerve. The postganglionic parasympathetic fibers reach the submandibular and sublingual glands via the branches of the lingual nerve.

      Understanding the parasympathetic functions of these cranial nerves is essential in diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old patient presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-day history of worsening confusion, vomiting, and lethargy. Upon examination, the lungs are clear and the heart sounds are fast and irregularly irregular. The patient has a medical history of uncontrolled hypertension and atrial fibrillation and is currently taking ramipril, amlodipine, and digoxin. It is suspected that a new medication has been recently added. What is the most likely medication that has been started?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Bendroflumethiazide, a thiazide-like diuretic, is prescribed as a third-line treatment for hypertension. However, it can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity when taken with digoxin. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include nausea, vomiting, confusion, weakness, palpitations, and can lead to serious complications such as hyperkalaemia, arrhythmias, and cardiac arrest. Dabigatran, a direct thrombin inhibitor, is a potential medication for stroke prophylaxis in patients with atrial fibrillation, but it does not cause digoxin toxicity. Flecainide, an anti-arrhythmic agent, can cause bradycardia when taken with digoxin, but it is not likely to cause digoxin toxicity. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is not indicated for hypertension or atrial fibrillation and is not the most likely cause of digoxin toxicity in this patient who has no signs of fluid overload.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visits his GP complaining of dysuria and increased urinary...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visits his GP complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency for the past four days. He denies any recent unprotected sexual intercourse or penile discharge. The patient has a medical history of gallstones and was hospitalised last year due to a severe blood reaction after consuming a meal rich in broad beans. On examination, he has suprapubic tenderness but no renal angle tenderness. All his observations are within normal limits. Which antibiotic should the doctor avoid prescribing to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Cefuroxime is a suitable option for this patient as it does not exhibit cross-reactivity with penicillins and there are no contraindications present.

      Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis

      Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

      The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.

      While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for patients with heart conditions.

      Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A patient attends the Neurology clinic following a referral from the general practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the Neurology clinic following a referral from the general practitioner due to difficulty with eating and chewing food. A neurologist performs a cranial nerve assessment and suspects a lesion of the left-sided trigeminal nerve.
      Which of the following is a clinical feature of a trigeminal nerve palsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bite weakness

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cranial Nerve Functions and Their Effects on Facial and Oral Muscles

      The human body is a complex system of interconnected parts, and the cranial nerves play a crucial role in ensuring that these parts function properly. In particular, the trigeminal nerve, facial nerve, and glossopharyngeal nerve are responsible for controlling various muscles in the face and mouth, as well as transmitting sensory information from these areas to the brain.

      If there is weakness in the masticatory muscles, it may be due to a problem with the motor branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Similarly, loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue may be caused by damage to the facial nerve, which carries taste fibers from this area. Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle is also linked to the facial nerve, which supplies motor fibers to the muscles of facial expression.

      Another common symptom of facial nerve palsy is the loss of control over eye blinking, which is mainly controlled by the orbicularis muscle. Finally, the glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for supplying taste fibers to the posterior third of the tongue.

      Overall, understanding the functions of these cranial nerves is essential for identifying the location of lesions and determining which nerve is affected. By doing so, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and develop effective treatment plans for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (1/1) 100%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/2) 0%
Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (1/1) 100%
Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Passmed